Q150. Which constitutional provision was cited as the source of the Election Commission’s power to conduct Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls?
[RRB Group D, 25 August 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Article 325
(B) Article 326
(C) Article 327
(D) Article 324
Answer: (D) Article 324
Explanation: Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission. Its scope covers preparation and revision of electoral rolls. The other provisions address voting rights, rolls and Parliament’s powers over election law.
Q149. Which constitutional Article was central to the Supreme Court’s May 2026 ruling on unequal treatment of contractual employees in Assam?
[RRB Group D, 20 August 2026, Shift 1]
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 21
Answer: (A) Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of laws. Arbitrary differences in employment treatment can invite scrutiny under this provision. It does not automatically make every contractual employee equivalent to a permanent employee.
Q148. In its ruling concerning stray dogs, what interest did the Supreme Court emphasize alongside animal welfare?
[RRB Group D, 18 August 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Protection of private property alone
(B) Public safety and the right to life
(C) Commercial rights of breeders
(D) Municipal revenue collection
Answer: (B) Public safety and the right to life
Explanation: The question refers to balancing animal welfare with the safety of the public. Article 21 protects life and personal liberty, while animal-protection obligations remain relevant. The constitutional task is balancing legitimate interests, not disregarding either side altogether.
Q147. The Supreme Court linked emergency treatment for trauma victims primarily with which Article?
[RRB Group D, 17 August 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 11
(C) Article 41
(D) Article 31
Answer: (A) Article 21
Explanation: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty and is the foundation of decisions recognizing prompt emergency medical treatment. Unreasonable denial or delay can endanger life, making emergency care a constitutional concern rather than merely an administrative service.
Q146. Which three religions are covered by the Scheduled Castes Order, 1950, as amended, for Scheduled Caste status?
[RRB Group D, 12 August 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Hinduism, Jainism and Christianity
(B) Sikhism, Islam and Buddhism
(C) Hinduism, Christianity and Buddhism
(D) Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism
Answer: (D) Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism
Explanation: Under the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, as subsequently amended, persons professing Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism may meet the religion condition for Scheduled Caste recognition. Other eligibility conditions, including listed communities, also apply.
Q145. The Supreme Court’s consideration of passive euthanasia in the Harish Rana matter chiefly invoked which fundamental right?
[RRB Group D, 10 August 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 32
Answer: (A) Article 21
Explanation: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty. Supreme Court jurisprudence has addressed dignity in dying and carefully regulated withdrawal of futile life support through this provision. Passive euthanasia is legally distinct from actively causing death.
Q144. For which interstate river did the Supreme Court direct establishment of a water-disputes tribunal in a case involving Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?
[RRB Group D, 9 August 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Krishna
(B) Pennaiyar
(C) Godavari
(D) Cauvery
Answer: (B) Pennaiyar
Explanation: The dispute concerned waters of the Pennaiyar River shared by Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Interstate river disputes may be referred to tribunals under the statutory framework. This is different from the long-standing Cauvery dispute.
Q143. Which Articles empower the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively to issue writs?
[MPSC Group C Mains, 12 July 2026]
(A) Articles 14 and 19
(B) Articles 32 and 226
(C) Articles 21 and 22
(D) Articles 39A and 40
Answer: (B) Articles 32 and 226
Explanation: Article 32 provides a constitutional remedy through the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Article 226 confers writ jurisdiction on High Courts, including for other legal rights. The High Court power is therefore broader in subject matter.
Q142. What did the Supreme Court decide on 28 April 2025 about a fresh petition challenging the Waqf (Amendment) Act?
[RRB Group D, 3 February 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Dismiss all existing cases
(B) List the petition for immediate hearing
(C) Transfer it to a High Court
(D) Decline to entertain the fresh petition
Answer: (D) Decline to entertain the fresh petition
Explanation: The Court declined to entertain that additional petition during ongoing litigation concerning the legislation. The procedural order did not amount to dismissing every challenge or finally deciding the constitutional validity of the statute.
Q141. The Supreme Court’s October 2025 ruling that the public-trust doctrine covers artificial lakes affirmed which High Court bench?
[RRB Group D, 9 January 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Jaipur Bench, Rajasthan High Court
(B) Madurai Bench, Madras High Court
(C) Nagpur Bench, Bombay High Court
(D) Lucknow Bench, Allahabad High Court
Answer: (C) Nagpur Bench, Bombay High Court
Explanation: The ruling affirmed the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court. The public-trust doctrine treats certain environmental resources as being held for public benefit, limiting arbitrary disposal or destruction merely because a lake is artificial.