40. Which of the following cases for the first time held the Preamble to be part of the Constitution?
[RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I, 16 June 2026, Shift 1]
(A) Golaknath Case, 1967
(B) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
(C) S.R. Bommai Case, 1994
(D) Berubari Case, 1960
Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court recognised the Preamble as part of the Constitution, revisiting the earlier Berubari view. Its objectives aid constitutional interpretation. Although the Preamble can be amended, an amendment cannot destroy the Constitution’s basic structure.
39. Which case recognised judicial review as part of the basic structure?
[RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I, 14 June 2026, Shift 1]
(A) Maneka Gandhi case
(B) Kesavananda Bharati case
(C) Indra Sawhney case
(D) Minerva Mills case
Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) established limits on constitutional amendment and recognised foundational restraints on state power. Judicial review protects constitutional supremacy by permitting courts to examine legality. Minerva Mills (1980) later reaffirmed judicial review and limited amending power as basic features.
38. In which of the following cases was the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution laid down?
[UP PGT (Civics), 10 May 2026]
(A) The Shah Bano Begum Case
(B) The Puttaswamy Case
(C) The Kesavananda Bharati Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
Answer: (C) The Kesavananda Bharati Case
Explanation: The Supreme Court formulated the doctrine in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala on 24 April 1973. A thirteen-judge bench decided by a 7–6 majority that Parliament could amend constitutional provisions but could not damage or destroy the basic structure.
37. Which of the following 1973 landmark judgments of the Supreme Court of India provided that Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution through amendments?
[RRB Technician Grade III, 9 March 2026, Shift 1]
(A) Champakam Dorairanjan Case
(B) Minerva Mills Case
(C) Golakhnath Case
(D) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Answer: (D) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati resolved a constitutional conflict about the extent of Parliament’s power under Article 368. The Court permitted wide-ranging amendments, including changes to Fundamental Rights, but prohibited changes that would dismantle the Constitution’s essential identity or framework.
36. The rule of law enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution was declared as the basic structure of the Constitution in which case?
[DSSSB TGT (Social Science), 8 November 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Chiranjit Lal vs. Union of India
(B) P.A. Inamdar vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) Ashok Thakur vs. Union of India
(D) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
Answer: (D) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
Explanation: Minerva Mills (1980) reinforced constitutional supremacy, limited amending power and the importance of judicial review. The rule of law prevents arbitrary power, while Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. These principles support constitutional government.
35. The basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India implies that:
[IB ACIO Grade-II (Executive), 17 September 2025, Shift 2]
(A) It limits the powers of the judiciary
(B) It establishes the supremacy of the judiciary over the legislature
(C) It allows unlimited amendments by Parliament
(D) It prevents the legislature from amending the fundamental framework
Answer: (D) It prevents the legislature from amending the fundamental framework
Explanation: The doctrine prevents Parliament from using Article 368 to destroy the Constitution’s defining characteristics. Courts assess whether amendments damage features such as democracy, judicial review and federalism. It does not make the judiciary politically supreme or prohibit every constitutional amendment.
34. Which Indian judgment laid down the concept of Basic Structure of the Constitution?
[RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I, 3 September 2025, Shift 1]
(A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: The Supreme Court first announced the basic structure doctrine in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Golaknath preceded this judgment and restricted amendments to Fundamental Rights. Minerva Mills subsequently strengthened the doctrine, while Maneka Gandhi significantly developed constitutional protections for personal liberty.
33. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution?
[RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I, 20 August 2025, Shift 3]
(A) Shah Bano case
(B) Shankari Prasad case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati case
(D) Golaknath case
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati established that Parliament’s constituent power is limited by the Constitution’s basic structure. Judicial review enables courts to enforce these restrictions and protect constitutional supremacy. Later decisions, especially Minerva Mills and L. Chandra Kumar, reinforced judicial review as an indispensable feature.
32. Which statement is correct in the context of constitutional interpretation and judicial doctrine?
[SSC Stenographer, 7 August 2025, Shift 2]
(A) The Constitution clearly defines basic structure under Article 368
(B) The judiciary rejects spirit-based interpretation and strictly follows the written text
(C) The basic structure doctrine was created by the Supreme Court to protect fundamental constitutional features
(D) Parliament may repeal judicial principles through amendments without limitation
Answer: (C) The basic structure doctrine was created by the Supreme Court to protect fundamental constitutional features
Explanation: The Constitution does not expressly define basic structure. The Supreme Court evolved the doctrine through constitutional interpretation in 1973. It places substantive limits on amendments, preserving essential features without denying Parliament its constitutional power to make permissible changes.
31. The doctrine of basic structure in the context of the Indian Constitution was propounded for the first time in which case?
[MPPSC State Service Prelims, 16 February 2025]
(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Champakam Dorairajan v. State of Madras
(C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(D) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Answer: (D) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) introduced the judicial limitation on amendments affecting the constitutional framework. Shankari Prasad concerned Parliament’s amendment power; Champakam Dorairajan addressed Fundamental Rights and reservations; Golaknath held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights, a position subsequently modified.
30. Which Article is called the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution?
[CGPSC Preliminary Examination, 9 February 2025]
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 19
Answer: (A) Article 32
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the Constitution’s heart and soul because it guarantees access to the Supreme Court for enforcing Fundamental Rights. Constitutional remedies, including writ jurisdiction, sustain judicial protection of rights and the basic constitutional framework.
29. Which among the following is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India?
[Bihar Civil Court Clerk, 22 December 2024, Shift 2]
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Independence of Judiciary
(C) Federalism
(D) The unquestioned right of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution
Answer: (D) The unquestioned right of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution
Explanation: Parliament has substantial but not unlimited authority to amend the Constitution. The Supreme Court protects the constitutional framework through the basic structure doctrine. Federalism and judicial independence are recognised core features, whereas an unrestricted power to amend would negate that limitation.
28. In which case did the Supreme Court of India enunciate the Doctrine of Basic Structure?
[RRB JE CBT-I, 17 December 2024, Shift 3]
(A) Golaknath case
(B) A.K. Gopalan case
(C) Maneka Gandhi case
(D) Kesavananda Bharati case
Answer: (D) Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala was decided on 24 April 1973 by a thirteen-judge bench. It held that Article 368 allows constitutional change, subject to preserving the essential framework. The doctrine continues to guide judicial scrutiny of constitutional amendments.
27. In which of the following cases was the basic structure doctrine recognised for the first time?
[RPF SI CBT-I, 12 December 2024, Shift 1]
(A) Kumar Padma Prasad case
(B) Berubari Union case
(C) LIC of India case
(D) Kesavananda Bharati case
Answer: (D) Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: The Supreme Court formally recognised the doctrine in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). It prevented constitutional amendments from removing essential safeguards while allowing ordinary constitutional development. Its foundations include the supremacy of the Constitution, democratic governance, judicial review and the federal character of India.
26. In which case did the Supreme Court of India propound the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Constitution?
[SSC MTS, 21 October 2024, Shift 1]
(A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(D) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: (A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) introduced the doctrine. Golaknath (1967) addressed the amendability of Fundamental Rights; Maneka Gandhi concerned personal liberty; Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain later applied basic-structure reasoning to democratic elections. The originating decision remains Kesavananda Bharati.
25. Consider statements about the Basic Structure:
I. Parliament incorporated the doctrine through legislation.
II. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution without affecting its basic structure.
III. Limited amending power is itself a basic feature.
IV. Kumar Padma Prasad (1992) declared building a welfare state a basic feature.
Which are correct?
[APPSC Group-I Prelims, 17 March 2024]
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
Answer: (C) II and III
Explanation: The doctrine emerged from the judiciary, not a parliamentary enactment, making I incorrect. Parliament may amend provisions while preserving the basic structure, and its limited amending power is itself protected. The specific attribution in IV to Kumar Padma Prasad is incorrect.
24. Who can amend any part of the Constitution without affecting its basic structure?
[Delhi Police Constable (Executive), 21 November 2023, Shift 2]
(A) Judiciary
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) Executive
Answer: (C) Parliament
Explanation: Article 368 vests constituent power to amend the Constitution in Parliament through the prescribed procedure. This power includes changes to Fundamental Rights but is constrained by the basic structure doctrine. The judiciary tests constitutionality; it does not itself enact constitutional amendments.
23. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the democratic character of the polity was an essential component of the basic structure?
[SSC CPO Paper-I, 4 October 2023, Shift 1]
(A) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(C) Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras
(D) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) recognised democratic and republican government among India’s essential constitutional features. The doctrine protects popular sovereignty, representative institutions and constitutional limitations on public power. Parliament may amend procedures, but cannot abolish the democracy defining the constitutional order.
22. In which case did the Supreme Court of India give the doctrine of basic structure for the first time?
[69th BPSC Preliminary Examination, 30 September 2023]
(A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: The Supreme Court first articulated the doctrine in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Golaknath restricted constitutional amendments affecting Fundamental Rights, but did not establish this test. Minerva Mills (1980) later reinforced the limited nature of the amending power and judicial review.
21. The landmark Supreme Court judgment in Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) refers to which basic feature of the Constitution?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 3 September 2023]
(A) Judicial Review
(B) Rule of Law
(C) Free and fair elections
(D) Fundamental Rights
Answer: (A) Judicial Review
Explanation: Subhash Sharma concerned appointments to the higher judiciary and the constitutional significance of judicial independence. Judicial review is integral to preserving constitutional limits and has been recognised as a basic feature. Courts use it to test legislation and amendments against constitutional requirements.
20. Choose the case in which the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution but not alter its basic structure.
[WBCS Mains (Polity & Economy), 2023]
(A) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
(B) Golaknath Case, 1967
(C) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
(D) A.K. Gopalan Case, 1950
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
Explanation: The Kesavananda Bharati verdict balanced constitutional flexibility with permanent foundational safeguards. Parliament retained amendment power under Article 368, including over Fundamental Rights, but could not destroy the document’s identity. Minerva Mills later reaffirmed the restriction upon unlimited constitutional amendment.
19. In which case did the Supreme Court of India propound the doctrine of Basic Structure of the Constitution?
[UKPSC RO/ARO, 2023]
(A) Berubari Case
(B) Golaknath Case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Explanation: The doctrine originated in Kesavananda Bharati in 1973. It protects the Constitution’s essential characteristics from destructive amendment. Berubari addressed the Preamble and territorial transfer, Golaknath addressed Fundamental Rights, and Minerva Mills subsequently upheld limits on Parliament’s amendment power.
18. Which statements about the Supreme Court judgment on the 103rd Constitutional Amendment are correct?
A. The Bench comprised five judges.
B. The 10% EWS reservation was upheld by a 3–2 majority.
C. The Court held the amendment valid despite its violation of the basic structure.
[SSC CGL Tier-II, 7 March 2023]
(A) A, B and C
(B) A and C only
(C) B and C only
(D) A and B only
Answer: (D) A and B only
Explanation: In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2022), a five-judge bench upheld the EWS amendment by a 3–2 majority. The majority did not accept that the amendment violated basic structure. Consequently, A and B are true while statement C is false.
17. In which case did the Supreme Court of India pronounce the theory of the Basic Structure of the Constitution?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 3 December 2022, Shift 4]
(A) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
(B) Golaknath Case, 1967
(C) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
(D) Swarn Singh Case, 1989
Answer: (A) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati established the doctrine in 1973. Its central holding is that Parliament’s amendment power is broad but constitutionally limited. The case is frequently distinguished from Golaknath, which earlier prohibited changes to Fundamental Rights, and Minerva Mills, which reinforced the doctrine.
16. I.R. Coelho judgment (2007) of the Supreme Court deals with:
[HPSC HCS General Studies, July 2022]
(A) Autonomous institutions
(B) Basic Structure of the Constitution
(C) Scheduled Areas
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) Basic Structure of the Constitution
Explanation: I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu concerned protection for laws in the Ninth Schedule. The Supreme Court held that qualifying post-24 April 1973 insertions cannot escape scrutiny if they damage basic-structure guarantees. Judicial review prevents blanket immunity through constitutional scheduling.
15. According to which Article did Parliament amend the Constitution through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment and insert the words “Secular”, “Socialist” and “Integrity” in its Preamble?
[RRB Group D CBT, 26 September 2022, Shift 2]
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 366
(C) Article 358
(D) Article 368
Answer: (D) Article 368
Explanation: Article 368 provides the procedure and authority for amending the Constitution. The 42nd Amendment of 1976 added Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the Preamble. However, under the basic structure doctrine, even Article 368 cannot authorise destruction of essential constitutional features.
14. Which Constitutional Amendment Act establishing the National Judicial Appointments Commission was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court?
[RPSC RAS Prelims, 27 October 2021]
(A) 98th Constitutional Amendment Act
(B) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act
(C) 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
(D) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer: (C) 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation: The Supreme Court invalidated the Ninety-Ninth Amendment and NJAC framework in 2015, holding that they impaired judicial independence, a constitutional basic feature. The decision safeguarded the judiciary’s institutional autonomy while leaving the larger debate over transparent judicial appointments unresolved.
13. Which statement regarding the Preamble to the Constitution of India is not correct?
[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandants Paper-I, 8 August 2021]
(A) The term “Secular Democratic Republic” was not present in the Preamble originally
(B) The Preamble contains the basic structure of the Constitution
(C) The Preamble alone is not enforceable in a court of law
(D) The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble cannot aid interpretation where the constitutional language is ambiguous
Answer: (D) The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble cannot aid interpretation where the constitutional language is ambiguous
Explanation: The Preamble expresses constitutional ideals and can guide interpretation when wording is unclear. Kesavananda Bharati recognised it as part of the Constitution. It does not independently create enforceable rights, yet its commitments illuminate constitutional identity and the basic structure.
12. Which judgment laid down the Doctrine of Basic Structure of the Constitution?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 6 April 2021, Shift 2]
(A) Golaknath case
(B) Kesavananda Bharati case
(C) Indra Sawhney case
(D) Shankari Prasad case
Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: In 1973, Kesavananda Bharati established a substantive ceiling on Parliament’s amendment power. Article 368 permits additions, variations and repeals, but not the destruction of essential features. Subsequent rulings have applied the doctrine to democracy, judicial review and judicial independence.
11. Who described the Preamble of the Indian Constitution as the “Political Horoscope of the Indian Constitution”?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 13 October 2020, Shift 1]
(A) Thakurdas Bhargava
(B) Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi
(C) N. A. Palkhivala
(D) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
Answer: (B) Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi
Explanation: K. M. Munshi called the Preamble the political horoscope of the Constitution, highlighting its guiding ideals. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court treated the Preamble as part of the Constitution and clarified that amendments must preserve its basic structure.
10. Consider the statements:
1. The Constitution defines its “basic structure” in terms of federalism, secularism, Fundamental Rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution provides for “judicial review” to safeguard citizens’ liberties and preserve its founding ideals.
Which statement(s) are correct?
[UPSC CSE Preliminary Examination, GS Paper-I, 2020]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The official answer is neither statement. The constitutional text does not explicitly define basic structure, a doctrine evolved judicially in 1973. Although Articles 13, 32 and 226 support judicial review, the Constitution does not expressly set it out in the quoted terms.
9. Which statements about the power to change the basic structure are correct?
1. It falls outside Parliament’s amending power.
2. It can be exercised by the people through representatives in a Constituent Assembly.
3. It falls within Parliament’s constituent powers.
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 3 February 2019]
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 1 and 2
Explanation: Parliament’s constituent power under Article 368 is limited by the basic structure doctrine, so statements 1 and 2 are accepted in this question. An unrestricted power to replace the fundamental constitutional identity is not included within Parliament’s ordinary constitutional amendment authority.
8. The objectives specified in the Preamble contain the basic structure of the Constitution. Which statement is correct?
[APPSC Group-I Prelims 2018 (held in 2019)]
(A) The concept of basic structure is expressly explained in the Constitution
(B) Basic structure refers to what cannot be destroyed using Article 368 amending power
(C) Parliament is the supreme authority regarding basic structure
(D) Courts have no jurisdiction concerning the basic structure
Answer: (B) Basic structure refers to what cannot be destroyed using Article 368 amending power
Explanation: Basic structure identifies essential constitutional attributes that amendments cannot destroy. Its content is developed through Supreme Court judgments, not a definition in the constitutional text. Judicial review allows courts to evaluate whether an amendment crosses the substantive limitation on Article 368.
7. Consider the statements:
1. Parliament can place a law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.
2. The validity of a Ninth Schedule law cannot be examined by any court.
Which statement(s) are correct?
[UPSC CSE Preliminary Examination, 2018]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: Parliament may insert laws into the Ninth Schedule through a constitutional amendment. However, I.R. Coelho (2007) confirmed that post-24 April 1973 insertions can be tested against the basic structure. Ninth Schedule inclusion therefore does not provide unconditional immunity from judicial review.
6. Which are elements of the basic structure?
A. Free and fair elections.
B. Secularism.
C. Federalism.
D. Supremacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles.
[TSPSC Village Revenue Officer, 2018]
(A) A, B and D only
(B) B, C and D only
(C) A, C and D only
(D) A, B and C only
Answer: (D) A, B and C only
Explanation: Free and fair elections, secularism and federalism are recognised as essential constitutional features. Absolute supremacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles is not. Minerva Mills emphasised harmony and balance between these two parts of the Constitution rather than one’s categorical dominance.
5. In which case was the Basic Structure doctrine declared by the Supreme Court?
[WBPSC Miscellaneous Preliminary Examination, 3 March 2018]
(A) Ajay Hasia Case
(B) R.D. Shetty Case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(D) Valsamma Case
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) is the founding precedent for the basic structure doctrine. The judgment limits Parliament’s power to modify constitutional essentials. Ajay Hasia and R.D. Shetty deal principally with the meaning of state action and equality, not the doctrine’s origin.
4. The theory of basic structure of the Indian Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in the:
[SSC Stenographer, 11 September 2017, Shift 1]
(A) Golaknath Case
(B) Minerva Mills Case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
(D) Maneka Gandhi Case
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Explanation: The theory originated in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). It guards the Constitution’s identity against destructive amendment. Minerva Mills subsequently relied on it to invalidate provisions seeking unlimited amending power, while the other cases addressed different constitutional controversies.
3. The basic structure doctrine relates to:
1. The power of judicial review.
2. Kesavananda Bharati (1973).
3. Constraints on Article 368.
4. Golaknath (1967).
Select the correct answer.
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 23 October 2016]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The doctrine is associated with judicial review, the Kesavananda Bharati judgment and limits on Article 368. Golaknath was an earlier, distinct ruling about amendability of Fundamental Rights. It influenced the debate but did not itself lay down the basic structure doctrine.
2. The Basic Structure Doctrine was enunciated by the Supreme Court during the:
[UPSC NDA General Ability Test, 2015 Paper II]
(A) Golaknath case
(B) Maneka Gandhi case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati case
(D) S.R. Bommai case
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: The Supreme Court announced the basic structure doctrine in Kesavananda Bharati in 1973. It restricts constitutional amendments that would destroy foundational principles, including democracy, secularism and judicial review. Later judgments, including S.R. Bommai, have developed and applied these protections.
1. Which statements about Indian federalism are correct?
1. The Constitution establishes a federal system as the basic structure of government.
2. It also contains a strong unitary bias.
3. Union and State legislatures are sovereign.
4. Legislative, financial and judicial powers are all divided between Union and States.
[UPPSC PCS Mains, 2004]
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) All four
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: India combines federal distribution of legislative authority with a strong Union and an integrated judicial system. Neither level of legislature is sovereign above the Constitution. Federalism is a recognised basic feature, but India’s arrangement also incorporates important unitary elements.