Q30. Who finally decides doubts and disputes arising from the election of the President of India?
[SSC CHSL, held 3 July 2019 (Shift 3)]
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Supreme Court of India
(C) Election Commission of India
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B) Supreme Court of India
Explanation: Article 71 gives the Supreme Court exclusive authority to inquire into and decide disputes arising from presidential and vice-presidential elections. The Election Commission administers the electoral process but does not finally adjudicate these constitutional election disputes.
Q29. Who has served the longest term as President of India?
[SSC CHSL, held 9 July 2019 (Shift 2)]
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) Shankar Dayal Sharma
(C) R. Venkataraman
(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
Answer: (A) Rajendra Prasad
Explanation: Dr Rajendra Prasad served as President from 1950 to 1962, making him the longest-serving President of India. He was elected for two full constitutional terms after initially taking office when the Republic was established.
Q28. Who decides disqualification of a Lok Sabha member under the Tenth Schedule?
[SSC CHSL, held 10 July 2019 (Shift 2)]
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Lok Sabha Speaker
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India
Answer: (B) Lok Sabha Speaker
Explanation: The Lok Sabha Speaker decides anti-defection cases under the Tenth Schedule, subject to judicial review. The President’s Article 103 jurisdiction concerns other constitutionally specified parliamentary disqualifications and requires the Election Commission’s opinion.
Q27. Along with former President Pranab Mukherjee, how many other individuals were awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2019?
[UPSC NDA-II 2019, General Ability Test (17 November 2019)]
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: (B) Two
Explanation: The 2019 Bharat Ratna recipients were former President Pranab Mukherjee, musician Bhupen Hazarika and social worker Nanaji Deshmukh. Thus two other persons received the honour alongside Mukherjee, who had served as President from 2012 to 2017.
Q26. Which statement about Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?
[UPSC NDA-I 2019, General Ability Test (21 April 2019)]
(A) Members representing States are elected by elected MLAs
(B) Election uses proportional representation and single transferable vote
(C) One-third of members retire approximately every two years
(D) Rajya Sabha is permanent but can be dissolved early by the President
Answer: (D) Rajya Sabha is permanent but can be dissolved early by the President
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a continuing House and cannot be dissolved by the President. Its members retire in rotation, generally one-third every second year. The President’s power to dissolve the Lok Sabha does not extend to this upper House.
2018
Q25. Every judge of the Supreme Court of India is appointed by which authority?
[UPSC NDA-II 2018, General Ability Test (9 September 2018)]
(A) Supreme Court Collegium
(B) Union Cabinet
(C) President of India
(D) Lok Sabha
Answer: (C) President of India
Explanation: Article 124 provides that Supreme Court judges are appointed by the President under the constitutional framework for judicial appointments. The collegium plays a central role in making recommendations, but formal appointment remains a presidential act.
Q24. The President of India addresses the Parliament under Article 87 of the Indian Constitution ______.
[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2018]
(A) In a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament
(B) In a joint meeting of both Houses of Parliament
(C) In a joint session of both Houses of Parliament
(D) With both Houses of Parliament assembled together
Answer: (D) With both Houses of Parliament assembled together
Explanation: Article 87 requires the President to address both Houses assembled together at the beginning of the first session after each Lok Sabha general election and the first session of each year. The address outlines the government’s legislative programme.
Q23. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India may be removed from office in the same manner as which constitutional office-holder?
[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2018]
(A) Lok Sabha Speaker
(B) Attorney-General of India
(C) Supreme Court judge
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission
Answer: (C) Supreme Court judge
Explanation: Article 148 protects the Comptroller and Auditor-General’s independence by allowing removal only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge. The President performs the formal removal process subject to that demanding constitutional procedure.
2017
Q22. Consider the President’s powers:
1. Union executive power vests in the President.
2. Such power can only be exercised through subordinate officers.
3. Supreme command of Union defence forces vests in the President.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CDS-I 2017, General Knowledge (5 February 2017)]
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Article 53 vests executive power and supreme command of defence forces in the President. Executive power may be exercised directly or through subordinate officers according to the Constitution, so the statement restricting its exercise exclusively to officers is incorrect.
Q21. Who settles disputes arising from presidential and vice-presidential elections?
[UPSC CDS-I 2017, General Knowledge (5 February 2017)]
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) Parliamentary Committee
(D) Delhi High Court
Answer: (A) Supreme Court of India
Explanation: Under Article 71, the Supreme Court has the final constitutional authority to determine disputes connected with elections of the President and Vice-President. The Election Commission conducts these elections but does not adjudicate the final legal dispute.
