Q90. Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first Indian woman to achieve which distinction?
[CGPSC Prelims, 11 February 2024]
(A) Climb Mount Everest
(B) Become a Supreme Court judge
(C) Become a Chief Minister
(D) Preside over the Lok Sabha
Answer: (B) Become a Supreme Court judge
Explanation: Justice M. Fathima Beevi became the first woman judge of the Supreme Court in 1989. Her appointment was a significant milestone for women in the higher judiciary; she later served as Governor of Tamil Nadu.
Q89. Who is the Union Government’s chief legal adviser and primary law officer before the Supreme Court?
[CGPSC Prelims, 11 February 2024]
(A) Solicitor General
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation: The Attorney General of India is the government’s chief legal adviser under Article 76, and that office was missing from the listed options. The Solicitor General assists in legal representation but is not the constitutional Attorney General.
Q88. Which of these participate in selection of the Lokpal:
1. CJI or nominated Supreme Court judge;
2. Rajya Sabha Chairman;
3. Lok Sabha Speaker;
4. Lok Sabha Opposition Leader?
[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024]
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation: The Lokpal selection committee includes the Chief Justice of India or a judge nominated by the CJI, together with the Lok Sabha Speaker and Opposition Leader, among others. The Rajya Sabha Chairman is not a member.
Q87. About Justice Fathima Beevi:
1. First woman Supreme Court judge;
2. Governor of Kerala in 1997–2001;
3. First Muslim woman in India’s higher judiciary.
Which are correct?
[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024]
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A) 1 and 3
Explanation: Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court and an important pioneer for Muslim women in the higher judiciary. She served as Governor of Tamil Nadu, not Kerala, making the second statement incorrect.
Q86. Consider: 1. The Supreme Court may issue habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto to enforce Fundamental Rights. 2. Parliament may empower another court to exercise these powers. Which is correct?
[UPPSC PCS Prelims, 14 May 2023]
(A) Neither statement
(B) Statement 1 only
(C) Statement 2 only
(D) Both statements
Answer: (D) Both statements
Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue appropriate writs for enforcing Fundamental Rights. Under Article 32(3), Parliament may confer such powers upon other courts within their jurisdiction, without removing the Supreme Court’s own authority.
Q85. A Supreme Court judge who wishes to resign must address the resignation to whom?
[UPPSC PCS Prelims, 14 May 2023]
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Senior-most Supreme Court judge
Answer: (A) President of India
Explanation: Article 124(2) provides that a Supreme Court judge may resign by writing under their hand addressed to the President. This constitutional route differs from the stringent parliamentary process required for involuntary removal.
Q84. If the Supreme Court declares an election to the office of Vice-President void, are the office-holder’s prior official acts invalidated?
[UPPSC PCS Prelims, 14 May 2023]
(A) All past acts are invalidated
(B) Acts completed on or before judgment remain valid
(C) Acts before judgment only are invalid
(D) No acts enjoy protection
Answer: (B) Acts completed on or before judgment remain valid
Explanation: Article 71 protects official acts performed on or before the date of the Supreme Court’s decision invalidating a presidential or vice-presidential election. The purpose is legal continuity and protection of completed public administration.
Q83. Consider:
1. The Attorney General must possess qualifications for appointment as a Supreme Court judge.
2. The Attorney General is removed by the same process as a Supreme Court judge.
Which is correct?
[UPPSC PCS Prelims, 14 May 2023]
(A) Both statements
(B) Neither statement
(C) Statement 2 only
(D) Statement 1 only
Answer: (D) Statement 1 only
Explanation: Article 76 requires the Attorney General to be qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court judge. However, the Attorney General holds office during the President’s pleasure and is not removed using the parliamentary process applicable to judges.
Q82. Which statement about the procedure for removing a Supreme Court judge is incorrect?
[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandants 2023]
(A) The notice must be signed by at least 100 members in both Houses together
(B) An inquiry committee examines the charges
(C) Removal needs special majorities in Parliament
(D) The President issues the removal order
Answer: (A) The notice must be signed by at least 100 members in both Houses together
Explanation: A removal motion requires notices signed by at least 100 Lok Sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members, not a combined minimum of 100 members in both Houses. Subsequent investigation and parliamentary voting follow statutory and constitutional safeguards.
Q81. In which judgment did the Supreme Court hold that constitutional amendments infringing Fundamental Rights were invalid?
[WBCS Mains, Polity and Economy, 2023]
(A) S.R. Bommai
(B) Kesavananda Bharati
(C) Golaknath
(D) Minerva Mills
Answer: (C) Golaknath
Explanation: I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights under the interpretation then adopted. Kesavananda Bharati later developed the basic-structure doctrine and modified the earlier legal position.
