Q120. Which of the following is NOT a valid condition concerning the office of President of India?
[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 9 September (Shift 1)]
(A) The President cannot use the official residence without payment of rent
(B) The President cannot be a member of either House while in office
(C) Presidential allowances cannot be diminished during the term
(D) The President cannot hold another office of profit
Answer: (A) The President cannot use the official residence without payment of rent
Explanation: Article 59 entitles the President to use official residences without paying rent. The office also carries restrictions on legislative membership and other offices of profit, while emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during the presidential term.
Q119. By whom is the oath of office administered to the Vice-President of India?
[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 19 September (Shift 1)]
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) President of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B) President of India
Explanation: Article 69 requires the Vice-President to make an oath or affirmation before the President or a person appointed by the President. This is different from the presidential oath, normally administered by the Chief Justice of India.
Q118. Which Article provides for appointment of the Prime Minister by the President?
[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 19 September (Shift 1)]
(A) Article 71
(B) Article 66
(C) Article 75
(D) Article 62
Answer: (C) Article 75
Explanation: Article 75(1) specifies that the President appoints the Prime Minister and appoints other ministers on the Prime Minister’s advice. In parliamentary practice, the appointee must be capable of commanding the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Q117. The President of India is generally described as the ______ executive.
[SSC MTS 2024, 11 November (Shift 3)]
(A) Dictatorial
(B) Nominal
(C) Real
(D) Monarchical
Answer: (B) Nominal
Explanation: India’s parliamentary system separates the formal head of State from the politically responsible executive. The President is the nominal executive, while the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister exercises real executive authority subject to constitutional rules.
Q116. Which is NOT a qualification for election to the office of the President of India?
[SSC MTS 2024, 22 October (Shift 3)]
(A) Indian citizenship
(B) Qualification for election to Lok Sabha
(C) At least 35 years of age
(D) Holding an office of profit
Answer: (D) Holding an office of profit
Explanation: Article 58 requires citizenship, attainment of 35 years and eligibility for Lok Sabha election. Holding a disqualifying office of profit is a bar rather than a qualification. Certain offices, including that of Governor or minister, are expressly exempted.
Q115. Which Article stipulates that all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President?
[SSC MTS 2024, 18 October (Shift 2)]
(A) Article 71(1)
(B) Article 75(1A)
(C) Article 77(1)
(D) Article 78(2)
Answer: (C) Article 77(1)
Explanation: Article 77(1) provides the formal rule for expressing Union executive action in the President’s name. This does not mean the President personally decides each matter; government business is conducted through ministers and departments under constitutional rules.
Q114. Which Article states that Parliament consists of the President and two Houses?
[SSC MTS 2024, 18 October (Shift 3)]
(A) Article 62
(B) Article 79
(C) Article 67
(D) Article 73
Answer: (B) Article 79
Explanation: Article 79 defines Parliament as consisting of the President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. Although the President does not sit as a member of either House, assent and other constitutional responsibilities make the office part of Parliament.
Q113. In which Article are the qualifications for election as President of India specified?
[SSC MTS 2024, 1 October (Shift 2)]
(A) Article 50
(B) Article 56
(C) Article 58
(D) Article 60
Answer: (C) Article 58
Explanation: Article 58 lists presidential-election eligibility requirements, including citizenship, minimum age of 35 and qualification for Lok Sabha membership. Article 56 governs the term, while Article 60 provides for the oath or affirmation before entering office.
Q112. Which statement is NOT a feature of the Contingency Fund of India?
[SSC MTS 2024, 28 October (Shift 3)]
(A) It is established under Article 267
(B) It is held on behalf of the President
(C) It meets urgent unforeseen expenditure
(D) Presidential allowances are charged to this Fund
Answer: (D) Presidential allowances are charged to this Fund
Explanation: The Contingency Fund is established under Article 267 for unforeseen expenditure pending legislative authorisation. It is placed at the President’s disposal under statutory arrangements. Presidential emoluments and allowances are charged to the Consolidated Fund, not the Contingency Fund.
Q111. Who heads the Council of Ministers referred to in Article 74(1)?
[SSC MTS 2024, 30 September (Shift 3)]
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) President
Answer: (B) Prime Minister
Explanation: Article 74 establishes a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head to aid and advise the President. This constitutional arrangement places day-to-day political responsibility with ministers answerable to the Lok Sabha, rather than the President.
