Q30. Which former Chief Justice of the Madhya Pradesh High Court did NOT become a Supreme Court judge?
[MPPSC State Service Prelims 2020, held 25 July 2021]
(A) Justice A.K. Patnaik
(B) Justice R.V. Raveendran
(C) Justice S.K. Jha
(D) Justice A.K. Mathur
Answer: (C) Justice S.K. Jha
Explanation: Justice S.K. Jha served as Chief Justice of the Madhya Pradesh High Court but did not serve as a Supreme Court judge. The other three named judges were later elevated to India’s apex court.
Q29. Within how many days may an aggrieved person appeal from an order of the National Green Tribunal to the Supreme Court?
[MPPSC State Service Prelims 2020, held 25 July 2021]
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days
Answer: (D) 90 days
Explanation: Section 22 of the National Green Tribunal Act permits an appeal to the Supreme Court within ninety days on specified grounds. The Supreme Court can entertain a delayed appeal where sufficient cause for delay is shown.
Q28. Consider:
1. The Regulating Act of 1773 provided for a Supreme Court at Calcutta.
2. Robert Chambers was its first Chief Justice.
Which is correct?
[UPPSC Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer, 20 September 2020]
(A) Statement 1 only
(B) Statement 2 only
(C) Neither statement
(D) Both statements
Answer: (A) Statement 1 only
Explanation: The Regulating Act provided for a colonial Supreme Court in Calcutta, inaugurated in 1774. Sir Elijah Impey, not Robert Chambers, was the first Chief Justice. This court must not be confused with the constitutional Supreme Court of 1950.
Q27. Does the Right to Information Act apply to the office of the Chief Justice of India?
[WBCS Prelims 2020]
(A) Never, because it is wholly exempt
(B) Only following constitutional amendment
(C) Yes, subject to lawful exemptions
(D) Only after Parliament issues a special order
Answer: (C) Yes, subject to lawful exemptions
Explanation: The Supreme Court held that the Chief Justice of India’s office is a public authority under the RTI Act. Disclosure must still respect statutory exemptions, judicial independence, confidentiality and privacy through the appropriate balancing process.
Q26. Which courts may issue constitutional writs for enforcing Fundamental Rights?
[UPSC CDS (II) 2020]
(A) Only the Supreme Court
(B) Only High Courts
(C) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
(D) All subordinate criminal courts
Answer: (C) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation: The Supreme Court issues writs under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226. High Courts can additionally issue writs for other legal rights, whereas subordinate courts do not possess a comparable general constitutional writ power.
Q25. In which circumstance may the Supreme Court decline an Article 32 petition?
[UPSC CDS (I) 2020]
(A) Whenever another court can hear it
(B) Whenever facts are disputed
(C) When no Fundamental Right has been violated
(D) When a different writ was requested
Answer: (C) When no Fundamental Right has been violated
Explanation: Article 32 protects remedies for infringed Fundamental Rights. If no such constitutional right is implicated, it is not an ordinary route for enforcing purely statutory or contractual claims. Alternative remedies alone do not erase Article 32’s constitutional status.
Q24. Who became Chief Justice of India on 18 November 2019?
[SSC CGL 2019 Tier-II, held November 2020]
(A) Ranjan Gogoi
(B) Ashok Bhushan
(C) Sharad Arvind Bobde
(D) Dipak Misra
Answer: (C) Sharad Arvind Bobde
Explanation: Justice S.A. Bobde became Chief Justice of India on 18 November 2019, succeeding Justice Ranjan Gogoi. The question asks for the appointee on a historical date, not the incumbent in a later year.
Q23. Article 142 enables the Supreme Court to pass orders for complete justice. Which description best captures the provision in the examination?
[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2019]
(A) Election Commission decisions are never judicially reviewable
(B) The Court has constitutionally conferred complete-justice powers
(C) President can proclaim a Financial Emergency without advice
(D) States may legislate on Union subjects without authorization
Answer: (B) The Court has constitutionally conferred complete-justice powers
Explanation: Article 142 authorizes orders needed for complete justice in a matter pending before the Supreme Court. This special constitutional power is not an unlimited licence to disregard the Constitution or overriding substantive legal prohibitions.
Q22. Which Supreme Court judge dissented in the 2018 Sabarimala temple-entry judgment?
[WBCS Prelims 2019]
(A) Justice Indira Banerjee
(B) Justice R.F. Nariman
(C) Justice A.M. Khanwilkar
(D) Justice Indu Malhotra
Answer: (D) Justice Indu Malhotra
Explanation: Justice Indu Malhotra authored the dissent in the 2018 Sabarimala decision. The majority held the challenged exclusion discriminatory, while her dissent emphasized limits of judicial intervention in contested religious-practice questions.
Q21. Who has the constitutional power to increase the number of judges of the Supreme Court?
[WBCS Prelims 2019]
(A) President acting alone
(B) Parliament by law
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Law Commission of India
Answer: (B) Parliament by law
Explanation: Article 124 permits Parliament to increase the Supreme Court’s judicial strength through legislation. The Chief Justice may raise administrative concerns, but cannot independently change the statutory number of sanctioned positions.
