Q130. Who was the Chief Justice of India in May 2025?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 18 August 2025, Shift 1]
(A) D.Y. Chandrachud
(B) B.R. Gavai
(C) S.A. Bobde
(D) N.V. Ramana
Answer: (B) B.R. Gavai
Explanation: Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai became Chief Justice of India on 14 May 2025, succeeding Justice Sanjiv Khanna. The answer is tied to the month in the paper and should not be confused with a later incumbent.
Q129. As decided by the Supreme Court in 2025, how many years of legal practice were required before applying to become a civil judge?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 13 August 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Two years
(B) Three years
(C) One year
(D) Five years
Answer: (B) Three years
Explanation: The requirement refers to three years of practice as an advocate, restored through directions concerning judicial recruitment. Legal practice supplies exposure to evidence, procedure and courtroom administration before a new judge assumes adjudicative duties.
Q128. The Supreme Court called for special courts to speed up trials primarily involving which offences?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 12 August 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Murder generally
(B) Constitutional disputes
(C) Dowry property claims
(D) Child sexual abuse
Answer: (D) Child sexual abuse
Explanation: Special courts dealing with child sexual offences are intended to reduce delay and protect vulnerable witnesses. Speedy, sensitive trials support both fair-process requirements and the child-protection objectives underlying the statutory framework.
Q127. What direction was associated with the Supreme Court’s decision involving land of Kamla Nehru Memorial Trust?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 8 August 2025, Shift 1]
(A) Cancellation of the disputed allotment
(B) Grant of land as an alternative
(C) Award of increased compensation only
(D) Confirmation of the disputed allotment
Answer: (A) Cancellation of the disputed allotment
Explanation: The question concerns the Court’s direction to cancel the contested allotment. Judicial scrutiny of government land allotments examines compliance with public purpose, lawful procedure and equality, rather than assuming every administrative grant is beyond review.
Q126. When can the Supreme Court ordinarily issue a writ under Article 32?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 20 June 2025, Shift 2]
(A) For any ordinary contract dispute
(B) Whenever a district court refuses relief
(C) When a Fundamental Right is infringed
(D) Only on a reference from the President
Answer: (C) When a Fundamental Right is infringed
Explanation: Article 32 specifically guarantees enforcement of Fundamental Rights before the Supreme Court. Infringement of an ordinary statutory right alone normally requires another appropriate forum; High Courts may exercise broader authority under Article 226.
Q125. Which institution served as the highest court of appeal for British India before the Supreme Court of India?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 12 June 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Federal Court of India alone
(B) British House of Commons
(C) Supreme Court at Calcutta
(D) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in London
Answer: (D) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in London
Explanation: The Judicial Committee of the Privy Council was the final appellate authority for much of British India. After independence, Privy Council appeals ended and the Supreme Court of India began functioning in 1950 as the apex judicial institution.
Q124. Why is the Supreme Court described as the sentinel on the qui vive?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 9 June 2025, Shift 2]
(A) It protects Fundamental Rights
(B) It directs foreign policy
(C) It alone grants legislative privileges
(D) It fixes tax rates
Answer: (A) It protects Fundamental Rights
Explanation: The expression describes an alert guardian. The Supreme Court protects constitutional limitations and Fundamental Rights through judicial review and remedies. It does not become the executive authority for foreign affairs or the legislature for taxation.
Q123. Which pair of government directions on retrospective environmental clearance was discussed in the Supreme Court?
[RRB Group D, 12 December 2025, Shift 1]
(A) 2006 and 2011 directions
(B) 2012 and 2014 directions
(C) 2017 and 2021 directions
(D) 2009 and 2015 directions
Answer: (C) 2017 and 2021 directions
Explanation: The question points to executive measures issued in 2017 and 2021 concerning retrospective environmental clearances. Court review examined their legal validity against environmental protection duties and requirements for prior appraisal of projects.
Q122. What was the Supreme Court’s May 2025 position on granting environmental clearances retrospectively?
[RRB Group D, 2 December 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Such retrospective approvals were impermissible
(B) They were automatically valid
(C) They became optional
(D) They required no public hearing in any case
Answer: (A) Such retrospective approvals were impermissible
Explanation: The issue was whether projects could regularize missing prior environmental approval after commencing activities. The Court’s relevant May 2025 ruling rejected the impugned retrospective-clearance approach, emphasizing compliance before environmental harm occurs.
Q121. The Supreme Court’s April 2025 ruling on gubernatorial assent involved pending legislation from which State?
[RRB Group D, 2 December 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Telangana
Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: The matter arose from Tamil Nadu’s dispute over Bills submitted to the Governor for assent. The Court examined constitutional duties in processing legislative measures and the significance of avoiding indefinite delay by constitutional authorities.
