40. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
(a) All the three statements are correct.
(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) There is no correct statement.
Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.
Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. Starred questions invite oral answers and allow supplementary questions. Unstarred questions receive written replies, without supplementary questions. The first two statements reverse the meanings of starred and unstarred questions in parliamentary procedure.
39. The Prime Minister is the real executive under:
[SSC GD Constable 2026 (31 May, Shift 1)]
(a) Presidential system
(b) Parliamentary system
(c) Unitary system
(d) Federal system
Answer: (b) Parliamentary system
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, executive authority is exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The President serves as constitutional head of state and ordinarily acts on ministerial advice. This distinction is known as the dual executive.
38. Which of the following Cabinet committees is NOT headed by the Prime Minister?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I 2026 (16 March, Shift 2)]
(a) Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill Development
(b) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth
(d) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Answer: (b) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
Explanation: The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is generally chaired by a senior Union minister rather than the Prime Minister. It coordinates government business in Parliament, whereas important committees dealing with economic affairs, investment and major policy areas are chaired by the Prime Minister.
37. Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after dissolution.
II. A member elected Speaker must immediately resign from their political party under the Constitution.
III. The Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, after at least fourteen days’ notice.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation: Article 94 allows the Speaker to continue after dissolution until the next Lok Sabha first meets. The Constitution does not require resignation from political-party membership upon becoming Speaker. Removal requires the prescribed majority and at least fourteen days’ notice.
36. Assertion (A): India has a Parliamentary system of Government.
Reason (R): In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature.
Select the correct answer.
[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2025 (GS Paper I)]
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is true, but R is false.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both statements are correct, and the reason explains the assertion. Article 75(3) makes the Union Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This continuing dependence on legislative confidence is the defining characteristic of India’s parliamentary government.
35. Which of the following descriptions with regard to Parliamentary Privilege for Members of the Parliament of India is/are correct?
1. The Speaker is empowered to refer suo motu any question of privilege for investigation.
2. A question of privilege is accorded priority over other items in the List of Business.
3. The privilege extends to freedom from preventive arrest or detention.
Select the answer.
[UPSC CDS-I 2025 (13 April, General Knowledge)]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Speaker can refer questions of privilege for examination, and privilege matters receive procedural priority when admitted. Parliamentary immunity does not protect members from preventive detention. Article 105 safeguards legislative functioning, but does not place MPs generally above ordinary law.
34. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is correct?
[UPSC NDA-I GAT 2025 (13 April)]
(a) A majority of Rajya Sabha members are elected through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
(b) The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the President from among its members.
(c) The Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before the completion of its five-year term.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha also vote in elections of Rajya Sabha members.
Answer: (a) A majority of Rajya Sabha members are elected through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Explanation: Elected Rajya Sabha members are chosen indirectly, mainly by elected state legislators, using proportional representation through the single transferable vote. The Rajya Sabha elects its Deputy Chairman itself. Lok Sabha dissolution may occur early, and Lok Sabha MPs do not elect Rajya Sabha members.
33. The Indian Constitution has adopted the parliamentary form of Government from ________.
[SSC MTS 2024 (9 October, Shift 1)]
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) France
Answer: (c) Britain
Explanation: India adopted the central features of the British Westminster parliamentary model. These include a Prime Minister heading the real executive, Cabinet responsibility to the elected lower House and close links between ministers and the legislature, adapted to a written republican Constitution.
32. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the Parliament and its proceedings?
[SSC CGL Tier-I 2024 (24 September, Shift 3)]
(a) Article 51A
(b) Articles 36 to 51
(c) Articles 79 to 122
(d) Articles 12 to 35
Answer: (c) Articles 79 to 122
Explanation: Articles 79 to 122 comprise the constitutional provisions governing the Union Parliament, including its composition, presiding officers, members, lawmaking and procedures. Article 51A concerns duties, Articles 36–51 concern Directive Principles and Articles 12–35 chiefly cover Fundamental Rights.
31. Which of the following is NOT a device of parliamentary proceedings?
[SSC CGL Tier-I 2024 (13 September, Shift 2)]
(a) Half-an-hour discussion
(b) Zero-hour discussion
(c) Two-hour (short) discussion
(d) Full-day discussion
Answer: (d) Full-day discussion
Explanation: Half-an-hour discussions, Zero Hour and short-duration discussions are recognised parliamentary devices used to raise public issues or scrutinise government conduct. A “full-day discussion” is not a distinct procedural device bearing that established name in the parliamentary rules.
30. The parliamentary standing committees have a tenure of ________ years.
[SSC CHSL Tier-I 2024 (8 July, Shift 3)]
(a) Four
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer: (b) One
Explanation: Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees are reconstituted periodically, with members serving a one-year term. They provide detailed examination of Bills, demands for grants and ministry performance. Their continuity as institutional committees does not mean their individual memberships are permanent.
29. Consider the following statements about Union and its Territory:
(1) India comprises 28 States and 8 Union Territories.
(2) India, a Union of States, is a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic with a parliamentary system of Government.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
[CGPSC State Service Prelims 2024 (11 February)]
(a) (1) only
(b) (2) only
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Both (1) and (2)
Explanation: India has 28 states and eight Union Territories. It is constitutionally a Union of States and follows parliamentary democracy within a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic. Executive responsibility to the elected legislature distinguishes this arrangement from presidential government.
28. Which of the following British Acts envisaged the parliamentary system of government in India?
[WBCS (Executive) Prelims 2023]
(a) Charter Act of 1793
(b) Charter Act of 1813
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Answer: (c) Charter Act of 1853
Explanation: The Charter Act of 1853 separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s Council and added legislative councillors. It marked an important step towards a distinct central legislature, providing foundations for later representative and parliamentary institutions in India.
27. The Parliament is formed by which of the following?
[MPPSC State Service Prelims 2023 (17 December)]
(a) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha and President
(c) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
(d) Prime Minister, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Answer: (c) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
Explanation: Article 79 establishes Parliament as comprising the President and the two Houses, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The President is a constituent part of Parliament without belonging to either House. The Prime Minister is head of government, not an additional constituent part.
26. India is a parliamentary democracy based on the Westminster model of _______.
[SSC CHSL Tier-I 2023 (10 August, Shift 3)]
(a) The United States of America
(b) South Africa
(c) France
(d) The United Kingdom
Answer: (d) The United Kingdom
Explanation: The Westminster parliamentary model developed in the United Kingdom. It features Cabinet leadership, a distinction between head of state and head of government, and collective ministerial responsibility. India incorporated these principles while establishing a republican state with a written Constitution.
25. What is the most powerful weapon that enables the Parliament to ensure executive accountability?
[SSC MTS 2023 (4 September, Shift 3)]
(a) Approval or refusal of laws
(b) The no-confidence motion
(c) Confirmation of treaties
(d) Deliberation and discussion
Answer: (b) The no-confidence motion
Explanation: A no-confidence motion directly tests whether the Council of Ministers still enjoys majority support in the Lok Sabha. If passed, the government must resign. Discussion and legislative scrutiny matter, but this motion can immediately determine the ministry’s survival.
24. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding a “No-Confidence Motion”?
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2023]
(a) Twenty-seven no-confidence motions and nine confidence motions had been moved by 15 August 2023.
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri faced the most no-confidence motions per year in office.
(c) A member who wants to move a no-confidence motion gives written notice to the Lok Sabha Speaker.
(d) A no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
Answer: (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri faced the most no-confidence motions per year in office.
Explanation: The assertion about Lal Bahadur Shastri is incorrect; repeated no-confidence attempts were especially associated with Indira Gandhi’s tenure. Written notice is submitted to the Speaker, and only the Lok Sabha can test the Union ministry’s survival through such a motion.
23. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. Under Lok Sabha rules, the Deputy Speaker’s election is held on a date fixed by the Speaker.
2. The Deputy Speaker must come from either the main opposition or ruling party.
3. While presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the Speaker’s powers and no appeal lies against their rulings.
4. The motion for the Deputy Speaker’s election is moved by the Speaker and seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022]
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Speaker fixes the election date under parliamentary rules, and the Deputy Speaker enjoys equivalent presiding powers. There is no legal party-origin requirement, nor a rule requiring the Speaker and Prime Minister to move and second the motion.
22. The Parliament of India is primarily based on the model of
[UPSC NDA-I GAT 2022 (10 April)]
(a) German Parliament
(b) British Parliament
(c) American Congress
(d) French Parliament
Answer: (b) British Parliament
Explanation: Indian parliamentary institutions derive much of their structure and practice from Britain, especially Cabinet accountability, a presiding Speaker and parliamentary lawmaking. India differs by possessing a written Constitution, judicial review and an elected President instead of a hereditary monarch.
21. India has a ______ form of government.
[RRB Group D 2022 (11 October, Shift 1)]
(a) Communalism
(b) Monarchy
(c) Parliamentary
(d) Oligarchy
Answer: (c) Parliamentary
Explanation: India follows parliamentary government. The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers exercise real executive authority while remaining responsible to the Lok Sabha. The President is the constitutional head. This system is distinct from presidential rule, hereditary monarchy and rule by a small oligarchy.
20. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
1. The British Parliament is sovereign, but in India Parliament’s power to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the amendment of an Act of Parliament are referred to a Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer.
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2021]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Both statements were treated as correct in this PYQ. Parliamentary sovereignty prevails in Britain, whereas Indian laws remain subject to constitutional limits and judicial review. Substantial constitutional questions may require consideration by a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court.
19. The Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it enjoys the support of the ________.
[WBCS Mains 2021 (Paper V; held May 2022)]
(a) Minority of members of the Upper House
(b) Majority of members of the Upper House
(c) Minority of members of the Lower House
(d) Majority of members of the Lower House of Parliament
Answer: (d) Majority of members of the Lower House of Parliament
Explanation: The Union Council of Ministers must retain majority support in the Lok Sabha, the elected lower House. Article 75(3) establishes collective responsibility to that House. Losing its confidence obliges the ministry to resign, even if it retains support in Rajya Sabha.
18. In a parliamentary system, the legislative, judicial and emergency powers are in reality used by the President only on the advice of the _______.
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021 (11 January, Shift 2)]
(a) Council of Ministers
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Members of Parliament
(d) Vice President
Answer: (a) Council of Ministers
Explanation: Article 74 establishes a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. Executive decisions are ordinarily taken on this advice, including constitutional functions in legislative and emergency matters, subject to the limits and procedures of the Constitution.
17. Under Article 103 of the Constitution of India, the President shall obtain the opinion of which authority before deciding a question regarding disqualification of a Lok Sabha member?
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2021 (27 October)]
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Election Commission
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Attorney General
Answer: (b) Election Commission
Explanation: For disqualifications covered by Article 102(1), Article 103 requires the President to obtain and act according to the Election Commission’s opinion. Defection-related disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is handled separately by the presiding officer of the relevant House.
16. A parliamentary system of government is one in which:
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
(a) All political parties in Parliament are represented in government.
(b) The government is responsible to Parliament and can be removed by it.
(c) The government is elected by the people and can be removed directly by them.
(d) The government is chosen by Parliament but cannot be removed before a fixed term ends.
Answer: (b) The government is responsible to Parliament and can be removed by it.
Explanation: The essential test of parliamentary government is executive accountability to the legislature. In India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and must step down after losing its confidence. The executive therefore lacks an unalterable fixed tenure.
15. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 members of Lok Sabha;
2. examines public expenditure for economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety as well as technical irregularities;
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which statements are correct?
[WBCS Prelims 2019]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee examines CAG reports and evaluates whether public money was spent properly and prudently. Its membership totals 22, comprising 15 Lok Sabha and seven Rajya Sabha members, so the statement describing its composition is incorrect.
14. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the largest opposition party was the Swatantra Party.
2. The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. A party needs at least 75 Lok Sabha members for its leader to be recognised as Leader of the Opposition.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. The Swatantra Party was formed after the first Lok Sabha, and the Communist Party of India was then the largest opposition group. The claimed threshold of 75 seats is not the applicable recognition norm.
13. The President of India addresses the Parliament under Article 87 of the Indian Constitution ________.
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2018]
(a) In a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament
(b) In a joint meeting of both Houses of Parliament
(c) In a joint session of both Houses of Parliament
(d) With both Houses of Parliament assembled together
Answer: (d) With both Houses of Parliament assembled together
Explanation: Article 87 requires the President’s special address before both Houses assembled together at the start of the first session after a general election and the first session each year. This occasion is distinct from a legislative joint sitting under Article 108.
12. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2017]
(a) The executive and legislature work independently.
(b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) The head of government cannot be changed without an election.
Answer: (c) The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
Explanation: Parliamentary government links the executive’s tenure to legislative confidence and subjects ministers to continuous scrutiny. This accountability is its principal advantage. Unlike a presidential system, a ministry can change without a new general election if it loses the legislature’s support.
11. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2017]
(a) An arrangement for minimising criticism against a government with complex responsibilities.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up governmental activity as responsibilities increase.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the government head when public support is declining.
Answer: (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of government to the people.
Explanation: Collective responsibility means ministers publicly stand behind Cabinet decisions and answer together to the elected House. Under Article 75(3), losing Lok Sabha confidence obliges the entire Council of Ministers to leave office, making the executive accountable through representative institutions.
10. What is the meaning of Guillotine in parliamentary procedure?
[CGPSC Civil Service 2017 (Paper I)]
(a) To stop debate on a Bill
(b) To continue debate on a Bill
(c) Boycott of the House by members
(d) To adjourn the House
(e) To adjourn the House for the day
Answer: (a) To stop debate on a Bill
Explanation: Guillotine is a parliamentary procedure that brings discussion to an end at the allotted time and puts outstanding matters to a vote. It is particularly used during discussion of demands for grants, so unfinished business can be disposed of on schedule.
9. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2016]
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of total membership.
(b) Lok Sabha by at least two-thirds of total membership.
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of total membership.
(d) Rajya Sabha by at least two-thirds of members present and voting.
Answer: (d) Rajya Sabha by at least two-thirds of members present and voting.
Explanation: Article 249 empowers Rajya Sabha to authorise Parliament to legislate on State List subjects when national interest requires it. The resolution needs support from at least two-thirds of members present and voting, preserving a special role for the Council of States.
8. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2015]
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people.
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution.
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved.
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Answer: (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Explanation: Article 75(3) explicitly establishes collective ministerial responsibility to the Lok Sabha. The executive survives only while enjoying the elected House’s confidence. Direct elections and bicameralism can occur in other systems, but legislative confidence is the decisive parliamentary characteristic.
7. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A No-Confidence Motion can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2014]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The Constitution does not use the expression “no-confidence motion”, although Article 75(3) requires the Council of Ministers to retain Lok Sabha confidence. Rule 198 governs the motion’s procedure, and it can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
6. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers at the Centre is collectively responsible to Parliament.
2. Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister communicates proposals for legislation to the President.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2013]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong because collective responsibility is specifically to the Lok Sabha, not both Houses. Article 75(2) provides tenure during the President’s pleasure, while Article 78 requires the Prime Minister to convey Cabinet decisions and legislative proposals to the President.
5. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in parliamentary government?
1. Cabinet members are members of Parliament.
2. Ministers hold office while enjoying confidence in Parliament.
3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of State.
Select the correct answer.
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2013]
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Cabinet ministers ordinarily belong to Parliament, and the ministry must retain Lok Sabha confidence. A non-member appointed minister must enter either House within six months. The Cabinet is led by the Prime Minister, whereas the President is head of state.
4. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution requires every Cabinet Minister to be a sitting member of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2009]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Both statements are incorrect. Union ministers may sit in either parliamentary House, and a non-member can serve for up to six consecutive months. The Cabinet Secretariat operates under the Prime Minister’s charge, not under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
3. Assertion (A): The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): Members of either House of Parliament are eligible to become Union Ministers.
Select the correct answer.
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2007]
(a) Both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true.
Explanation: Assertion A is false because Article 75(3) makes the ministry collectively responsible to Lok Sabha alone. Reason R is true: members of either House may be appointed ministers. Eligibility for ministerial office does not give Rajya Sabha the power to dismiss a ministry.
2. Which one of the following statements regarding a no-confidence motion is NOT correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2004]
(a) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules.
(c) A no-confidence motion, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted.
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a no-confidence motion.
Answer: (a) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.
Explanation: A no-confidence motion need not state grounds against the government; it simply tests whether the ministry retains Lok Sabha support. Under Rule 198, leave requires the requisite member support, and discussion is scheduled within ten days of leave being granted.
1. The term of the Lok Sabha:
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2002]
(a) Cannot be extended under any circumstances.
(b) Can be extended by six months at a time.
(c) Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of Emergency.
(d) Can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of Emergency.
Answer: (c) Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of Emergency.
Explanation: Article 83(2) normally fixes the Lok Sabha’s tenure at five years. During a national Emergency, Parliament may extend this term by law for one year at a time, but no extension can continue beyond six months after the Emergency ends.