Q50. Which court upheld twenty-seven per cent OBC reservation in the All India Quota for certain medical admissions?
[RRB Group D, 23 August 2022]
(A) Bombay High Court
(B) Madras High Court
(C) Karnataka High Court
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (D) Supreme Court
Explanation: The Supreme Court considered reservation in the All India Quota for medical admissions and upheld the challenged OBC arrangement. The issue combined constitutional equality principles with policies intended to provide equitable educational opportunity.
Q49. Which two Supreme Court judges were identified in a question concerning legal issues around dowry and matrimonial disputes?
[RRB Group D, 13 September 2022]
(A) Justices R.F. Nariman and U.U. Lalit
(B) Justices N.V. Ramana and S. Abdul Nazeer
(C) Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and A.S. Bopanna
(D) Justices A.M. Khanwilkar and S. Kaul
Answer: (C) Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and A.S. Bopanna
Explanation: The paper named Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and A.S. Bopanna. It tested awareness of the Supreme Court bench identified in the relevant case, not a generally applicable rule that matrimonial cases always go before the same judges.
Q48. What percentage reservation was upheld by the Supreme Court in the EWS quota case regarding the 103rd Amendment?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 7 December 2022]
(A) Five per cent
(B) Fifteen per cent
(C) Ten per cent
(D) Twenty per cent
Answer: (C) Ten per cent
Explanation: In November 2022, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the ten-per-cent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections introduced by the 103rd Amendment. The majority rejected the particular basic-structure challenges raised against the measure.
Q47. What percentage OBC reservation in local bodies was connected with the Banthia Commission exercise considered by the Supreme Court?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 9 December 2022]
(A) 27 per cent
(B) 15 per cent
(C) 24 per cent
(D) 20 per cent
Answer: (A) 27 per cent
Explanation: The Banthia Commission was connected with satisfying the Supreme Court’s conditions for OBC reservation in local-body elections. Twenty-seven per cent was the relevant figure, subject to statutory and constitutional limits on aggregate reservations.
Q46. The advisory jurisdiction of India’s Supreme Court is prescribed by which Article?
[MPSC State Services, 21 August 2022]
(A) Article 142
(B) Article 145
(C) Article 147
(D) Article 143
Answer: (D) Article 143
Explanation: Article 143 provides for Presidential reference to the Supreme Court on specified questions of public importance. The Court’s advisory opinion is different in nature from an adversarial appeal involving binding relief between litigating parties.
Q45. Where is the permanent seat of the Supreme Court of India?
[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]
(A) Kolkata
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Delhi
Answer: (D) Delhi
Explanation: Article 130 names Delhi as the Supreme Court’s ordinary seat. It also permits sittings elsewhere when the Chief Justice appoints a location with the President’s approval. The provision does not create separate regional Supreme Courts.
Q44. Under which Article does the Supreme Court exercise original jurisdiction over specified Centre–State disputes?
[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 129
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 136
Answer: (A) Article 131
Explanation: Article 131 grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction over certain disputes involving legal rights of the Union and States. Article 136 instead concerns discretionary special leave to appeal, while Article 129 establishes court-of-record status.
Q43. What Article gives the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction?
[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]
(A) Article 143
(B) Article 142
(C) Article 141
(D) Article 144
Answer: (A) Article 143
Explanation: Article 143 allows the President to refer a question of public importance to the Court for its opinion. Article 142 governs complete justice, Article 141 precedent and Article 144 assistance by public authorities.
Q42. Which colonial enactment provided for setting up the Supreme Court at Calcutta?
[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]
(A) Pitt’s India Act 1784
(B) Charter Act 1813
(C) Indian Councils Act 1861
(D) Regulating Act 1773
Answer: (D) Regulating Act 1773
Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 provided for the colonial Supreme Court at Fort William, which began functioning in 1774. The modern Supreme Court created under Article 124 in 1950 is constitutionally distinct.
Q41. How may a Supreme Court judge be removed from office before the retirement age?
[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]
(A) By ordinary executive direction
(B) By constitutional parliamentary removal process
(C) By another judge’s order
(D) By Cabinet Secretariat notice
Answer: (B) By constitutional parliamentary removal process
Explanation: A Supreme Court judge may be removed by presidential order after addresses supported by constitutionally specified special majorities in each House for proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Ordinary executive dismissal is incompatible with judicial independence.