Q100. Exercise DUSTLIK-2026:
I. It is a military exercise between India and the UAE.
II. It aims to improve joint operations in semi-mountainous terrain.
Which statement is correct?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2026]
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (B) II only
Explanation: DUSTLIK is a bilateral Army exercise between India and Uzbekistan, not the UAE. Its training scenarios develop interoperability and coordinated tactical operations, including in challenging semi-mountainous terrain. Therefore the first statement is false and the second is correct.
Q99. About Vayu Shakti-2026:
I. It took place in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
II. Rafale, Tejas and Mirage 2000 aircraft carried out strikes.
III. Apache and Chinook helicopters took part.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2026]
(A) I, II and III
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I only
Answer: (A) I, II and III
Explanation: The Indian Air Force conducted Vayu Shakti at the Pokhran range in Jaisalmer, demonstrating operational capability using combat aircraft and helicopters. Rafale, Tejas and Mirage platforms performed strikes, while Apache and Chinook helicopters showcased supporting capabilities.
Q98. Consider:
I. More than 60% of defence equipment used by India’s armed forces is now made domestically.
II. Defence development focuses on scale, resilience and indigenous capabilities.
Which are correct?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2026]
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (C) Both I and II
Explanation: The statements reflect the examination’s account of growing domestic defence production and the government’s strategic focus on indigenous technology, supply resilience and industrial scale. Indigenous manufacture lowers import dependence and supports sustained military capability and preparedness.
Q97. Who was appointed Director General of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police in January 2026?
[SSC Selection Post 2026, 19 Sep Shift 2]
(A) Shatrujeet Singh Kapoor
(B) Praveen Kumar Mukherjee
(C) Rakesh Aggarwal
(D) Daljit Singh Chawdhary
Answer: (A) Shatrujeet Singh Kapoor
Explanation: Shatrujeet Singh Kapoor was appointed Director General of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police in January 2026. ITBP is a Central Armed Police Force assigned important responsibilities along the India–China border, including high-altitude border security and related duties.
Q96. Which two organizations jointly conducted the maiden flight trial of the TARA weapon in May 2026?
[RRB Group D 2025, held 4 Aug 2026]
(A) Indian Air Force and Bharat Dynamics Limited
(B) Indian Army and DRDO
(C) Indian Navy and DRDO
(D) DRDO and Indian Air Force
Answer: (D) DRDO and Indian Air Force
Explanation: The Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation weapon was flight-tested jointly by the Defence Research and Development Organisation and Indian Air Force. The indigenous air-launched precision system reflects cooperation between military users and research establishments during development and trials.
Q95. Which two defence organizations tested the Naval Anti-Ship Missile–Short Range (NASM-SR) in April 2026?
[RRB Group D 2025, held 3 Aug 2026]
(A) Armed Forces Special Operations Division and Coast Guard
(B) NIA and CRPF
(C) DRDO and Indian Navy
(D) Indian Army and Indian Air Force
Answer: (C) DRDO and Indian Navy
Explanation: DRDO and the Indian Navy conducted trials of the Naval Anti-Ship Missile–Short Range. The missile is intended for engaging maritime targets from an airborne launch platform and supports indigenous development of naval strike capabilities.
Q94. Which Indian armed service participated in the multinational exercise INIOCHOS-25 in Greece?
[RRB Group D 2025, held 20 Aug 2026]
(A) Indian Coast Guard
(B) Indian Air Force
(C) National Security Guard
(D) Indian Navy
Answer: (B) Indian Air Force
Explanation: The Indian Air Force joined INIOCHOS-25, an international air combat exercise hosted in Greece by the Hellenic Air Force. The event provided opportunities for training in combined air operations and understanding the procedures of other participating air forces.
Q93. Which strategic framework guided the Western Air Command Operations Conclave in February 2026?
[RRB Group D 2025, held 18 Aug 2026]
(A) Integrated Coastal Defence
(B) Theatre Command Decentralization
(C) All Domain Joint Operations
(D) Network-Centric Cyber Warfare
Answer: (C) All Domain Joint Operations
Explanation: The Operations Conclave was organized in the context of All Domain Joint Operations, emphasizing coordination across land, air, sea, cyber and space domains. Such jointness aims to improve military planning, communication and combined operational effectiveness.
Q92. Which military command hosted the Joint Operations Conclave connected to Exercise ADJO-2026?
[RRB Group D 2025, held 12 Aug 2026 Shift 1]
(A) Western Air Command
(B) Eastern Naval Command
(C) Central Air Command
(D) Southern Command
Answer: (A) Western Air Command
Explanation: Western Air Command hosted the conclave during All Domain Joint Operations activities. The objective was improved cooperation and coordination among services, recognizing that modern military operations increasingly require integrated capabilities from multiple domains.
Q91. Which indigenous air-to-surface missile was successfully flight-tested by DRDO and Indian Air Force in June 2026?
[RRB Group D 2025, held 5 Aug 2026]
(A) RudraM-III
(B) RudraM-I
(C) RudraM-IV
(D) RudraM-II
Answer: (D) RudraM-II
Explanation: RudraM-II is an indigenous air-to-surface missile developed for the Indian Air Force, with anti-radiation and ground-attack applications. The question refers to a 2026 flight-test programme involving DRDO and the Air Force.
Q90. Where was Exercise Vayu Shakti-26 conducted in February 2026?
[RRB Group D 2025, held 14 Aug 2026]
(A) Leh, Ladakh
(B) Kachchh, Gujarat
(C) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Pokhran Field Firing Range, Jaisalmer
Answer: (D) Pokhran Field Firing Range, Jaisalmer
Explanation: Vayu Shakti-26 was held at the Pokhran Field Firing Range in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. The demonstration allowed the Indian Air Force to display aerial firepower and strike capabilities under operational training conditions.
Q89. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?
1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3. GPS spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Swarm drones coordinate through inter-drone communication, enabling collective movements and missions. GPS spoofing can deliberately mislead navigation receivers and may be used as a countermeasure. Terahertz-band communication is not the standard defining method used by these drone swarms.
Q88. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:
1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. It seeks rapid, precise and powerful responses while reinforcing strategic autonomy.
3. It aims to cover all public places under a security shield by 2035.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Mission Sudarshan Chakra concerns integrated protection against aerial and missile threats and development of rapid indigenous responses. It does not promise coverage of every public place. The incorrect third statement makes the inclusive option unsuitable.
Q87. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?
1. Su-30MKI fighter jets
2. T-90 MK-III tanks
3. Akula-class submarine
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only
Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation: India manufactures Su-30MKI aircraft under licence through Hindustan Aeronautics and produces T-90 tanks through domestic defence facilities. The nuclear-powered Akula-class submarine has been supplied by Russia on lease and is not manufactured in India.
Q86. Which one of the following pairs of Indian Army corps and headquarters is NOT correctly matched?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
(A) 3 Corps — Dimapur
(B) 4 Corps — Tezpur
(C) 14 Corps — Leh
(D) 33 Corps — Srinagar
Answer: (D) 33 Corps — Srinagar
Explanation: The Indian Army’s 3 Corps is based at Dimapur, 4 Corps at Tezpur and 14 Corps at Leh. The headquarters of 33 Corps is at Sukna near Siliguri, not Srinagar. Therefore the fourth pair is incorrect.
Q85. BIS introduced a national standard for bomb-disposal systems. Consider:
1. It is IS 19445:2025.
2. It is intended to improve interoperability across agencies.
3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO jointly with Russia’s 30th Central Scientific Research Institute.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 only
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The BIS specification IS 19445:2025 addresses evaluation of bomb-disposal systems and supports interoperability of relevant equipment. The claimed institutional collaboration in the third statement is not part of the stated standard’s development, leaving the first two statements correct.
Q84. Which Indian naval vessels participated in SLINEX-25 in Sri Lanka in August 2025?
[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I, 16 Jun 2026 Shift 2]
(A) INS Vikrant and INS Trikand
(B) INS Talwar and INS Shivalik
(C) INS Kolkata and INS Satpura
(D) INS Rana and INS Jyoti
Answer: (D) INS Rana and INS Jyoti
Explanation: INS Rana and INS Jyoti represented the Indian Navy during SLINEX-25. SLINEX is a bilateral exercise with Sri Lanka designed to improve maritime cooperation, communication and coordinated seamanship between the neighbouring navies.
Q83. Which Indian naval ship participated in the November 2025 Malabar naval exercise?
[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I, 17 Jun 2026 Shift 3]
(A) INS Shivalik
(B) INS Vikrant
(C) INS Kolkata
(D) INS Sahyadri
Answer: (D) INS Sahyadri
Explanation: INS Sahyadri represented India at the Malabar 2025 multinational naval exercise. This stealth frigate supports the Indian Navy’s blue-water presence. Malabar brings together maritime forces of India, the United States, Japan and Australia.
Q82. Which operation led to the integration of Hyderabad into the Indian Union?
[DSSSB MTS, 1 May 2026 Shift 2]
(A) Operation Vijay
(B) Operation Polo
(C) Operation Meghdoot
(D) Operation Pawan
Answer: (B) Operation Polo
Explanation: Operation Polo was launched in September 1948 and resulted in the integration of Hyderabad into India. Often described as a police action, the military operation ended the Nizam’s attempt to remain outside the Indian Union.
Q81. Consider India–Russia defence cooperation:
I. BrahMos was jointly developed by DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya.
II. The IRRPL rifle factory is in Korwa, Madhya Pradesh.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2026]
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (A) I only
Explanation: BrahMos is a joint programme between DRDO and NPO Mashinostroyeniya. Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited operates at Korwa in Amethi district of Uttar Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh. Thus the first statement alone is correct.
Q80. Match the Government of India rescue operations with the countries:
A. Kaveri
B. Indravati
C. Ajay
D. Ganga;
I. Israel
II. Haiti
III. Ukraine
IV. Sudan.
Choose correct code.
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2026]
(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer: (C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Explanation: Operation Kaveri evacuated people from Sudan, Indravati from Haiti, Ajay assisted Indians from Israel and Ganga evacuated citizens affected by war in Ukraine. These operations combined diplomatic coordination with air, transport and evacuation resources.
Q79. With respect to the December 2025 DRDO–Rashtriya Raksha University MoU, consider:
1. The agreement supports training and technology collaboration for defence and internal security.
2. RRU is an Institution of Eminence under the Ministry of Education.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CDS-I 2026 General Knowledge, 12 Apr]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: The DRDO and Rashtriya Raksha University memorandum promotes cooperation in technology and training relevant to national defence and internal security. Rashtriya Raksha University functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Education, making the second statement incorrect.
Q78. Which items fall under the administration of India’s Ministry of Defence:
1. Territorial Army,
2. Hydrographic surveys and nautical charts,
3. National Cadet Corps,
4. Coast Guard affairs?
[UPSC CDS-I 2026 General Knowledge, 12 Apr]
(A) All four
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) Only 1 and 3
Answer: (A) All four
Explanation: The Ministry of Defence handles the Territorial Army, National Cadet Corps, Coast Guard organisation and hydrographic survey and charting functions. Maritime charting and coast guard responsibilities are defence administration functions alongside the Army-related organisations listed in the question.
Q77. Who received a one-year extension in May 2025 as Chairman of DRDO and Secretary of Defence Research and Development?
[SSC CHSL 2025, 27 Nov Shift 2]
(A) G. Satheesh Reddy
(B) Ajay Kumar
(C) Samir V. Kamat
(D) M. N. Srinivasu
Answer: (C) Samir V. Kamat
Explanation: Dr Samir V. Kamat was granted an extension as DRDO Chairman and Secretary, Department of Defence Research and Development. DRDO coordinates research into missiles, electronics, aerospace, naval systems and related technologies for India’s defence requirements.
Q76. In October 2024, DRDO developed VSHORADS for which purpose?
[SSC CHSL 2025, 27 Nov Shift 1]
(A) Underwater mining
(B) Missile fuel storage
(C) Short-range air defence
(D) Submarine communication
Answer: (C) Short-range air defence
Explanation: VSHORADS stands for Very Short Range Air Defence System. It is designed to engage low-altitude threats, including helicopters, aircraft and drones, and reflects efforts to develop portable indigenous tactical air defence equipment.
Q75. Assertion: India’s Dornier aircraft assistance and OCC support to Sri Lanka demonstrate increased defence partnership.
Reason: President Disanayaka rejected maritime-security assistance and sought cultural and financial cooperation only.
Choose the correct relation.
[SSC CGL 2025, 19 Sep Shift 1]
(A) Both true, reason explains assertion
(B) Both true, reason does not explain assertion
(C) Assertion false, reason true
(D) Assertion true, reason false
Answer: (D) Assertion true, reason false
Explanation: India’s defence and maritime-security support to Sri Lanka includes Dornier maritime-surveillance assistance and related cooperation. The claim that Sri Lanka rejected security assistance is incorrect. Consequently, the assertion is true while the reason is false.
Q74. Which IPS officer became Director General of the National Disaster Response Force in 2024?
[SSC CGL 2025, 17 Sep Shift 2]
(A) Piyush Anand
(B) Atul Karwal
(C) Rajeev Kapoor
(D) Pradeep Kumar
Answer: (A) Piyush Anand
Explanation: Piyush Anand, an IPS officer, assumed charge as Director General of NDRF in 2024. NDRF is a specialist disaster-response force created under the disaster-management framework and deploys trained personnel for search, rescue and emergency relief.
Q73. Consider these claims about India’s military weapons:
1. HAMMER can equip Rafale aircraft.
2. The SCALP cruise missile is also called Storm Shadow.
3. BrahMos originates from an India–Russia joint venture.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CDS-II 2025 General Knowledge, 14 Sep]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 only
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: HAMMER is a precision-guided modular air-to-ground munition used by Rafale aircraft. Storm Shadow and SCALP EG designate the same missile family. BrahMos Aerospace is an India–Russia venture established through cooperation between DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya.
Q72. Arrange the military operations chronologically:
1. Operation Cactus Lily
2. Operation Riddle
3. Operation Meghdoot
4. Operation Safed Sagar.
[UPSC CAPF AC 2025, 3 Aug]
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 2-1-3-4
(C) 4-1-2-3
(D) 4-2-1-3
Answer: (B) 2-1-3-4
Explanation: The sequence is Operation Riddle linked with the 1965 war, Cactus Lily with the 1971 war, Meghdoot with deployment to Siachen in 1984 and Safed Sagar with the Indian Air Force’s Kargil War operations in 1999.
Q71. Which organisation collaborated with the Indian Navy for the VLSRSAM launch in March 2025?
[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I, 12 Aug 2025 Shift 3]
(A) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(B) Bharat Electronics Limited
(C) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(D) Defence Research and Development Organisation
Answer: (D) Defence Research and Development Organisation
Explanation: The Defence Research and Development Organisation worked with the Indian Navy on the Vertical Launch Short Range Surface-to-Air Missile. VLSRSAM is designed for launch from naval platforms to intercept airborne threats and support ship self-defence.
Q70. Which organisations successfully conducted combat firing of the Multi-Influence Ground Mine in May 2025?
[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I, 12 Aug 2025 Shift 1]
(A) HAL and Indian Air Force
(B) DRDO and Indian Navy
(C) ISRO and Indian Army
(D) Bharat Dynamics and Coast Guard
Answer: (B) DRDO and Indian Navy
Explanation: DRDO and the Indian Navy conducted combat firing of the Multi-Influence Ground Mine, an indigenous maritime weapon designed for underwater mine warfare. The programme adds to domestic capabilities in naval munitions and protective sea-control operations.
Q69. What is the name of India’s first indigenously designed and built diving-support vessel handed over to the Indian Navy in July 2025?
[MPPSC Assistant Engineer 2024, held 24 Aug 2025]
(A) INS Nilgiri
(B) INS Nistar
(C) INS Udaygiri
(D) INS Surat
Answer: (B) INS Nistar
Explanation: INS Nistar is an indigenous diving-support vessel constructed by Hindustan Shipyard. It is designed for deep-sea diving and submarine rescue support, strengthening the Indian Navy’s ability to conduct underwater emergency and specialist operations.
Q68. With reference to India’s defence, consider these pairs:
1. Dornier-228 — maritime patrol aircraft;
2. IL-76 — supersonic combat aircraft;
3. C-17 Globemaster III — military transport aircraft.
How many pairs are correctly matched?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: The Dornier-228 is widely used for maritime reconnaissance and patrol. The C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft. IL-76 is also a heavy transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat fighter, so two pairs are correct.
Q67. BHARATPOL portal was developed by which organisation?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2025]
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Central Bureau of Investigation
(C) Enforcement Directorate
(D) SEBI
Answer: (B) Central Bureau of Investigation
Explanation: BHARATPOL was developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation to improve cooperation with INTERPOL and information sharing among Indian law-enforcement agencies. It facilitates coordination on transnational investigations and requests linked to international police cooperation.
Q66. What is the name of the aero-engine developed by DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2025]
(A) Ganga
(B) Yamuna
(C) Krishna
(D) Kaveri
Answer: (D) Kaveri
Explanation: Kaveri is an indigenous aero-engine development programme of the Gas Turbine Research Establishment, a DRDO laboratory in Bengaluru. The initiative aims to advance domestic gas-turbine expertise for aviation and other technological applications.
Q65. Which military operation led to Goa’s liberation from Portuguese rule?
[PSSSB Labour Inspector 2025, 9 Mar]
(A) Operation Meghdoot
(B) Operation Blue Star
(C) Operation Vijay
(D) Operation Trident
Answer: (C) Operation Vijay
Explanation: Operation Vijay in December 1961 ended Portuguese colonial control over Goa, Daman and Diu. Indian armed services participated in the military action, which led to the territories’ integration into India. The name also appears in other military contexts.
Q64. Regarding RudraM-II missile:
1. It is an air-to-air missile.
2. It was tested in Rajasthan in May 2024.
Which statements are correct?
[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024]
(A) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 only
(D) Both 1 and 2
Answer: (A) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: RudraM-II is an indigenous air-to-surface missile, not an air-to-air weapon. Its May 2024 flight test was conducted off the Odisha coast from a Su-30MKI aircraft, rather than in Rajasthan. Both statements are incorrect.
Q63. Who became the first woman Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force in December 2023?
[SSC MTS 2024, 11 Nov Shift 2]
(A) Archana Ramasundaram
(B) Vinita Mehra
(C) Nina Singh
(D) Rashmi Shukla
Answer: (C) Nina Singh
Explanation: Nina Singh became the first woman Director General of the CISF. The force protects airports, major industrial establishments and selected critical infrastructure. Her appointment was a significant development in leadership representation across India’s security services.
Q62. Which one of these military exercises is NOT conducted between India and the United States?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2024]
(A) Yudh Abhyas
(B) Vajra Prahar
(C) Malabar
(D) Varuna
Answer: (D) Varuna
Explanation: Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France. Yudh Abhyas is an India–US Army exercise; Vajra Prahar involves special forces; and Malabar includes India and the US among its participating naval forces.
Q61. Consider the following aircraft:
1. Rafale
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas Mk-1.
How many of the above are considered fifth-generation fighter aircraft?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024]
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (D) None
Explanation: Rafale, MiG-29 and Tejas Mk-1 are generally classified as fourth-generation or 4.5-generation fighter platforms. Fifth-generation fighters combine advanced stealth characteristics, sensor fusion and other capabilities. None of the three aircraft listed is a fifth-generation fighter.
Q60. Which of these pairs of equivalent ranks in Army–Air Force–Navy are correctly matched?
1. Brigadier–Air Commodore–Commander
2. Major General–Air Vice Marshal–Vice Admiral
3. Major–Squadron Leader–Lieutenant Commander
4. Lieutenant Colonel–Group Captain–Captain
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024]
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 only
Answer: (D) 3 only
Explanation: A Major in the Army corresponds to Squadron Leader in the Air Force and Lieutenant Commander in the Navy. Brigadier corresponds to Commodore, Major General to Rear Admiral, and Lieutenant Colonel to Wing Commander. Only pair three is correct.
Q59. What are the duties of Chief of Defence Staff as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercising military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal military adviser to Defence Minister on tri-service matters
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024]
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The CDS is Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and principal military adviser on tri-service issues. The office promotes integration and jointness, but does not exercise operational military command over the Army, Navy and Air Force Chiefs.
Q58. Operations by the Army to uplift local populations in remote areas and meet their basic needs are called which of the following?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024]
(A) Operation Sankalp
(B) Operation Maitri
(C) Operation Sadbhavana
(D) Operation Madad
Answer: (C) Operation Sadbhavana
Explanation: Operation Sadbhavana is the Indian Army’s civic-action programme, notably associated with Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. It provides education, medical support, infrastructure and community assistance, helping strengthen trust between the armed forces and people in sensitive areas.
Q57. Consider Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023:
1. It was held between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced at Aundh, Pune.
3. Joint counter-terrorism response was an objective.
4. Indian Air Force participated.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024]
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Mitra Shakti is the India–Sri Lanka joint military exercise, not an India–Bangladesh drill. The 2023 edition was hosted at Pune and addressed counter-terrorism cooperation, with Indian Air Force participation. Therefore statements two, three and four are correct.
Q56. Consider INS Sagardhwani:
1. It is an oceanographic research vessel of DRDO’s Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory.
2. It undertook Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to build Indian Ocean scientific partnerships.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2024]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: INS Sagardhwani supports ocean research for DRDO’s Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory. The Sagar Maitri mission promotes collaborative marine science and oceanographic observations with Indian Ocean countries, contributing to scientific knowledge useful for maritime operations.
Q55. Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise between India and which country?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2024]
(A) Kuwait
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) United Arab Emirates
(D) Oman
Answer: (C) United Arab Emirates
Explanation: Desert Cyclone is an Army exercise between India and the United Arab Emirates. It involves tactical training and sharing practices in counter-terrorism, urban operations and interoperability. This is distinct from India’s naval and air exercises with Gulf nations.
Q54. Assam Rifles guards India’s international border with which country?
[UP Police Assistant Operator 2024, 8 Feb Shift 2]
(A) Bhutan
(B) Tibet
(C) Myanmar
(D) Nepal
Answer: (C) Myanmar
Explanation: Assam Rifles plays a major border-guarding role along the India–Myanmar frontier and conducts counter-insurgency duties in the Northeast. Its operational links with the Army and administrative association with the Home Ministry are distinctive features.
Q53. The book “Nation First: The Golden Saga of 82 Years” narrates the history of which organization?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2023]
(A) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(B) Border Security Force
(C) Central Reserve Police Force
(D) Central Industrial Security Force
Answer: (C) Central Reserve Police Force
Explanation: The book chronicles the long history of the Central Reserve Police Force, whose origins lie in the Crown Representative’s Police established in 1939. It highlights national security, internal order and the force’s contribution over more than eight decades.
Q52. Match bilateral exercises:
A. Garuda Shakti
B. Nomadic Elephant
C. Mitra Shakti
D. Dharma Guardian
with
1. India–Japan
2. India–Sri Lanka
3. India–Mongolia
4. India–Indonesia.
Choose code A-B-C-D.
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2023]
(A) 4-2-3-1
(B) 4-3-2-1
(C) 1-3-2-4
(D) 1-2-3-4
Answer: (B) 4-3-2-1
Explanation: Garuda Shakti is with Indonesia, Nomadic Elephant with Mongolia, Mitra Shakti with Sri Lanka and Dharma Guardian with Japan. Remembering these pairs helps distinguish training programmes involving the Indian Army and its partners.
Q51. Which DRDO post sits at Level I, the highest level of its organisational structure?
[SSC CHSL 2023, 14 Aug Shift 3]
(A) Director General, Technical Cluster
(B) Secretary, Department of Defence R&D
(C) Director General, Corporate
(D) Director of Laboratory
Answer: (B) Secretary, Department of Defence R&D
Explanation: The Secretary of the Department of Defence Research and Development, who also chairs DRDO, occupies its top organisational level. This position guides defence research policy and coordinates the numerous laboratories and technical programmes of DRDO.
Q50. Who was appointed Chief of Defence Staff of India in September 2022?
[SSC CGL 2023, 27 Jul Shift 1]
(A) Manoj Mukund Naravane
(B) Dalbir Singh Suhag
(C) Anil Chauhan
(D) Manoj Pande
Answer: (C) Anil Chauhan
Explanation: Lieutenant General Anil Chauhan (retired) was appointed India’s Chief of Defence Staff in September 2022. The CDS is intended to improve integration among the armed services and provide high-level military advice on joint defence matters.
Q49. Consider:
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout flight, whereas cruise missiles are rocket-powered only initially.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile and BrahMos an ICBM.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2023]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The descriptions reverse missile propulsion and classification. Ballistic missiles follow primarily ballistic trajectories after powered boost, while cruise missiles sustain powered aerodynamic flight. Agni-V is a long-range ballistic missile; BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile.
Q48. With reference to Home Guards, consider:
1. They are raised under a Central Home Guards Act and Rules.
2. They act as auxiliary forces to police for internal security.
3. Some states have Border Wing Home Guards Battalions to counter infiltration.
How many statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2023]
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: Home Guards are created through state and union-territory provisions rather than one uniform central Home Guards statute. They assist police and civil authorities. Border Wing Home Guards have also been organized in some border states, making the latter two statements correct.
Q47. Operation Meghdoot is associated with which region?
[MPTET Varg-2 Social Science, 11 May 2023]
(A) Ladakh generally
(B) Siachen
(C) Bengal
(D) Tawang
Answer: (B) Siachen
Explanation: Operation Meghdoot commenced in April 1984 to secure the Siachen Glacier region. Indian military forces occupied strategically important high-altitude positions in difficult conditions, giving the operation lasting importance in discussions of northern border security.
Q46. The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of the Indian Army is located at which place?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2023]
(A) Dehradun
(B) Vairengte
(C) Gulmarg
(D) Mhow
Answer: (B) Vairengte
Explanation: The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School is at Vairengte in Mizoram. It trains Indian and foreign personnel in jungle warfare, counter-insurgency tactics and operating in dense terrain, providing specialist preparation for deployments in difficult security environments.
Q45. The fourth joint military exercise DUSTLIK between the Indian Army and Uzbekistan Army was held at which location?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2023]
(A) Ranikhet
(B) Gangtok
(C) Pithoragarh
(D) Leh
Answer: (C) Pithoragarh
Explanation: The fourth DUSTLIK exercise took place at Pithoragarh in Uttarakhand. DUSTLIK strengthens Indian and Uzbek Army cooperation in tactical drills and counter-terrorism scenarios. The mountainous environment offers training conditions relevant to both participating militaries.
Q44. About Exercise Sea Vigil-22:
1. It assessed maritime security and coastal defence preparedness.
2. US and Japanese naval forces also participated.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2023]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: Sea Vigil is an Indian national-level coastal defence exercise involving domestic maritime and security agencies. It evaluates coordination, surveillance, response and coastal protection. It was not a trilateral international naval exercise with US and Japanese naval forces.
Q43. India’s short-range ballistic missile Prithvi-II was successfully test-fired from which location?
[SSC CHSL 2022, held 15 Mar 2023]
(A) Rutland Island, Andaman
(B) Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh
(C) Chandipur, Odisha
(D) Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (C) Chandipur, Odisha
Explanation: The test took place at the Integrated Test Range at Chandipur on the Odisha coast. Prithvi-II is an indigenously developed short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile, associated with India’s early Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme.
Q42. Which organisation successfully tested the VSHORADS missile in September 2022?
[SSC CHSL 2022, held 13 Mar 2023]
(A) DRDO
(B) Earth System Science Organisation
(C) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(D) Forest Survey of India
Answer: (A) DRDO
Explanation: The Defence Research and Development Organisation conducted flight tests of VSHORADS, a man-portable very-short-range air defence system. Its development involves specialised DRDO facilities and supports indigenous capability against low-altitude aerial threats.
Q41. Which is an Indian surface-to-surface missile among these options?
[SSC CHSL 2022, held 20 Mar 2023]
(A) Javelin
(B) AIM-120 AMRAAM
(C) Spike
(D) Agni-V
Answer: (D) Agni-V
Explanation: Agni-V is an Indian long-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile. Javelin and Spike are anti-tank missile systems, while AMRAAM is principally an air-to-air missile. The question tests differences in launch platforms and target roles.
Q40. Who was the architect of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme in India?
[SSC CHSL 2022, held 10 Mar 2023]
(A) Har Gobind Khorana
(B) Vikram Sarabhai
(C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Homi J. Bhabha
Answer: (C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
Explanation: Dr A. P. J. Abdul Kalam led India’s Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Its major missile families included Prithvi, Agni, Akash, Trishul and Nag. The programme sought technological self-reliance in several types of guided missile systems.
Q39. Who was appointed Chairman of DRDO in August 2022?
[SSC CGL 2022, 5 Dec Shift 4]
(A) Rajiv Bahl
(B) Anil Chauhan
(C) Samir V. Kamat
(D) Ranjit Rath
Answer: (C) Samir V. Kamat
Explanation: Dr Samir V. Kamat became Chairman of DRDO in August 2022. His scientific background includes materials development used in defence systems. The chairman coordinates national defence research and reports through the Department of Defence Research and Development.
Q38. In India’s defence context, the terms “Surat” and “Udaygiri” refer to which of the following?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2022]
(A) Coast Guard patrol boats
(B) Cargo helicopters
(C) Maritime patrol aircraft
(D) Warships
Answer: (D) Warships
Explanation: Surat and Udaygiri refer to Indian Navy warships. INS Surat is associated with the Project 15B destroyer class, while Udaygiri is associated with Project 17A stealth frigates. Both reflect indigenous naval shipbuilding capabilities.
Q37. Which two Indian Navy ships were decommissioned in June 2022?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2022]
(A) INS Ganga and INS Nipat
(B) INS Nishank and INS Akshay
(C) INS Khukri and INS Sandhayak
(D) INS Gomati and INS Ranjit
Answer: (B) INS Nishank and INS Akshay
Explanation: INS Nishank and INS Akshay were decommissioned together at Mumbai in June 2022 after long service. They were part of India’s coastal and offensive naval capabilities. Such decommissionings mark fleet modernization and replacement by newer platforms.
Q36. India signed a contract with which country for the Indian Navy’s MH-60R helicopters?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2022]
(A) Israel
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) USA
Answer: (D) USA
Explanation: India obtained MH-60R Seahawk maritime helicopters from the United States. These helicopters are designed for anti-submarine and anti-surface missions as well as surveillance and search and rescue, enhancing carrier and surface-vessel naval aviation.
Q35. Which is the oldest Central Paramilitary Force in India?
[UPSC CAPF AC 2022, 7 Aug]
(A) Central Reserve Police Force
(B) Border Security Force
(C) Assam Rifles
(D) Commando Battalion for Resolute Action
Answer: (C) Assam Rifles
Explanation: Assam Rifles traces its origin to Cachar Levy, established in 1835. It is regarded as India’s oldest paramilitary force, and its roles include border duties in the Northeast and operations that support internal security.
Q34. India’s first export customer for BrahMos missiles was which country?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2022]
(A) Bhutan
(B) Philippines
(C) Maldives
(D) Nepal
Answer: (B) Philippines
Explanation: The Philippines became the first overseas customer for the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile under a defence procurement agreement. The purchase strengthened coastal defence cooperation and marked a significant milestone for India’s defence exports.
Q33. The first India–European Union Naval Force (IN-EUNAVFOR) exercise in 2021 took place in which area?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2021]
(A) Gulf of Mannar
(B) Gulf of Aden
(C) Gulf of Khambhat
(D) Gulf of Aqaba
Answer: (B) Gulf of Aden
Explanation: The maiden India–EU Naval Force exercise took place in the Gulf of Aden, a strategically important area for maritime trade and anti-piracy cooperation. The exercise improved communication and coordinated operations between Indian and European naval vessels.
Q32. In February 2021, the Indian Defence Ministry awarded the contract to manufacture 83 Tejas Light Combat Aircraft to which organisation?
[SSC CGL 2020, held 16 Aug 2021 Shift 2]
(A) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(B) Bharat Dynamics Limited
(C) DRDO
(D) Bharat Electronics Limited
Answer: (A) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Explanation: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited received the order to manufacture 83 Tejas Mk-1A aircraft for the Indian Air Force. HAL is the principal aircraft manufacturer, while specialised agencies and suppliers contribute technology and subsystems.
Q31. DRDO developed the indigenous machine pistol “ASMI” with which institution?
[SSC CHSL 2020, held 5 Aug 2021 Shift 2]
(A) College of Military Engineering, Pune
(B) Central Ordnance Depot, Jabalpur
(C) Army War College, Mhow
(D) Infantry School, Mhow
Answer: (D) Infantry School, Mhow
Explanation: DRDO developed the ASMI machine pistol in cooperation with Infantry School, Mhow. The 9-mm weapon was an Indian small-arms innovation and demonstrated collaboration between service users and domestic defence design laboratories.
Q30. On which date is National Disaster Response Force Raising Day observed?
[SSC CGL 2020, held 18 Aug 2021 Shift 3]
(A) 21 September
(B) 23 October
(C) 19 January
(D) 6 March
Answer: (C) 19 January
Explanation: NDRF Raising Day is observed on 19 January, reflecting the force’s establishment in 2006. NDRF is India’s specialised response organisation for major disasters, with trained units deployed for rescue, evacuation and relief during emergencies.
Q29. Which best describes the scope of Exercise Kavach?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2021]
(A) Indian Army only
(B) Indian Army and Navy only
(C) Army, Navy and Air Force only
(D) Army, Navy, Air Force and Coast Guard
Answer: (D) Army, Navy, Air Force and Coast Guard
Explanation: Exercise Kavach is a joint military exercise combining the Army, Navy, Air Force and Indian Coast Guard. It is associated with the Andaman and Nicobar Command and tests integrated responses, interoperability and defence of strategically important island territories.
Q28. Exercise Desert Knight-21 was held between the Indian Air Force and the air force of which country?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2021]
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) Britain
(D) Israel
Answer: (B) France
Explanation: Desert Knight-21 was a bilateral air exercise between India and France. Fighter aircraft and supporting platforms practiced joint air operations, contributing to familiarization with each other’s procedures and stronger defence cooperation between the two air forces.
Q27. National Technology Day in India commemorates which event?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 1 Apr 2021 Shift 1]
(A) Operation Blue Star
(B) Pokhran-II
(C) Mangalyaan
(D) Operation Meghdoot
Answer: (B) Pokhran-II
Explanation: National Technology Day is observed on 11 May to remember the 1998 Pokhran-II nuclear tests and other technological achievements. Pokhran-II was conducted under Operation Shakti and was a major event in India’s strategic defence history.
Q26. Who was appointed chief of CISF in January 2021?
[SSC CHSL 2020, held 19 Apr 2021 Shift 2]
(A) Rajat Datta
(B) Kumar Rajesh Chandra
(C) Subodh Kumar Jaiswal
(D) Pankaj Kumar Singh
Answer: (C) Subodh Kumar Jaiswal
Explanation: Subodh Kumar Jaiswal was appointed Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force in January 2021. CISF provides security at airports and critical industrial and infrastructure installations and operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Q25. The Indian Navy signed an MoU with IIT _____ for research in underwater naval electronic systems.
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 27 Mar 2021 Shift 1]
(A) Kanpur
(B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi
(D) Chennai
Answer: (C) Delhi
Explanation: IIT Delhi collaborated with the Indian Navy on research related to underwater naval electronics. Such partnerships bring academic expertise into sonar, signal processing and related maritime technologies relevant to the Navy’s future research and operational needs.
Q24. Which country hosted Army Exercise TSENTR-2019?
[UPSC NDA & NA 2020]
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Kazakhstan
(D) Kyrgyzstan
Answer: (A) Russia
Explanation: TSENTR-2019 was hosted by Russia as a major strategic military exercise with international participation, including an Indian contingent. It focused on large-scale military coordination and counter-terrorist scenarios in a multinational training setting.
Q23. Naseem-Al-Bahr is a bilateral naval exercise between India and which country?
[UPSC NDA & NA 2020]
(A) United Arab Emirates
(B) Iran
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) Oman
Answer: (D) Oman
Explanation: Naseem-Al-Bahr, meaning Sea Breeze, is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of Oman. It fosters operational coordination, naval communication and mutual familiarity during maritime training between the two countries.
Q22. MILAN, the planned multilateral naval exercise of 2020, was to be hosted by which city?
[UPSC NDA & NA 2020]
(A) Port Blair
(B) Kochi
(C) Visakhapatnam
(D) Panaji
Answer: (C) Visakhapatnam
Explanation: Visakhapatnam was selected to host MILAN 2020, although the event was postponed because of the COVID-19 pandemic. MILAN is an Indian Navy initiative that brings together friendly navies to build maritime cooperation and professional links.
Q21. Which Army officer took charge as Chief of Army Staff on 31 December 2019?
[SSC CGL, 4 Mar 2020 Shift 1]
(A) Ravendra Pal Singh
(B) Bipin Rawat
(C) Manoj Mukund Naravane
(D) Anil Chauhan
Answer: (C) Manoj Mukund Naravane
Explanation: General Manoj Mukund Naravane became Chief of Army Staff on 31 December 2019, succeeding General Bipin Rawat. The Chief of Army Staff is the professional head of the Indian Army and oversees its readiness and operational leadership.
Q20. Who was appointed Director General of the National Security Guard in October 2019?
[SSC CHSL, 18 Mar 2020 Shift 2]
(A) Anup Kumar Singh
(B) Awadhesh Pratap Singh
(C) B. P. S. Yadav
(D) Utkarsh Jain
Answer: (A) Anup Kumar Singh
Explanation: Anup Kumar Singh was appointed Director General of the National Security Guard in October 2019. NSG is a specialist counter-terrorism force under the Ministry of Home Affairs, trained for exceptional security incidents and hostage-rescue situations.
Q19. CORAS is a separate commando unit of which organization?
[UPSC NDA & NA II 2019]
(A) National Security Guard
(B) Central Industrial Security Force
(C) Railway Protection Force
(D) Central Reserve Police Force
Answer: (C) Railway Protection Force
Explanation: CORAS stands for Commandos for Railway Security and was raised by the Railway Protection Force. The specially trained units safeguard railway infrastructure and respond to security threats, particularly in sensitive or insurgency-affected routes.
Q18. India’s first private-sector howitzer manufacturing unit was established at which location?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2019]
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) Kolkata
(C) Hazira
(D) Gwalior
Answer: (C) Hazira
Explanation: The private-sector howitzer manufacturing facility was established at Hazira in Gujarat by Larsen & Toubro. It represents India’s efforts to expand domestic artillery manufacture and strengthen defence industrial capability outside traditional public-sector establishments.
Q17. IMBEX is a joint Army exercise conducted regularly between India and which country?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2019]
(A) Malaysia
(B) Maldives
(C) Mauritius
(D) Myanmar
Answer: (D) Myanmar
Explanation: IMBEX denotes the India–Myanmar bilateral Army exercise. It has concentrated on sharing training practices and improving interoperability, including support for Myanmar’s participation in United Nations peacekeeping-related tasks in certain editions.
Q16. Prahaar is which type of Indian defence equipment?
[UPSC CDS-I 2019 General Knowledge, 3 Feb]
(A) Battle tank
(B) Surface-to-surface missile
(C) Aircraft carrier
(D) Submarine
Answer: (B) Surface-to-surface missile
Explanation: Prahaar is a short-range, quick-reaction surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile developed in India by DRDO. It is designed for battlefield support using mobile deployment, precision and rapid response, unlike naval aircraft carriers or armoured vehicles.
Q15. What is Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), sometimes seen in the news?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
(A) An Israeli radar system
(B) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
(C) An American anti-missile system
(D) A Japan–South Korea defence collaboration
Answer: (C) An American anti-missile system
Explanation: THAAD is a United States missile-defence system designed to intercept short-, medium- and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal stage. It uses hit-to-kill interception technology and is distinct from India’s indigenous ballistic missile defence projects.
Q14. Which country was NOT involved in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2018]
(A) United States of America
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Australia
Answer: (D) Australia
Explanation: The 2017 edition of Exercise Malabar involved India, the United States and Japan. Australia was not a participant in that 21st edition. Australia later joined as a participant in the expanded four-navy format.
Q13. The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) facilitates defence dialogue between India and which nation?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2018]
(A) Russia
(B) United States of America
(C) Israel
(D) France
Answer: (B) United States of America
Explanation: DTTI is an India–US mechanism intended to deepen cooperation on defence technology, co-development and trade. Its purpose is to identify collaborative projects and remove administrative barriers that can slow bilateral defence industrial partnerships.
Q12. Who was the first woman pilot commissioned in the Indian Navy?
[UPSC NDA & NA I 2018]
(A) Astha Segal
(B) Roopa A
(C) Sakthi Maya S
(D) Shubhangi Swaroop
Answer: (D) Shubhangi Swaroop
Explanation: Shubhangi Swaroop became the Indian Navy’s first woman pilot. She joined naval aviation after successfully completing training. The milestone marked expansion of women’s roles within specialized aviation branches of the armed forces.
Q11. On 22 November 2017, an air-launched BrahMos missile was test-fired from which fighter aircraft?
[SSC CHSL, 21 Mar 2018 Shift 3]
(A) Mirage-2000
(B) Sukhoi Su-30MKI
(C) MiG-29
(D) HAL Tejas
Answer: (B) Sukhoi Su-30MKI
Explanation: The Indian Air Force carried out the BrahMos air-launch test from a Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter. The integration of the supersonic cruise missile with the aircraft extended the flexibility and reach of India’s air-launched strike capabilities.
Q10. BrahMos, a supersonic cruise missile, is a joint venture between which countries?
[UPPSC Civil Service 2018]
(A) India and Russia
(B) India and China
(C) India and Israel
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) India and Russia
Explanation: BrahMos Aerospace is an Indo-Russian joint venture involving DRDO and NPO Mashinostroyeniya. The missile has land, sea and air applications, and is a well-known example of defence technology cooperation between India and Russia.
Q9. Who has supreme command of the Indian Defence Forces?
[SSC CGL, 9 Aug 2017 Shift 3]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Defence Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) President of India
Answer: (D) President of India
Explanation: The President is the Supreme Commander of India’s armed forces under the constitutional structure. Actual policy and executive control operate through the elected government, the Cabinet and the Ministry of Defence, while military command follows the prescribed chain.
Q8. Consider the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
1. The inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015.
2. It is a voluntary initiative to enhance naval cooperation among Indian Ocean littoral states.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2017]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: The inaugural IONS meeting was hosted by India in 2008, not 2015. The forum brings together navies from the Indian Ocean region to build confidence, dialogue and cooperation on maritime security. Hence only the second statement holds.
Q7. Sunil Lanba was which of the following?
[MPPSC General Studies 2017]
(A) Author of the novel Messiah
(B) A Hindi novelist
(C) 23rd Chief of the Naval Staff of India
(D) Director General of the BSF
Answer: (C) 23rd Chief of the Naval Staff of India
Explanation: Admiral Sunil Lanba served as Chief of the Naval Staff from 2016 to 2019 and is counted as the 23rd Navy Chief. The professional head of the Navy leads the maritime service’s operational and organisational responsibilities.
Q6. Which of the following is a submarine of the Indian Navy?
[MPPSC General Studies 2016]
(A) INS Viraat
(B) INS Sindhurakshak
(C) INS Rajali
(D) INS Vikrant
Answer: (B) INS Sindhurakshak
Explanation: INS Sindhurakshak was a Kilo-class diesel-electric submarine of the Indian Navy. INS Viraat and INS Vikrant are associated with aircraft carriers, whereas INS Rajali is a naval air station, not a submarine.
Q5. Which of the following is the Indian Air Force’s first indigenous light combat fighter?
[CGPSC Prelims General Studies 2016]
(A) Tejas
(B) Vinashak
(C) Ojas
(D) Agni
Answer: (A) Tejas
Explanation: Tejas is India’s indigenous light combat aircraft developed through the Aeronautical Development Agency and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. It is distinct from the earlier HAL HF-24 Marut, which was India’s first indigenous jet fighter.
Q4. Pakistan’s medium-range Shaheen-III ballistic missile is launched in which mode?
[WBCS Prelims 2016]
(A) Surface to surface
(B) Surface to air
(C) Coast to sea
(D) Sea to coast
Answer: (A) Surface to surface
Explanation: Shaheen-III is Pakistan’s surface-to-surface ballistic missile. It follows a ballistic trajectory and is designed to strike land targets at extended distances. It is not classified as a surface-to-air or coastal anti-ship missile.
Q3. India developed the Barak-8 missile jointly with which country?
[UPPSC Civil Service 2016]
(A) Russia
(B) USA
(C) Israel
(D) France
Answer: (C) Israel
Explanation: Barak-8 was developed through India–Israel defence cooperation, involving DRDO and Israel Aerospace Industries. It is a surface-to-air missile system designed to defend military assets and naval vessels against hostile aircraft and missile threats.
Q2. Which is an Indian surface-to-air missile?
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2013]
(A) Agni
(B) Nag
(C) Trishul
(D) Prithvi
Answer: (C) Trishul
Explanation: Trishul is a short-range surface-to-air missile developed as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Agni and Prithvi are surface-to-surface ballistic missile families, while Nag is an anti-tank guided missile.
Q1. Which pair is correctly matched?
(a) Trishul–surface-to-surface missile
(b) Prithvi–surface-to-air missile
(c) Nag–anti-tank missile
(d) Pinaka–light combat aircraft
[UPPSC Civil Service 2012]
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
Answer: (C) (c)
Explanation: Nag is an indigenous anti-tank guided missile. Trishul is a surface-to-air system, Prithvi is a surface-to-surface ballistic missile and Pinaka is a multi-barrel rocket-launcher system. Thus only the third match is accurate.