Q40. Which features establish the “Federal nature” of the Indian Constitution?
[MPSC Group C Mains 2025, held 12 July 2026]
(A) Supremacy of the Constitution
(B) Division of Powers
(C) Independent Judiciary
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: India possesses essential federal characteristics: a supreme written Constitution, constitutionally distributed powers between the Union and States, and an independent judiciary to interpret the division. These safeguards operate alongside stronger Union powers, making Indian federalism distinctive rather than identical to classical federations.
Q39. What was the primary objective of the Punchhi Commission?
[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 1 July 2026]
(A) To look into the new issues of Centre-State relations
(B) To implement the Goods and Services Tax
(C) To revise the Constitution and make amendments
(D) To review judicial appointments
Answer: (A) To look into the new issues of Centre-State relations
Explanation: The Punchhi Commission was established in 2007 under former Chief Justice M. M. Punchhi. It reviewed emerging issues in Union-State relations, including the roles of Governors, internal security and fiscal arrangements, following the earlier Sarkaria Commission on federal relations.
Q38. Articles 245 to 255 of Part XI of the Indian Constitution primarily deal with which aspect of Centre-State relations?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 9 May 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Administrative relations
(B) Financial relations
(C) Legislative relations
(D) Judicial relations
Answer: (C) Legislative relations
Explanation: Articles 245–255 regulate legislative relations between the Union and States. They address territorial legislative authority, distribution of subjects and circumstances permitting Parliament to legislate on State subjects. Administrative relations are dealt with separately, mainly under Articles 256–263.
Q37. Which of the following is part of the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution? I. Forests II. Banking
[SSC GD Constable, 8 May 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (A) Only I
Explanation: Forests were transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Banking remains a Union List subject. Accordingly, both Parliament and State legislatures can legislate on forests, subject to constitutional rules on conflicting laws.
Q36. Education was transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by:
[SSC GD Constable, 6 May 2026, Shift 3]
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 52nd Amendment
(D) 86th Amendment
Answer: (A) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 shifted education from the State List to the Concurrent List. Consequently, both Parliament and State legislatures can pass laws concerning education, with Union law generally prevailing in cases of constitutional repugnancy.
Q35. How do Centre-State financial relations impact governance in India?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 17 March 2026, Shift 1]
(A) By providing states with unlimited financial resources
(B) By centralizing all tax revenues at the Centre
(C) Through mechanisms like the Finance Commission that allocate resources
(D) By eliminating the need for state budgets
Answer: (C) Through mechanisms like the Finance Commission that allocate resources
Explanation: Fiscal federalism balances expenditure responsibilities and revenue resources among governments. Under Article 280, the Finance Commission recommends tax devolution and grants-in-aid to States. Such arrangements help support State services and reduce inequalities without abolishing independent State budgeting.
Q34. Which committee was instrumental in recommending changes to the Centre-State relations in India?
[SSC CPO, 11 December 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) Sarkaria Commission
(D) Punchhi Commission
Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission, appointed in 1983, comprehensively examined existing Union-State legislative, administrative and financial arrangements. Chaired by Justice R. S. Sarkaria, it recommended improvements intended to make Indian federalism more cooperative and to reduce disputes between governments.
Q33. Federalism in India ensures that power is shared between:
[DSSSB TGT Social Science, 10 November 2025, Shift 3]
(A) Local bodies and the Election Commission
(B) Judiciary and Legislature at the Union level
(C) The President and the Prime Minister equally
(D) Central and State governments according to the Constitution
Answer: (D) Central and State governments according to the Constitution
Explanation: The federal principle distributes governmental powers between national and regional governments through constitutional provisions. In India, the Seventh Schedule identifies Union, State and Concurrent subjects. Local self-government adds decentralisation but does not replace the constitutional Union-State division.
Q32. What does the term “quasi-federal” mean?
[OSSSC CRE Preliminary Examination, 18 October 2025, Shift 1]
(A) Fully federal
(B) Fully unitary
(C) Only state-based
(D) Federal with strong central bias
Answer: (D) Federal with strong central bias
Explanation: A quasi-federal arrangement combines a constitutional division of governmental power with significant centralising provisions. India is commonly described this way because the States exercise protected constitutional functions, but emergency powers, residuary legislation and other mechanisms strengthen the Union.
Q31. Which of the following are aspects of the Centre-State legislative relation?
1. Territorial extent of Central and State legislation
2. Distribution of legislative subjects
3. Parliamentary legislation in the State field
4. Centre’s control over State legislation
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-II, 13 October 2025, Shift 1]
(A) Only 2 and 3
(B) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Legislative relations encompass where laws operate, which legislature handles particular subjects, exceptional parliamentary powers over State subjects, and constitutional checks on State legislation. Together these features explain the four dimensions of Union-State legislative relations set out in Part XI.
Q30. The system of federalism in India divides power between:
[SSC Stenographer, 8 August 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Centre and States
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) President and Governors
(D) Executive and Judiciary
Answer: (A) Centre and States
Explanation: The key territorial division in Indian federalism is between the Union and State governments. The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative subjects through three lists. Divisions between the executive, legislature and judiciary instead concern separation of powers, a different constitutional principle.
Q29. Considering the idea of Indian federalism and associated thinkers, which of the following is INCORRECT?
[DSSSB PGT Political Science, 13 July 2025, Shift 1]
(A) Co-operative Federalism – Granville Austin
(B) Competitive Federalism – Paul Appleby
(C) Bargaining Federalism – Morris Jones
(D) Quasi-Federal – K. C. Wheare
Answer: (B) Competitive Federalism – Paul Appleby
Explanation: Granville Austin is associated with cooperative federalism, Morris Jones with bargaining federalism and K. C. Wheare with the quasi-federal character of India. The stated pairing of competitive federalism with Paul Appleby is not the accepted attribution in this question.
Q28. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for how many lists of divisions of power between the federation (central government) and provinces?
[SSC GD Constable, 25 February 2025, Shift 1]
(A) Three lists
(B) Two lists
(C) Four lists
(D) One list
Answer: (A) Three lists
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 envisaged three legislative lists: Federal, Provincial and Concurrent. The proposed All-India Federation never fully materialised, but this method of allocating subjects strongly influenced the later Union, State and Concurrent Lists under India’s Constitution.
Q27. Which of the following is the federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
[SSC MTS, 11 November 2024, Shift 2]
(A) Bicameralism
(B) Integrated Judiciary
(C) Single Citizenship
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) Bicameralism
Explanation: Bicameralism at the Union level creates two parliamentary chambers, including the Rajya Sabha representing States. This supports federal representation. An integrated judiciary and single citizenship, by contrast, are commonly classified as unitary characteristics of India’s otherwise federal constitutional arrangement.
Q26. Federalism in the Indian constitutional context means:
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 4 July 2024, Shift 3]
(A) The existence of more than one level of government in the country
(B) The existence of only one level of government in the country
(C) The existence of states in the country
(D) The existence of one nation, one government in the country
Answer: (A) The existence of more than one level of government in the country
Explanation: Federalism involves constitutionally recognised levels of government governing the same country within their respective spheres. In India, Union and State governments possess distinct powers, and local authorities operate through decentralisation. Merely having States is insufficient without genuine distribution of governing authority.
Q25. The establishment of Union Public Service Commission, State Public Service Commissions and Joint Public Service Commission falls under which of the following features of the Constitution of India?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 3 July 2024, Shift 4]
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Parliamentary Government
(C) Federalism
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer: (C) Federalism
Explanation: Part XIV of the Constitution provides for public service commissions at Union and State levels, including joint commissions. Their differentiated constitutional roles support the federal administrative structure while ensuring merit-based recruitment within the spheres assigned to the respective governments.
Q24. Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT vis-à-vis features of the Indian Constitution?
1. Though India has a federal system, the Constitution does not mention the word “federation”.
2. Article 5 says Parliament can create a new State.
3. Each State Legislature can enact laws on Union List subjects.
4. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on Concurrent List subjects.
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 3 July 2024, Shift 2]
(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation: Article 3, not Article 5, concerns the creation and reorganisation of States. Union List legislation is ordinarily within Parliament’s exclusive competence. Statements 1 and 4 are accurate: India is termed a Union of States, and both legislatures address Concurrent List subjects.
Q23. The Indian political system is often described as a federal system with a strong unitary bias. Which feature gives it this unitary bias?
[SSC GD Constable, 27 February 2024, Shift 3]
(A) Dual citizenship
(B) Single citizenship
(C) Concurrent List
(D) State List
Answer: (B) Single citizenship
Explanation: India recognises a single Indian citizenship rather than separate Union and State citizenships. This encourages a common national identity and is treated as a unitary feature. The Constitution nevertheless distributes substantial law-making responsibilities between Union and State governments.
Q22. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution is related to the Finance Commission of India?
[SSC GD Constable, 21 February 2024, Shift 1]
(A) Article 280
(B) Article 290
(C) Article 260
(D) Article 270
Answer: (A) Article 280
Explanation: Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission appointed by the President, ordinarily every five years. Its recommendations concern tax distribution and grants-in-aid between Union and States. This institution is central to managing financial imbalances within the Indian federal system.
Q21. In India, which Act divided the powers between the Central and units in terms of three lists?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 9 August 2023, Shift 3]
(A) 1862
(B) 1919
(C) 1909
(D) 1935
Answer: (D) 1935
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 divided legislative authority through Federal, Provincial and Concurrent Lists. Although its contemplated federation was not fully established, its distribution-of-powers design influenced the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution adopted after independence.
Q20. Who described the Indian federal system as “bargaining federalism”?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 7 August 2023, Shift 4]
(A) K. C. Wheare
(B) Ivor Jennings
(C) Granville Austin
(D) Morris Jones
Answer: (D) Morris Jones
Explanation: Political scientist W. H. Morris-Jones used bargaining federalism to explain negotiation among Union and State political actors over powers, resources and policies. The expression captures practical federal relationships that evolve through political accommodation rather than solely through formal constitutional wording.
Q19. Who used the term “Quasi-federal” to characterize Indian federalism?
[MP Forest Guard/Jail Prahari Combined Exam, 5 June 2023, Shift 2]
(A) Granville Austin
(B) Ivor Jennings
(C) K. C. Wheare
(D) Morris Jones
Answer: (C) K. C. Wheare
Explanation: K. C. Wheare characterised India as quasi-federal because its constitutional division of powers coexists with pronounced centralising arrangements. This differs from completely unitary government: States have their own legislatures and executive authorities even though Union institutions enjoy important overriding powers.
Q18. Which of the following jurisdictions of the Supreme Court allows it to settle disputes between the Centre and States and amongst States?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 13 December 2022, Shift 4]
(A) Appellate
(B) Advisory
(C) Writ
(D) Original
Answer: (D) Original
Explanation: Article 131 gives the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction over specified legal disputes between the Union and States or between States. Such disputes begin directly in the Supreme Court, enabling an independent judicial authority to adjudicate federal conflicts.
Q17. In India the residuary powers to legislate any matter that is NOT mentioned in the three federal lists lies with the ______.
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 7 December 2022, Shift 2]
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Union Legislature
(C) State Legislature
(D) Respective Ministry
Answer: (B) Union Legislature
Explanation: Article 248, read with Entry 97 of the Union List, confers residuary legislative authority on Parliament. Therefore, subjects not enumerated in the State or Concurrent Lists fall within parliamentary power. This central allocation differs from federations reserving residual authority for constituent States.
Q16. The feature of a quasi-federal government system in the Constitution of India is borrowed from the Constitution of which country?
[RRB Group D, 15 September 2022, Shift 1]
(A) The UK
(B) The US
(C) Canada
(D) South Africa
Answer: (C) Canada
Explanation: India drew inspiration from the Canadian model of a federation with a strong Centre. Features commonly associated with this influence include centrally vested residuary powers and appointment of State Governors. India adapted these ideas to its own constitutional and political circumstances.
Q15. The Federal System proposed under the Government of India Act, 1935 was:
[MPPSC State Service Prelims 2021, held 19 June 2022]
(A) All India Federation
(B) Federation of India
(C) United India
(D) Indian Confederation
Answer: (A) All India Federation
Explanation: The 1935 Act proposed an All-India Federation incorporating British Indian provinces and princely States. Its implementation depended partly on princely-state accession, which did not occur as required. Provincial autonomy took effect, while the proposed federal structure remained unrealised.
Q14. Which of the Lists are in the Constitution of India?
[WBCS Mains 2021, Paper V, held May 2022]
(A) State List
(B) Union List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: All three lists appear in the Seventh Schedule and are linked to Article 246. Parliament primarily legislates on Union subjects, State legislatures on State subjects, and both may legislate on Concurrent subjects, subject to constitutional rules when laws conflict.
Q13. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Indian federalism?
[UPSC CDS I, 10 April 2022]
(A) The federating units consented to form a union
(B) Residuary powers vest with the Centre
(C) Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(D) Dual government polity
Answer: (A) The federating units consented to form a union
Explanation: India did not emerge from a voluntary compact among sovereign States. Its Constitution establishes an indestructible Union of States. Dual government, Seventh Schedule lists and Union-held residuary powers are actual characteristics; contractual consent of federating units is not.
Q12. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the nature of India’s federal system?
[UPSC CDS II, 14 November 2021]
(A) There is no equality of representation of States in the Council of States
(B) Sikkim was not initially included in the Union as a full-fledged State
(C) Special provisions have been laid down in the Constitution for only Andhra Pradesh under Article 371D
(D) The Constitution enables the federal government to acquire the strength of a unitary system during emergencies
Answer: (C) Special provisions have been laid down in the Constitution for only Andhra Pradesh under Article 371D
Explanation: Article 371D contains special provisions concerning Andhra Pradesh or Telangana, not Andhra Pradesh alone. State representation in the Rajya Sabha is unequal; Sikkim became a full State later; and constitutional emergencies can substantially centralise governmental powers. Hence the exclusivity claim is incorrect.
Q11. Which of the following words is NOT mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
[UPPSC Combined State Preliminary Examination, 24 October 2021]
(A) Sovereign
(B) Democratic
(C) Secular
(D) Federal
Answer: (D) Federal
Explanation: The Preamble describes India as sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic and a republic. It does not expressly use “federal”, although the Constitution establishes a Union-State distribution of power. This distinction separates the wording of the Preamble from the Constitution’s structure.
Q10. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 10 October 2021]
(A) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded
(B) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
(C) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
(D) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law
Answer: (A) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded
Explanation: An independent judiciary can enforce the constitutional distribution of powers and resolve disagreements between governments. Representation in a legislative chamber alone is not decisive, since its structure may vary. Judicial independence is an essential safeguard of constitutional federalism.
Q9. India is a:
[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 22 August 2021]
(A) Union of States
(B) Federation
(C) Confederation of States
(D) Unitary State
Answer: (A) Union of States
Explanation: Article 1 expressly declares India, that is Bharat, to be a Union of States. This wording underscores that the Union is not founded on a secession-permitting treaty among sovereign States, even though constitutional powers are distributed federally.
Q8. Which among the following is INCORRECT in the context of federalism?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 21 March 2021, Shift 1]
(A) There is no scope of dual citizenship in the case of federal countries
(B) To prevent conflicts between Centre and States, an independent judiciary settles disputes
(C) Each government is autonomous in its own sphere
(D) Federalism accommodates polities at regional and national levels
Answer: (A) There is no scope of dual citizenship in the case of federal countries
Explanation: Dual citizenship is possible in some federations, notably the United States, although India follows single citizenship. The other statements describe common federal attributes: constitutionally distinct spheres of authority, multiple levels of government and judicial resolution of jurisdictional disagreements.
Q7. When was the third tier added to the Indian federal system?
[UPPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2020]
(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1993
Answer: (C) 1992
Explanation: The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts were enacted in 1992, granting constitutional recognition to Panchayats and Municipalities. Most substantive provisions came into force in 1993. Since the question concerns the amendment year, the correct choice is 1992.
Q6. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and a detached figure without intense political links or recent political participation?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2019]
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(B) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(D) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission proposed safeguards for selecting Governors, including public distinction, independence and distance from recent partisan activity. These recommendations sought to protect the impartiality of the gubernatorial office, which has a sensitive role in Union-State constitutional relations.
Q5. With reference to the federal system in India, which statements are correct?
1. States have no right to secede from the Union under the Constitution.
2. Mere advocacy of secession is protected by freedom of expression.
[UPPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2019]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: The Constitution does not give States a right to withdraw from India. The second statement is not accepted in the official answer: advocacy promoting secession can fall within legally imposed restrictions related to sovereignty and integrity, subject to constitutional free-speech standards.
Q4. Which unitary elements are found in the Indian federal system?
i. Written Constitution
ii. Rigid Constitution
iii. Supremacy of Constitution
iv. Appointment of Governor
v. Decentralisation of powers
vi. President’s approval on State bills
vii. Constitutional crises
viii. One Supreme Court
[CGPSC Civil Service Preliminary Examination, 2017]
(A) i, iii, vii
(B) ii, v, viii
(C) i, ii, v
(D) iv, vi, vii
Answer: (D) iv, vi, vii
Explanation: Union appointment of Governors, presidential consideration of certain State bills and emergency provisions are centralising features. By contrast, a supreme written Constitution, its relative rigidity and constitutionally divided powers are usually treated as federal rather than unitary characteristics.
Q3. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains:
[UPSC NDA General Ability Test, 19 April 2015]
(A) Provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(B) The Union List, State List and Concurrent List
(C) A list of recognised languages
(D) Provisions about disqualification on grounds of defection
Answer: (B) The Union List, State List and Concurrent List
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative subjects through three lists and gives practical effect to Union-State federalism. Tribal-area administration appears in the Fifth and Sixth Schedules, recognised languages in the Eighth, and anti-defection provisions in the Tenth Schedule.
Q2. Assertion (A): The primary objective of India’s federal design was to weave a nation out of diverse parts and protect national integration.
Reason (R): Accommodation of diversities has built a stronger, not weaker, Indian nationhood.
[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2015, re-examination of 2013]
(A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
Explanation: India’s federal arrangement accommodates linguistic, cultural and regional differences within a common political framework. Protecting regional identity while maintaining nationwide institutions strengthens unity. Therefore, both the assertion and reason are accepted as true, and the reason explains the assertion.
Q1. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing grants-in-aid of the revenues to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2002]
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Public Accounts Committee
Answer: (A) Finance Commission
Explanation: Article 280 assigns the Finance Commission responsibility for recommending principles governing specified grants-in-aid to States, along with tax-devolution matters. The Inter-State Council promotes coordination, while the other institutions do not possess this particular constitutional recommendation mandate.