Governor

VidyaarOctober 18, 20260211 views

Q150. What did the Supreme Court hold regarding a Governor indefinitely delaying action on State Bills in the Tamil Nadu Governor case?

[RRB Group D 2025 (20 August 2026, Shift 1)]

(A) The Governor has an unlimited absolute veto

(B) The Governor may amend any bill independently

(D) A pocket veto can be exercised without restriction

Answer: (C) The Governor cannot indefinitely refuse or delay action on bills

Explanation: The April 2025 Tamil Nadu Governor decision condemned indefinite inaction. A later five-judge advisory opinion in November 2025 rejected binding judicial deadlines or deemed assent, while allowing limited scrutiny of prolonged, unexplained inaction. The exam answer concerns obstruction without constitutional action.

Q149. Under which Article may a Governor promulgate an Ordinance while the State Legislature is not in session?

[SSC GD Constable 2026 (26 May, Shift 3)]

(A) Article 213

(B) Article 211

(D) Article 208

Answer: (A) Article 213

Explanation: Article 213 empowers the Governor to issue ordinances when legislative conditions permit immediate action. Such ordinances have the force of law but remain temporary and are subject to legislative scrutiny once the Houses reassemble.

Q148. Who was appointed Governor of Haryana in July 2025?

[SSC GD Constable 2026 (8 May)]

(A) Kavinder Gupta

(B) Manoj Kumar Singh

(D) Ashim Kumar Ghosh

Answer: (D) Ashim Kumar Ghosh

Explanation: Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh was appointed Governor of Haryana in July 2025. Governors are constitutional heads appointed by the President, not elected by state voters. This question tests the link between recent gubernatorial appointments and constitutional offices.

Q147. Who was the first woman to serve as Governor of a State in independent India?

[SSC GD Constable 2026 (8 May)]

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Indira Gandhi

(D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Answer: (A) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu became Governor of the United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh, in 1947. She was the first woman Governor of an Indian state after independence. Sucheta Kripalani, by contrast, became the first woman Chief Minister of a state.

Q146. Who determines the salary and allowances payable to the Governor of a State?

[SSC GD Constable 2026 (4 May)]

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Finance Commission

Answer: (C) Parliament

Explanation: The Constitution authorises Parliament to determine the Governor’s emoluments and allowances by law. Article 158 also protects these payments from diminution during the tenure, supporting independence and dignity of the constitutional office.

Q145. Who possesses the constitutional power to summon and prorogue the State Legislature?

[SSC GD Constable 2026 (30 April)]

(A) Governor

(B) Assembly Speaker

(D) President

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Article 174 confers the formal power of summoning and proroguing the legislature on the Governor. Conventionally the Governor acts on the advice of the elected Council of Ministers, except in narrowly defined constitutional situations.

Q144. In a hung State Assembly, who formally appoints the Chief Minister?

[SSC GD Constable 2026 (28 April)]

(A) President

(B) Speaker

(D) Governor

Answer: (D) Governor

Explanation: Article 164 provides for appointment of the Chief Minister by the Governor. When no party commands an obvious majority, the Governor identifies a leader likely to secure confidence, which should be tested on the Assembly floor.

Q143. Which constitutional Article authorises the Governor to make an Ordinance?

[SSC GD Constable 2026 (5 May)]

(A) Article 200

(B) Article 213

(D) Article 368

Answer: (B) Article 213

Explanation: Governor-made ordinances derive from Article 213 of the Constitution. They are temporary legislative measures and are not a substitute for ordinary lawmaking. After the legislature reassembles, the constitutional continuation and cessation rules apply.

Q142. Consider: (1) The Governor can dissolve a State Legislative Assembly. (2) The President cannot dissolve the Lok Sabha. Which statement is correct?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (A) Statement 1 only

Explanation: Article 174 empowers the Governor formally to dissolve a State Legislative Assembly. Article 85 likewise permits dissolution of the Lok Sabha by the President. Hence the second proposition is false, while the first is true.

Q141. Consider:
(1) The Governor may report constitutional failure under Article 356.
(2) The 41st Amendment made gubernatorial tenure four years.
(3) The Sarkaria Commission discouraged arbitrary early removals.

Which are correct?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]

(A) 2 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(D) 3 only

Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The Governor may report failure of constitutional machinery under Article 356. The normal tenure remains five years under Article 156; the 41st Amendment did not reduce it. Sarkaria recommended security of tenure except for compelling circumstances.

Q140. Unlike the indirectly elected President, how is a State Governor chosen?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]

(A) By direct popular election

(B) By appointment of the President

(D) By election in the Assembly

Answer: (B) By appointment of the President

Explanation: Article 155 states that the President appoints a Governor by warrant under the President’s hand and seal. There is no gubernatorial electoral college or popular election, although the President of India is elected indirectly.

Q139. Under Article 255, what is the effect of obtaining valid assent despite the omission of an earlier required recommendation for a State Bill?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]

(A) The Act is automatically void

(B) A written reference in every clause is mandatory

(D) Presidential assent must precede introduction

Answer: (C) The missing recommendation alone does not invalidate the Act

Explanation: Article 255 treats certain prior recommendation and sanction requirements as matters of procedure. Where constitutionally specified final assent has been given, omission of the earlier recommendation alone does not invalidate the enacted law.

Q138. A State Bill reserved by the Governor is submitted for whose consideration?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Assembly Speaker

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Article 200 permits or requires reservation of particular State Bills for the President. Article 201 then governs presidential consideration of such Bills. This differs from the Governor’s ordinary power to grant assent to State legislation.

Q137. Consider:
(1) Article 266 deals with the Consolidated Fund of a State.
(2) The State Contingency Fund is placed at the Governor’s disposal under prescribed rules.

Which statements hold?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(D) Neither

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Article 266 deals with Consolidated Funds and public accounts. Article 267 permits the State Contingency Fund to be placed at the Governor’s disposal for urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending legislative authorisation and subsequent regularisation.

Q136. Which legal principle regarding Governors and Presidents is stated in Article 310, read with Article 311?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]

(A) All officers enjoy absolute tenure

(B) Civil servants hold office during constitutional pleasure, subject to safeguards

(D) Article 311 abolishes disciplinary proceedings

Answer: (B) Civil servants hold office during constitutional pleasure, subject to safeguards

Explanation: Article 310 expresses the doctrine of pleasure for specified civil services, with State posts held at the pleasure of the Governor. Article 311 imposes procedural safeguards against dismissal, removal and reduction in rank.

Q135. Which Article deals with submitting a Bill passed by a State Legislature to its Governor for assent?

[SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-I (27 November, Shift 2)]

(A) Article 200

(B) Article 201

(D) Article 203

Answer: (A) Article 200

Explanation: Article 200 deals with the Governor’s action on State Bills. The options include assent, reservation for the President and, for eligible non-Money Bills, return for legislative reconsideration. Article 201 covers Bills reserved for the President.

Q134. Consider:
(1) The Governor has discretionary power specifically under the Constitution.
(2) The President can independently reserve a State Bill without the Governor.

Which is correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2025]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither

Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: The Constitution recognises discretionary functions of Governors, including specified special responsibilities. Reservation of a State Bill under Article 200 is an action of the Governor; the President deals with a Bill once it has been reserved.

Q133. Consider the immunities of a Governor:
(1) Not answerable to court for official duties.
(2) No criminal proceedings during term.
(3) A member has legislative speech protection.

Which are correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2025]

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Article 361 shields the Governor from personal court answerability for official acts and bars criminal proceedings during tenure. Separately, Article 194 protects legislators for speech and votes in the legislature, subject to constitutional rules.

Q132. Consider:
(1) The Governor is the constitutional head of the State.
(2) The Governor must act only upon ministerial advice in every situation.

Which is true?

[SSC Stenographer 2025]

(A) Both statements

(B) Statement 1 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (B) Statement 1 only

Explanation: The Governor is the constitutional head, while executive governance ordinarily follows advice under Article 163. The word only makes the second statement incorrect because the Constitution permits specified functions involving gubernatorial discretion.

Q131. Which Article provides for the appointment of State Governors by the President?

[SSC Stenographer 2025]

(A) Article 170

(B) Article 154

(D) Article 168

Answer: (C) Article 155

Explanation: Article 155 provides the method of appointment: a warrant under the President’s hand and seal. Article 154 concerns State executive power, while Article 168 concerns the constitution of State legislatures.

Q130. Which listed action is a recognised discretionary function of the Governor?

[SSC Stenographer 2025]

(A) Appointing all ministers without a Chief Minister

(B) Making a report under Article 356 in every case automatically

(D) Summoning every session independently of advice

Answer: (C) Reserving a State Bill for the President

Explanation: Article 200 recognises the Governor’s role in reserving Bills for presidential consideration. Other listed actions either misstate the Governor’s ordinary constitutional position or disregard the Council of Ministers and legally defined limits.

Q129. Under which Article may the Governor reserve a State Legislature Bill for presidential consideration?

[Chhattisgarh PSC Prelims 2024 (held 9 February 2025)]

(A) Article 199

(B) Article 200

(D) Article 356

Answer: (B) Article 200

Explanation: Article 200 is the constitutional source of the Governor’s assent and reservation options regarding State Bills. After reservation, Article 201 governs the President’s consideration. Article 199 instead defines State Money Bills.

Q128. Who normally administers the oath to a newly appointed State Governor?

[SSC GD Constable 2025 (19 February, Shift 1)]

(A) Chief Justice of the State High Court

(B) Prime Minister

(D) President

Answer: (A) Chief Justice of the State High Court

Explanation: Article 159 requires the Governor’s oath before the State High Court’s Chief Justice or, when absent, the senior-most judge available. The oath relates to preserving, protecting and defending the Constitution and serving citizens.

Q127. Tamilisai Soundararajan resigned in 2024 after having served as Governor of which State?

[SSC GD Constable 2025 (13 February, Shift 2)]

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Uttarakhand

(D) Tripura

Answer: (C) Telangana

Explanation: Tamilisai Soundararajan was appointed Governor of Telangana in 2019 and resigned in March 2024 to return to electoral politics. She also held additional charge as Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry during part of her tenure.

Q126. Which power is NOT entrusted to a Governor under the Indian Constitution?

[SSC GD Constable 2025 (12 February, Shift 3)]

(A) Legislative powers

(B) Financial powers

(D) Power to issue judicial writs

Answer: (D) Power to issue judicial writs

Explanation: Writs such as habeas corpus and mandamus are issued by constitutional courts under Articles 32 and 226. A Governor has certain executive, legislative, financial and clemency functions, but no constitutional authority to issue writs.

Q125. Which listed activity is NOT a constitutional power of the Governor?

[SSC GD Constable 2025 (7 February, Shift 3)]

(A) Proroguing a legislature

(B) Summoning a legislature

(D) Voting on a no-confidence motion

Answer: (D) Voting on a no-confidence motion

Explanation: Governors are not voting members of the Assembly and cannot participate in no-confidence voting. Under Article 174 they formally summon, prorogue and dissolve the legislative Assembly, subject to constitutional conventions and advice.

Q124. Which office is NOT included in the State Executive?

[SSC GD Constable 2025 (7 February, Shift 1)]

(A) Chief Justice of the High Court

(B) Council of Ministers

(D) Governor

Answer: (A) Chief Justice of the High Court

Explanation: Part VI of the Constitution includes the Governor, ministers and Advocate-General in State executive arrangements. The High Court Chief Justice is part of the independent judiciary, not the political executive administering the State.

Q123. Before becoming President of India, Droupadi Murmu served as Governor of which State?

[SSC GD Constable 2025 (5 February, Shift 2)]

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Jharkhand

(D) Assam

Answer: (B) Jharkhand

Explanation: Droupadi Murmu served as Governor of Jharkhand from 2015 to 2021 before being elected President in 2022. Her earlier constitutional role was distinct from an elected Chief Minister or a State cabinet minister.

Q122. Who makes rules to allocate and transact the executive business of a State Government?

[SSC GD Constable 2025 (5 February, Shift 1)]

(A) Governor

(B) State Advocate-General

(D) Chief Secretary

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Under Article 166(3), the Governor makes rules for convenient transaction of government business and allocation among ministers. In practice, these rules operate within the parliamentary executive arrangement rather than conferring personal administrative control over every decision.

Q121. Which option is NOT conventionally classified as a distinct power of the Governor?

[SSC GD Constable 2025 (4 February, Shift 3)]

(A) Executive power

(B) Discretionary power

(D) Legislative power

Answer: (C) Obligatory power

Explanation: Textbooks normally classify the Governor’s functions as executive, legislative, financial, judicial and discretionary. The expression obligatory power is not generally used as an independent constitutional category, although many gubernatorial duties are legally mandatory.

Q120. Assertion: The same person cannot act as Governor of two States. Reason: Article 153 says there shall be a Governor for each State. Identify the correct pair.

[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024]

(A) Assertion false, Reason true

(B) Both true; Reason correctly explains Assertion

(D) Assertion true, Reason false

Answer: (A) Assertion false, Reason true

Explanation: The Seventh Constitutional Amendment expressly permitted appointment of the same person for two or more States. Article 153 still provides for a Governor for each State but does not prevent one individual holding multiple governorships.

Q119. Assertion: The Governor is the constitutional head of a State and a link with the Union.
Reason: The office is necessarily against federalism.

Choose correctly.

[TNPSC Group II 2024 (14 September)]

(A) Both true

(B) Assertion true, reason false

(D) Both false

Answer: (B) Assertion true, reason false

Explanation: The Governor is a State constitutional authority appointed by the President, which also links Union and State institutions. The mere existence of this office does not make it unconstitutional or automatically negate Indian federalism.

Q118. What is the normal constitutional duration of a Governor’s term?

[SSC MTS 2024]

(A) Two years

(B) Five years

(D) Ten years

Answer: (B) Five years

Explanation: Article 156(3) gives the Governor a normal term of five years beginning on entering office. However, the office is held during the President’s pleasure and the Governor may continue until a successor takes charge.

Q117. Under which Article does the Council of Ministers aid and advise the Governor?

[SSC MTS 2024]

(A) Article 167

(B) Article 153

(D) Article 157

Answer: (C) Article 163

Explanation: Article 163 provides a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its head to aid and advise the Governor, except where the Constitution requires discretion. Article 167 separately specifies duties of the Chief Minister.

Q116. Raghubar Das was appointed Governor of which State in October 2023?

[SSC MTS 2024]

(A) West Bengal

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Chhattisgarh

Answer: (C) Odisha

Explanation: Raghubar Das, a former Chief Minister of Jharkhand, was appointed Governor of Odisha in October 2023. Questions on appointments test who served at the stated date, since holders of gubernatorial offices can change.

Q115. Under Article 165, who appoints the Advocate-General for a State?

[SSC MTS 2024]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Attorney-General of India

(D) Governor

Answer: (D) Governor

Explanation: Article 165 empowers the Governor to appoint an Advocate-General qualified to be a High Court judge. This officer is the highest law officer of the State and advises its government on legal matters.

Q114. Which Article allows one person to be appointed as Governor for two or more States?

[SSC MTS 2024]

(A) Article 158(2)

(B) Article 157

(D) Article 153

Answer: (D) Article 153

Explanation: The proviso to Article 153, added by the Seventh Amendment, permits one person to govern more than one State. Article 158(3A) addresses allocation of the Governor’s emoluments where multiple States are involved.

Q113. Former Supreme Court judge S. Abdul Nazeer was appointed Governor of which State in February 2023?

[SSC MTS 2024]

(A) Kerala

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Goa

Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: S. Abdul Nazeer was appointed Governor of Andhra Pradesh in February 2023 after retiring from the Supreme Court. The Constitution does not prohibit a former judge from being appointed Governor, subject to applicable qualifications.

Q112. Under Article 163, advice given to the Governor by ministers cannot be investigated in court. To which office does the advice relate?

[SSC MTS 2024]

(A) President

(B) Chief Minister

(D) Governor

Answer: (D) Governor

Explanation: Article 163(3) bars judicial inquiry into whether ministers tendered advice to the Governor and what that advice contained. This protection for ministerial advice does not make every gubernatorial action immune from constitutional judicial review.

Q111. Article 157 sets qualifications for appointment to which office?

[SSC MTS 2024]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Election Commissioner

(D) Governor

Answer: (D) Governor

Explanation: Article 157 specifies the basic eligibility requirements for Governors: Indian citizenship and a minimum age of thirty-five years. Other conditions of the office, including incompatible memberships and offices of profit, are set out in Article 158.

Q110. Under which Article must executive actions of the State Government be expressed in the Governor’s name?

[SSC CGL 2024]

(A) Article 177

(B) Article 167

(D) Article 166

Answer: (D) Article 166

Explanation: Article 166 requires State executive action to be expressed as taken in the name of the Governor. Authentication and transaction-of-business rules maintain the distinction between the formal constitutional executive and the elected ministry.

Q109. Who unfurls the National Flag at the State-level Republic Day ceremony in the State capital?

[SSC CGL 2024]

(A) High Court Chief Justice

(B) Chief Minister

(D) Assembly Speaker

Answer: (C) Governor

Explanation: At the principal Republic Day function in a State capital, the Governor customarily unfurls the National Flag. This reflects the Governor’s status as constitutional head; the Chief Minister typically leads Independence Day functions at State level.

Q108. Which Article grants specified constitutional immunities to the Governor?

[SSC CHSL 2024]

(A) Article 356

(B) Article 370

(D) Article 352

Answer: (C) Article 361

Explanation: Article 361 limits legal proceedings against a President or Governor while in office. Criminal proceedings and arrest are barred during tenure, whereas civil actions for personal acts are subject to special rules and prior notice.

Q107. Which person was appointed Governor of Karnataka in July 2021 after serving as a Union Cabinet Minister?

[SSC CHSL 2024]

(A) Hari Babu Kambhampati

(B) Thawarchand Gehlot

(D) Arjun Munda

Answer: (B) Thawarchand Gehlot

Explanation: Thawarchand Gehlot, who had served as Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment, became Governor of Karnataka in July 2021. Gubernatorial appointments are made by the President under Article 155.

Q106. Which colonial enactment converted the Governor of Bengal into the Governor-General of Bengal?

[SSC CHSL 2024]

(A) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(B) Regulating Act, 1773

(D) Charter Act, 1813

Answer: (B) Regulating Act, 1773

Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 made Warren Hastings the first Governor-General of Bengal, assisted by a council. This is a colonial office, historically different from the constitutional Governor of a State after independence.

Q105. Who was the first Governor of Chhattisgarh after its formation in 2000?

[Chhattisgarh PSC Prelims 2023 (held 11 February 2024)]

(A) D. N. Sahay

(B) E. S. L. Narasimhan

(D) Shekhar Dutt

Answer: (A) D. N. Sahay

Explanation: Dinesh Nandan Sahay became the inaugural Governor of Chhattisgarh when the State was formed on 1 November 2000. Chhattisgarh was separated from Madhya Pradesh under parliamentary legislation.

Q104. Members of a State Public Service Commission are
appointed by the Governor
removed by the President.

Which statements are correct?

[Rajasthan Administrative Service Prelims 2023 (exam cycle)]

(A) Neither

(B) Both

(D) Only appointment statement

Answer: (B) Both

Explanation: Article 316 places appointment of State Public Service Commission members with the Governor. Under Article 317, the President has removal authority subject to specified conditions and, for certain grounds, Supreme Court inquiry.

Q103. Under Article 217, the President consults which authorities, including the Governor, when appointing a High Court judge?

[Rajasthan Administrative Service Prelims 2023 (exam cycle)]

(A) Only the Governor

(B) Chief Justice of India, State Governor and normally the High Court Chief Justice

(D) Chief Minister and Speaker only

Answer: (B) Chief Justice of India, State Governor and normally the High Court Chief Justice

Explanation: Article 217 sets consultation requirements for High Court judicial appointments involving the Chief Justice of India, the Governor, and ordinarily the High Court Chief Justice. The constitutional appointment is formally made by the President.

Q102. Which claims about the Governor are correct?
(1) Governor is the real political executive.
(2) The Chief Minister frames policy.
(3) President appoints the Governor.

[SSC CPO 2023 (4 October)]

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 only

(D) 1 only

Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation: The Governor is the constitutional, not the day-to-day political, executive. The elected Chief Minister and ministers drive policy, while Article 155 provides presidential appointment of the Governor. Therefore the second and third propositions are correct.

Q101. Who administers the constitutional oath to a State Governor?

[SSC CGL 2023]

(A) Chief Justice of the High Court

(B) President

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (A) Chief Justice of the High Court

Explanation: Article 159 identifies the High Court Chief Justice, or in that person’s absence the senior-most available judge of that court, as administering the Governor’s oath. It is not administered by the elected State ministry.

Q100. Who appoints the State Election Commissioner responsible for local-body elections?

[SSC CGL 2023]

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) President

(D) Chief Minister

Answer: (C) Governor

Explanation: Article 243K provides for appointment of a State Election Commissioner by the Governor. The Commission supervises electoral rolls and elections to Panchayats; Article 243ZA extends its role to municipalities.

Q99. Sarojini Naidu, independent India’s first woman Governor, governed which State?

[SSC CGL 2023]

(A) West Bengal

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Gujarat

Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh (then United Provinces)

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu served as Governor of the United Provinces from 1947 until her death in 1949. The province was subsequently renamed Uttar Pradesh. Her appointment was a landmark for women in constitutional office.

Q98. Under Article 167, to whom must the Chief Minister communicate decisions of the State Council of Ministers?

[SSC CGL 2023]

(A) Chief Justice

(B) Governor

(D) Comptroller and Auditor-General

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: Article 167 makes it the Chief Minister’s duty to communicate ministerial decisions and legislative proposals to the Governor. It also enables the Governor to call for specified information concerning State administration.

Q97. In a Legislative Council, what fraction of members may be nominated by the Governor?

[SSC CGL 2023]

(A) One-third

(B) One-sixth

(D) One-fourth

Answer: (B) One-sixth

Explanation: Under Article 171(3)(e), the Governor nominates approximately one-sixth of a State Legislative Council. Nominees should have special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, cooperative movement or social service.

Q96. Which Article states that every State shall have a Governor?

[SSC MTS 2023]

(A) Article 173

(B) Article 157

(D) Article 156

Answer: (C) Article 153

Explanation: Article 153 establishes the office of State Governor and allows one person to hold the office for multiple States. Article 157 gives qualifications, whereas Article 156 addresses tenure and presidential pleasure.

Q95. Who appoints the State Election Commissioner?

[SSC MTS 2023]

(A) Governor

(B) Speaker

(D) Advocate-General

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: The Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner under Article 243K. The constitutional body is responsible for conducting Panchayat and municipal elections, and its independence is supported by special provisions concerning removal.

Q94. A State Money Bill may be introduced only after whose recommendation?

[SSC MTS 2023]

(A) Speaker

(B) Chief Minister

(D) Advocate-General

Answer: (C) Governor

Explanation: Article 207 requires the Governor’s recommendation for introduction of a State Money Bill. This is a constitutional formality in the financial legislative process and ordinarily occurs on elected governmental advice.

Q93. Which former Governor of Jharkhand, serving from 2004 to 2009, died in 2022?

[SSC MTS 2023]

(A) Ramesh Bais

(B) Syed Ahmed

(D) K. Sankaranarayanan

Answer: (C) Syed Sibtey Razi

Explanation: Syed Sibtey Razi served as Jharkhand Governor during the stated period and died in 2022. Such questions test officeholders by a specified historical window, which should not be confused with current incumbency.

Q92. What is the constitutional minimum age for becoming a State Governor?

[SSC MTS 2023 (May)]

(A) 28 years

(B) 30 years

(D) 40 years

Answer: (C) 35 years

Explanation: Article 157 requires a Governor to be an Indian citizen aged at least thirty-five. Unlike a Lok Sabha membership requirement, no direct election or minimum legislative service is required for gubernatorial appointment.

Q91. Who is the constitutional head of an Indian State?

[SSC MTS 2022 (held May 2023)]

(A) High Court Chief Justice

(B) Governor

(D) Chief Minister

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: The Governor is the formal constitutional head of the State. Actual policy-making authority in the parliamentary system ordinarily lies with the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister, responsible to the Assembly.

Q90. At what interval does the Governor constitute a State Finance Commission?

[SSC MTS 2022 (held May 2023)]

(A) Ten years

(B) Three years

(D) Six years

Answer: (C) Five years

Explanation: Article 243-I requires constitution of a State Finance Commission every five years to review Panchayat financial arrangements. Article 243Y extends relevant provisions to municipalities; the Governor acts under the prescribed constitutional framework.

Q89. Which Article empowers Governors to promulgate State ordinances?

[SSC CHSL 2022 (15 March 2023)]

(A) Article 212

(B) Article 214

(D) Article 210

Answer: (C) Article 213

Explanation: Article 213 authorises temporary ordinances where the State legislature is not fully in session and immediate action is necessary. Ordinances require subsequent legislative oversight; their continuance is not unrestricted.

Q88. Who appoints the Advocate-General of a State?

[SSC CGL 2022 Tier-II (7 March 2023)]

(A) Speaker

(B) Governor

(D) Chief Justice of the High Court

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: Article 165 provides for appointment of the Advocate-General by the Governor. The appointee must possess qualifications for appointment as a High Court judge and holds office during the Governor’s pleasure.

Q87. Who was the first woman appointed as Governor of Madhya Pradesh?

[MPPSC State Service 2022 (held 21 May 2023)]

(A) Sarla Grewal

(B) Nandini Satpathy

(D) Droupadi Murmu

Answer: (A) Sarla Grewal

Explanation: Sarla Grewal served as Governor of Madhya Pradesh from 1989 to 1990 and was the first woman to hold that office. She had earlier served in senior Union civil-service positions.

Q86. Under the Fifth Schedule, who may establish a Tribes Advisory Council in a State having Scheduled Tribes but no Scheduled Areas?

[UPSC CDS-I 2023 (16 April)]

(A) Governor of the State

(B) President of India

(D) Parliament

Answer: (A) Governor of the State

Explanation: The Fifth Schedule permits a Tribes Advisory Council in States having Scheduled Tribes but no Scheduled Areas when directed by the President. The Governor is involved in constituting the council under those provisions; read the presidential-direction requirement carefully.

Q85. Who among the following colonial Governor-Generals faced impeachment in the British Parliament?

[UPSC NDA-I 2023 (16 April)]

(A) Robert Clive

(B) Henry Vansittart

(D) Lord Cornwallis

Answer: (C) Warren Hastings

Explanation: Warren Hastings faced impeachment proceedings in Britain over aspects of his administration of Bengal. He was ultimately acquitted. This historical Governor-General role should not be confused with modern constitutional State Governors.

Q84. Article 154 vests a State’s executive power in which authority?

[RRB Group D 2022 (7 October)]

(A) The Chief Justice

(B) The Governor

(D) The Prime Minister

Answer: (B) The Governor

Explanation: Article 154 expressly vests the State’s executive power in the Governor, to be exercised in conformity with the Constitution. Effective daily governance remains with the elected Council of Ministers under the parliamentary scheme.

Q83. Who is a constituent of the State Executive under the Constitution?

[RRB Group D 2022 (30 September)]

(A) Vice-President

(B) Attorney-General of India

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (C) Governor

Explanation: The Governor is an organ of the State Executive under Part VI of the Constitution. The Prime Minister, Vice-President and Attorney-General are Union-level offices rather than constitutional authorities in a State Executive.

Q82. Under which Article does the Governor constitute the State Finance Commission for Panchayats?

[RRB Group D 2022 (27 September)]

(A) Article 243X

(B) Article 243Y

(D) Article 243-I

Answer: (D) Article 243-I

Explanation: Article 243-I directs the Governor to constitute the State Finance Commission periodically. The Commission reviews finances of Panchayats and recommends sharing and assignment of taxes, grants and related financial measures.

Q81. The Supreme Court decision in D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar concerned which gubernatorial power?

[UPSC CAPF 2022]

(A) Repeated promulgation of ordinances

(B) Appointment of Chief Minister

(D) Alteration of legislators’ salaries

Answer: (A) Repeated promulgation of ordinances

Explanation: D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar condemned repeated re-promulgation of ordinances to bypass the legislature. Governor’s ordinances under Article 213 are temporary, exceptional instruments rather than a parallel method of permanent lawmaking.

Q80. Which statement about the Election Commission is INCORRECT?

[UPSC CDS-I 2022 (10 April)]

(A) It conducts Vice-Presidential elections

(B) An Election Commissioner may be removed without the CEC’s recommendation

(D) The Governor must provide staff to the Election Commission when constitutionally required

Answer: (B) An Election Commissioner may be removed without the CEC’s recommendation

Explanation: Article 324 protects Election Commissioners other than the Chief Election Commissioner against removal except on the CEC’s recommendation. Article 324(6) also requires Governors to make available staff requested for election duties.

Q79. Which commission recommended selecting Governors who are not intensely involved in party politics?

[SSC CGL 2022]

(A) Fazal Ali Commission

(B) Rajamannar Committee

(D) Mandal Commission

Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission

Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission examined Centre–State relations and recommended that a Governor be an eminent outsider, detached from active politics. It sought to reduce partisan conflict in the appointment and functioning of this office.

Q78. Who received additional charge as Governor of Meghalaya in October 2022 while serving as Governor of Arunachal Pradesh?

[SSC CGL 2022]

(A) B. D. Mishra

(B) A. K. Anil Kumar

(D) Sunil Barthwal

Answer: (A) B. D. Mishra

Explanation: Brigadier B. D. Mishra held the Arunachal Pradesh governorship and was assigned additional charge of Meghalaya in 2022. One individual can serve more than one State under the proviso to Article 153.

Q77. Mangubhai C. Patel was appointed Governor of which State in July 2021?

[SSC CGL 2022]

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (A) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: Mangubhai C. Patel became Governor of Madhya Pradesh in July 2021. He previously held ministerial responsibilities in Gujarat. The appointment was by the President under the Governor-appointment provision of Article 155.

Q76. Which constitutional authority appoints the Governor of a State?

[WBCS Main Examination 2021 (held May 2022)]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President

(D) Chief Minister

Answer: (B) President

Explanation: Article 155 requires the President to appoint State Governors. Neither the Chief Minister nor State Legislature conducts a formal gubernatorial election, although political conventions can inform the consultation surrounding appointments.

Q75. Who appoints the State Election Commissioner?

[MPPSC State Service 2021 (held June 2022)]

(A) Governor

(B) President

(D) Home Minister

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: State Election Commissioners are appointed by Governors under Article 243K, subject to law. Their responsibility concerns local self-government elections; parliamentary and Assembly elections are supervised by the Election Commission of India.

Q74. Who appoints the chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission?

[MPPSC State Service 2021 (held June 2022)]

(A) Governor

(B) Chief Minister

(D) UPSC Chairperson

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Article 316 entrusts appointment of State Public Service Commission chairpersons and members to the Governor. The removal procedure differs: under Article 317, the President has removal powers in specified circumstances.

Q73. Assertion: Courts cannot enquire into advice given by State ministers to the Governor.
Reason: The Constitution contains no State-minister system of legal responsibility.

Choose the exam-key answer.

[CGPSC State Services Prelims 2021 (held 13 February 2022)]

(A) Both true and Reason explains Assertion

(B) Both true but Reason does not explain Assertion

(D) Assertion false and Reason true

Answer: (A) Both true and Reason explains Assertion

Explanation: Article 163(3) expressly prevents judicial inquiry into whether ministers gave advice to a Governor and its content. This paper linked that principle with the absence of individually enforceable legal responsibility of ministers; ministerial political responsibility nonetheless persists.

Q72. Who was serving as Governor of Sikkim in December 2020?

[RRB NTPC 2021 (31 July)]

(A) S. D. Patil

(B) Ganga Prasad

(D) Banwarilal Purohit

Answer: (B) Ganga Prasad

Explanation: Ganga Prasad served as Governor of Sikkim from 2018 to 2022. The question refers to December 2020, not to a current appointment; historical incumbency must always be checked against the stated month.

Q71. Who was Governor of Maharashtra as of March 2021?

[RRB NTPC 2021 (23 July)]

(A) Bandaru Dattatreya

(B) Arif Mohammed Khan

(D) Kalraj Mishra

Answer: (C) Bhagat Singh Koshyari

Explanation: Bhagat Singh Koshyari was Maharashtra’s Governor from 2019 until 2023. This question tests the holder at a particular historical date, not the state of appointments several years later.

Q70. Which State has a special responsibility vested in its Governor for law and order under Article 371H?

[SSC CGL 2020 (held August 2021)]

(A) Nagaland

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Mizoram

Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Article 371H provides special responsibility concerning law and order to the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh, after consulting the Council of Ministers and using individual judgment as specified. This is a special constitutional provision.

Q69. The Governor’s authority to grant pardons, reprieves, respites and remissions is found in which Article?

[SSC CGL 2020 (held August 2021)]

(A) Article 173

(B) Article 150

(D) Article 189

Answer: (C) Article 161

Explanation: Article 161 provides the Governor’s clemency power in relation to offences against laws concerning matters within State executive power. The power differs in scope from the President’s clemency authority under Article 72.

Q68. Who may report a failure of constitutional machinery in a State, prompting consideration of President’s Rule?

[SSC CGL 2020 (held August 2021)]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Governor

(D) Chief Minister

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: Under Article 356, a Governor’s report is one constitutional basis for presidential satisfaction that State government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. Such satisfaction may also be based on other material.

Q67. Mata Prasad, who died in 2021, had been Governor of which State?

[SSC CGL 2020 (held August 2021)]

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Goa

(D) Uttarakhand

Answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Mata Prasad served as Governor of Arunachal Pradesh from 1993 to 1999. He had previously served in political and administrative positions. The name is associated with a former, not incumbent, governor.

Q66. Which Article provides immunity from criminal proceedings to a serving Governor?

[SSC CHSL 2020 (held April 2021)]

(A) Article 361

(B) Article 396

(D) Article 384

Answer: (A) Article 361

Explanation: Article 361 bars criminal proceedings in court against a serving Governor during tenure. It also provides protection from arrest or imprisonment in that period, without permanently eliminating legal accountability after office.

Q65. What minimum age must a person attain before appointment as Governor?

[SSC CHSL 2020 (held August 2021)]

(A) 25

(B) 26

(D) 35

Answer: (D) 35

Explanation: Article 157 fixes thirty-five as the minimum age for a Governor. The person must also be a citizen of India and satisfy the office-related incompatibility requirements under Article 158.

Q64. Who was serving as Governor of Chhattisgarh in May 2020?

[SSC CHSL 2020 (held August 2021)]

(A) Ramesh Bais

(B) Anusuiya Uikey

(D) Y. S. Jagan Mohan Reddy

Answer: (B) Anusuiya Uikey

Explanation: Anusuiya Uikey was Governor of Chhattisgarh between July 2019 and February 2023. Bhupesh Baghel was the State Chief Minister during the queried period, highlighting the separation of constitutional and elected executive offices.

Q63. Which statement about the appointment and tenure of a Governor is constitutionally correct?

[SSC MTS 2020 (held 26 October 2021)]

(A) Governor resigns to the Prime Minister

(B) Minimum appointment age is thirty

(D) Governor serves during the Chief Minister’s pleasure

Answer: (C) Governor is appointed by the President

Explanation: The President appoints Governors under Article 155. Article 157 requires a minimum age of thirty-five, and Article 156 governs tenure at the President’s pleasure and resignation addressed to the President.

Q62. Which Article stipulates that States shall have Governors?

[SSC MTS 2020 (held 18 October 2021)]

(A) Article 148

(B) Article 153

(D) Article 136

Answer: (B) Article 153

Explanation: Article 153 establishes the office of Governor for each State. Its proviso permits one person to hold the office for two or more States, following the Seventh Constitutional Amendment of 1956.

Q61. Who was the youngest person appointed Governor of an Indian State, as referred to in the 2020 exam?

[SSC MTS 2020 (held 26 October 2021)]

(A) Jagdish Mukhi

(B) Sharda Mukherjee

(D) Swaraj Kaushal

Answer: (D) Swaraj Kaushal

Explanation: Swaraj Kaushal became Governor of Mizoram in 1990 at about thirty-seven years of age. The question is historical; the Constitution itself requires only a minimum age of thirty-five for gubernatorial office.

Q60. What is the minimum constitutional age for a Governor?

[SSC MTS 2020 (held 22 October 2021)]

(A) 30 years

(B) 35 years

(D) 25 years

Answer: (B) 35 years

Explanation: The age threshold for gubernatorial appointment is thirty-five years under Article 157. This differs from legislative membership: thirty years for the Rajya Sabha or State Legislative Council and twenty-five for the Lok Sabha or Assembly.

Q59. How many States at most may simultaneously have the same person appointed as Governor?

[SSC MTS 2020 (held 7 October 2021)]

(A) No prescribed maximum

(B) One

(D) Three

Answer: (A) No prescribed maximum

Explanation: The proviso to Article 153 allows a single individual to hold governorships of multiple States without prescribing a numerical maximum. When this occurs, Article 158 provides for sharing the Governor’s emoluments in presidentially determined proportions.

Q58. Who served as Chancellor of State universities in West Bengal under the arrangements applicable at the time of the examination?

[WBCS Prelims 2020]

(A) Governor

(B) Chief Minister

(D) Chief Justice of High Court

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: At the time of this paper, State university laws generally made the West Bengal Governor the Chancellor. University governance rules are statutory and can change; the position should therefore be read in its examination-year context.

Q57. Which commission proposed selecting eminent Governors from outside their States who were detached from active politics?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2019]

(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(B) Rajamannar Committee

(D) National Commission to Review Constitution

Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission

Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission on Centre–State Relations recommended Governors of stature with no recent deep partisan involvement, preferably outsiders. The object was neutrality and improved trust between State governments and constitutional heads.

Q56. In which Article is the executive power of a State vested in its Governor?

[WBCS Prelims 2019]

(A) Article 156

(B) Article 155

(D) Article 153

Answer: (C) Article 154

Explanation: Article 154 explicitly vests the State executive power in the Governor. Article 153 establishes the office, Article 155 deals with presidential appointment, and Article 156 concerns the Governor’s term.

Q55. Who formally appoints the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission?

[MPPSC General Studies 2019]

(A) Governor

(B) President

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, the Governor formally appoints members of a State Human Rights Commission on the prescribed committee’s recommendation. The institution examines human-rights concerns within State jurisdiction.

Q54. Who among the listed persons did NOT serve as Governor of Madhya Pradesh?

[MPPSC General Studies 2019]

(A) Balram Jakhar

(B) Rameshwar Thakur

(D) Anshuman Singh

Answer: (D) Anshuman Singh

Explanation: Balram Jakhar, Rameshwar Thakur and Bhai Mahavir each served as Governor of Madhya Pradesh. Justice Anshuman Singh held governorships in other States, making him the exception in this historical-incumbency question.

Q53. Who recommends principles for distribution of taxes between State and Panchayats to the Governor?

[Chhattisgarh PSC 2019]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Finance Minister

(D) Zila Parishad

Answer: (C) State Finance Commission

Explanation: Under Article 243-I, the State Finance Commission recommends principles governing distribution of revenues and grants relevant to Panchayats. The Governor constitutes the Commission, while the elected institutions consider and implement fiscal arrangements.

Q52. Consider:
(1) No criminal proceedings may be instituted against a serving Governor.
(2) The Governor’s emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during the term.
Which statements are correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2018]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Article 361 protects a serving Governor against criminal proceedings. Article 158 bars diminution of gubernatorial emoluments and allowances during the term. These protections support institutional independence without placing every official action beyond review.

Q51. Who appoints a Governor under the Indian Constitution?

[BPSC 64th Prelims 2018]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Chief Justice of India

(D) Chief Justice of the High Court

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Article 155 provides that the President appoints the Governor by warrant under the President’s hand and seal. Appointment is not made through a direct election by citizens or the State Assembly.

Q50. Which Article empowers a Governor to promulgate ordinances?

[MPPSC Prelims 2018]

(A) Article 155

(B) Article 156

(D) Article 213

Answer: (D) Article 213

Explanation: Article 213 concerns the Governor’s ordinance-making power. It is available subject to constitutional circumstances when the legislature is not fully in session and urgent legislative action is considered necessary.

Q49. What does Article 255 say about failure to obtain a required prior recommendation or sanction before passing legislation?

[RAS/RTS Prelims 2018]

(A) The Act is invalid in all circumstances

(B) The defect can be cured by the prescribed final assent

(D) The Supreme Court must approve all Bills

Answer: (B) The defect can be cured by the prescribed final assent

Explanation: Article 255 protects an enactment from invalidity merely for omission of prior recommendation or sanction when the specified assent has subsequently been given. It is a procedural saving provision rather than a wholesale exemption from constitutional requirements.

Q48. Who administers the oath of office to a State Governor?

[UPPSC LT Grade Assistant Teacher 2018 (29 July)]

(A) President

(B) Vice-President

(D) Assembly Speaker

Answer: (C) Chief Justice of the State High Court

Explanation: Article 159 requires the Governor to swear or affirm before the Chief Justice of the State High Court or the most senior available judge if the Chief Justice is unavailable. The oath precedes entry into office.

Q47. Consider Governor’s powers:
(1) Does not appoint High Court judges.
(2) Is outside the legislature.
(3) May nominate Legislative Council members.
(4) Has no judicial powers.

Correct statements?

[UPPCS Prelims 2017]

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(D) All four

Answer: (B) 1 and 3

Explanation: High Court judges are appointed by the President, although the Governor is consulted. Governors form part of State legislatures and may nominate Council members. Article 161 also confers clemency powers, making statements two and four false.

Q46. Which Article authorises promulgation of State ordinances by the Governor?

[UPPCS Mains 2017]

(A) Article 208

(B) Article 212

(D) Article 214

Answer: (C) Article 213

Explanation: Article 213 enables the Governor to issue ordinances under specified circumstances. Such ordinances carry legislative force temporarily and ordinarily cease six weeks after the legislature reassembles unless dealt with as constitutionally provided.

Q45. Where one Governor serves two or more States, how are allowances and emoluments divided between them?

[UPPCS Mains 2016]

(A) As the Governor prefers

(B) By decision of President without apportionment

(D) In proportions fixed by presidential order

Answer: (D) In proportions fixed by presidential order

Explanation: Article 158(3A) permits the emoluments and allowances of a common Governor to be allocated among the States in proportions the President determines by order. The individual Governor does not choose that allocation.

Q44. Which Article contains a State Governor’s power to promulgate ordinances?

[UP Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer Mains 2016]

(A) Article 123

(B) Article 213

(D) Article 219

Answer: (B) Article 213

Explanation: Article 213 applies to Governor-issued State ordinances. Article 123 instead concerns ordinances promulgated by the President at Union level; the other provisions relate to constitutional judicial matters.

Q43. Consider:
(1) A State Legislative Council cannot exceed half the strength of its Assembly.
(2) The Governor nominates the Chairman of a Legislative Council.

Which is correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2015]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (D) Neither statement

Explanation: Article 171 generally limits Legislative Council strength to one-third of Assembly strength, not one-half. The Council elects its Chairman under Article 182; the Governor nominates certain members but not its presiding officer.

Q42. Which Article provides for the appointment of a Governor?

[UPPCS Prelims 2015]

(A) Article 153

(B) Article 154

(D) Article 156

Answer: (C) Article 155

Explanation: Article 155 deals with appointment of Governors by the President. Article 153 creates the office, Article 154 vests State executive power, and Article 156 addresses tenure and resignation.

Q41. A Bill passed by the State Legislature ordinarily becomes an Act following whose assent?

[WBCS Prelims 2015]

(A) Assembly Speaker

(B) Governor

(D) Departmental Minister

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: Article 200 provides for the Governor’s assent to State legislation. The constitutional process also permits specified alternatives such as reservation for the President or return of an eligible Bill for reconsideration.

Q40. Which Governor functions involve discretion:
(1) Report recommending President’s Rule.
(2) Appointing ministers regardless of the Chief Minister.
(3) Reserving a Bill for the President.
(4) Framing ordinary transaction rules without advice?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2014]

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(D) All four

Answer: (B) 1 and 3

Explanation: Reporting breakdown of constitutional machinery under Article 356 and reserving Bills under Article 200 may involve gubernatorial discretion. Ordinary ministerial appointments follow the Chief Minister’s advice, and business rules do not create unrestricted personal discretion.

Q39. Who normally administers the Governor’s oath?

[UPPCS Mains 2014]

(A) President

(B) Chief Justice of India

(D) Outgoing Governor

Answer: (C) Chief Justice of the State High Court

Explanation: Article 159 assigns administration of the Governor’s oath to the High Court Chief Justice, or the senior-most available judge of that High Court if necessary. The constitutional oath is not in the Third Schedule.

Q38. Which statement is correct concerning State Governors?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2013]

(A) One person cannot govern two States

(B) Governors appoint High Court judges

(D) Lieutenant Governors alone appoint every Union Territory Chief Minister

Answer: (C) No detailed removal procedure is prescribed by the Constitution

Explanation: The Constitution does not prescribe a Governor’s impeachment or detailed removal procedure. Article 156 states that the Governor holds office at the President’s pleasure. One person may govern several States, and High Court judges are appointed by the President.

Q37. Consider Governor’s oath:
(1) It is required before entering office.
(2) Its form appears in the Third Schedule.
(3) It is administered before the High Court Chief Justice or senior available judge.
(4) Article 159 governs it.

Which are correct?

[RAS/RTS Prelims 2013]

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(D) All four

Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: Article 159 specifies both the oath and the authority administering it. Governors take this oath before entering office. The Third Schedule does not supply the Governor’s oath, so statement two is incorrect.

Q36. Who administers the Governor’s oath of office under Article 159?

[UPPCS Mains 2013]

(A) President

(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

(D) Chief Minister

Answer: (C) Chief Justice of State High Court

Explanation: The Chief Justice of the jurisdictional High Court is designated to administer the Governor’s oath. In the Chief Justice’s absence, the senior-most judge of the High Court who is available performs the function.

Q35. Who was India’s first woman Governor after independence?

[UPPCS Mains 2013]

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Sucheta Kripalani

(D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Answer: (A) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu was appointed Governor of the United Provinces in 1947. The State was later renamed Uttar Pradesh. She should not be confused with Sucheta Kripalani, the first woman Chief Minister.

Q34. Who appoints a State Governor in India?

[UPPCS Prelims 2012]

(A) Union Cabinet directly

(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

(D) President of India

Answer: (D) President of India

Explanation: The formal constitutional appointment is made by the President of India under Article 155. There is no direct State popular election or legislative vote to select a Governor.

Q33. Which of these posts is NOT appointed by the State Governor?

[Uttarakhand PCS Prelims 2012]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) State Public Service Commission members

(D) Advocate-General

Answer: (C) High Court judge

Explanation: Judges of State High Courts are appointed by the President under Article 217, after required consultations. The Governor formally appoints Chief Ministers, State PSC members and Advocates-General under separate constitutional provisions.

Q32. Who is the constitutional head of government in an Indian State?

[BPSC 53rd–55th Combined Prelims 2011]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Governor

(D) High Court Judge

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: The Governor is the formal constitutional head, while the elected Chief Minister and Council of Ministers perform most day-to-day executive functions. The two roles differ under India’s parliamentary constitutional design.

Q31. Consider: Governor
(1) appointed by President,
(2) holds office during President’s pleasure,
(3) is constitutional executive head,
(4) normally serves five years.

Choose correctly.

[UP GIC 2010]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) All four

Answer: (D) All four

Explanation: All four statements broadly describe Articles 154–156. Governors are presidential appointees with normally five-year terms, serving during presidential pleasure; State executive authority is constitutionally vested in them.

Q30. Which institution advises the Governor on principles governing taxes and duties assignable to Panchayats?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2010]

(A) State Finance Commission

(B) State Election Commission

(D) Finance Commission of India

Answer: (A) State Finance Commission

Explanation: Article 243-I establishes a State Finance Commission constituted by the Governor. It recommends principles for distribution and assignment of State taxes, duties and fees and measures for improving Panchayat finances.

Q29. Which statement about Governors exercising administrative functions over Union Territories was correct at the time of the exam?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2009]

(A) Punjab Governor served as Chandigarh administrator; Kerala Governor did not administer Lakshadweep

(B) Both Punjab and Kerala Governors administered these territories

(D) Neither Governor had any such role

Answer: (A) Punjab Governor served as Chandigarh administrator; Kerala Governor did not administer Lakshadweep

Explanation: The Governor of Punjab also served as Administrator of Chandigarh at the relevant historical time. Lakshadweep had a separately appointed Administrator, rather than the Kerala Governor. Union Territory administration derives from presidential arrangements under Article 239.

Q28. Which duties may allow the Governor to act independently:
(1) seeking a floor test;
(2) dismissal after loss of majority;
(3) reserving a Bill;
(4) return of an eligible Bill;
(5) advisory opinion of High Court?

[UPPCS Prelims 2009]

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(D) All five

Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: A Governor may exercise constitutionally limited judgment in crises over majority, ministry dismissal and reserved Bills. Governors cannot simply demand advisory opinions from a High Court; that special reference power belongs to the President before the Supreme Court.

Q27. For which office does the Indian Constitution have no impeachment mechanism?

[UPPCS Mains 2009]

(A) President

(B) Governor

(D) Vice-President

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: Article 156 places Governors in office during the President’s pleasure. The Constitution prescribes impeachment for the President, but not for Governors. The Governor’s tenure and removal mechanisms must not be confused with those of judges.

Q26. Who was the first woman State Governor after India attained independence?

[SSC CPO Sub-Inspector 2009]

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

(D) Indira Gandhi

Answer: (A) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu became Governor of the United Provinces in August 1947. A freedom fighter and poet, she was the pioneering woman holder of a gubernatorial office in independent India.

Q25. Within what period after legislative reassembly must a Governor’s ordinance ordinarily be approved if it is to continue?

[TNPSC Prelims 2009]

(A) Two weeks

(B) Four weeks

(D) Six months

Answer: (C) Six weeks

Explanation: Article 213 provides that an ordinance ordinarily ceases six weeks after the State Legislature reassembles unless replaced or acted upon as provided. In a bicameral State, specific timing rules apply if Houses resume on different dates.

Q24. The Governor’s ordinance-making power is subject to subsequent approval by which institution?

[UPPCS Special Mains 2008]

(A) President in every case

(B) State Legislature

(D) No authority

Answer: (B) State Legislature

Explanation: An ordinance under Article 213 is a temporary law subject to State legislative control. It must be laid before the legislature and lapses under the constitutional time rules unless legislation regularises it.

Q23. Which Article vests State executive power in the Governor?

[WBPSC Prelims 2007]

(A) Article 153

(B) Article 154

(D) Article 156

Answer: (B) Article 154

Explanation: Under Article 154, executive power of a State is vested in the Governor. Article 163 provides the ministerial advisory arrangement through which that formal power is ordinarily exercised in practice.

Q22. Which Governor actions may involve independent judgment:
(1) floor test,
(2) dismissal of ministry lacking majority,
(3) reservation of Bill,
(4) returning an eligible Bill,
(5) seeking High Court advisory opinion?

[UPPCS Mains 2006]

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(D) All five

Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: The first four situations can raise limited questions of constitutional discretion depending on the facts and governing law. A Governor, however, cannot refer abstract questions for a High Court advisory opinion as the President may under Article 143.

Q21. Which office continues subject to the President’s pleasure?

[MPPSC Prelims 2006]

(A) Governor

(B) Election Commissioner

(D) Lok Sabha Speaker

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Article 156(1) states that the Governor holds office during the President’s pleasure. Judges and constitutional electoral authorities enjoy different safeguards, while Speakers hold their office under legislative provisions.

Q20. A Money Bill can be introduced in a State Legislative Assembly with whose prior recommendation?

[RRB Supervisor/IESM Mumbai 2006]

(A) Governor

(B) President in every case

(D) Legislative Council Chairman

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Article 207 requires recommendation of the Governor for introduction of a State Money Bill. This recommendation fits the financial procedure and is ordinarily furnished on the elected government’s advice.

Q19. Which statement best describes a Governor’s constitutional status in a State?

[RRB Supervisor/IESM Mumbai 2006]

(A) Directly elected political executive

(B) Nominated constitutional head

(D) Chief of the State judiciary

Answer: (B) Nominated constitutional head

Explanation: A Governor is appointed by the President under Article 155 and serves as constitutional head of the State. The elected Chief Minister normally leads the government’s real policy and administrative decisions.

Q18. Which statement regarding a State Governor was identified as incorrect in the original exam?

[UPPCS Mains 2005]

(A) Governor is a component of State Legislature

(B) Governor may pardon a death sentence

(D) Governor has no power to proclaim National Emergency

Answer: (B) Governor may pardon a death sentence

Explanation: The conventional examination distinction treated the President’s Article 72 authority to pardon a death sentence as different from gubernatorial Article 161 clemency. Modern judicial interpretation of the scope of Article 161 is nuanced; this is the historical answer key.

Q17. Who was the first woman Governor of West Bengal?

[Chhattisgarh PSC Prelims 2005]

(A) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

(B) Padmaja Naidu

(D) Sheila Kaul

Answer: (B) Padmaja Naidu

Explanation: Padmaja Naidu, daughter of Sarojini Naidu, was the first woman Governor of West Bengal and served from 1956 to 1967. This historical question concerns a different State from her mother’s governorship.

Q16. Consider:
(1) Governor nominates one-sixth of a Legislative Council.
(2) Governor could nominate an Anglo-Indian Assembly member where representation was inadequate.

Which was correct at the exam date?

[UPSC CDS 2005]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: At the time of the 2005 paper, both provisions operated under Articles 171 and 333. The 104th Constitutional Amendment ended Anglo-Indian nomination to legislatures in 2020, so statement two is historical rather than current law.

Q15. Who appointed the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir before the State’s 2019 reorganisation?

[BPSC 47th Prelims (reported 2005)]

(A) Jammu and Kashmir Chief Minister

(B) High Court Chief Justice

(D) President of India

Answer: (D) President of India

Explanation: Before reorganisation in 2019, Jammu and Kashmir was a State whose Governor was appointed by the President. It is now a Union Territory with a Lieutenant Governor, so the wording is historical.

Q14. Which office is held at the pleasure of the President of India?

[UPPCS Mains 2004]

(A) Governor of a State

(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (A) Governor of a State

Explanation: Article 156 makes the Governor’s continuation subject to presidential pleasure, despite a normal five-year tenure. Other constitutional offices have distinct terms and removal protections, rather than identical pleasure tenure.

Q13. Which Article permits the Governor to reserve a State Bill for consideration of the President?

[UP Lower Subordinate Prelims 2004]

(A) Article 169

(B) Article 200

(D) Article 202

Answer: (B) Article 200

Explanation: Article 200 governs the Governor’s handling of State legislation, including reservation for the President. Article 201 then governs presidential action on a Bill referred through this process.

Q12. Which assertion about a State Governor is FALSE?

[UP Lower Subordinate Prelims 2004]

(A) Appointed by President

(B) May be Governor of more than one State

(D) May be removed by State Assembly resolution

Answer: (D) May be removed by State Assembly resolution

Explanation: Article 156 puts a Governor’s tenure at the pleasure of the President. A State Legislative Assembly has no constitutional procedure for removing the Governor by passing a resolution, unlike a government facing no confidence.

Q11. Who operates the State Contingency Fund under constitutional arrangements?

[UPPCS Special Prelims 2004]

(A) Governor

(B) State High Court

(D) President alone

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Article 267 permits a State Contingency Fund to be placed at the Governor’s disposal for urgent unforeseen expenditure until the legislature authorises funds. The Governor is the constitutional authority in this arrangement.

Q10. Assertion: A Governor can never be made subject to court proceedings for any act.
Reason: Governors hold office at the President’s pleasure.

Choose the correct option.

[UPPCS Special Mains 2004]

(A) Both true with correct explanation

(B) Both true but unrelated

(D) Assertion false, reason true

Answer: (D) Assertion false, reason true

Explanation: Constitutional immunity under Article 361 is substantial but not absolute for every conceivable act and circumstance. Article 156 does place the Governor in office during the President’s pleasure, making the reason correct.

Q9. Consider Governor:
(1) presidential appointee,
(2) serves at presidential pleasure,
(3) formal State executive head,
(4) normal five-year term.

Which are true?

[UPPCS Mains 2004]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) All four

Answer: (D) All four

Explanation: Articles 154, 155 and 156 establish these fundamental features. Though five years is the ordinary tenure, the Governor can be removed earlier or may continue until a successor enters office.

Q8. Who stays in office for as long as the President permits under the pleasure doctrine?

[MPPSC Prelims 2004]

(A) Governor

(B) High Court judge

(D) Legislative Assembly Speaker

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Governors serve during presidential pleasure by virtue of Article 156. The doctrine differs from the safeguards for judicial and election offices, which are constitutionally protected against ordinary discretionary removal.

Q7. Why was direct election of Governors rejected in framing the Indian Constitution? Consider election costs, rivalry with Chief Minister and parliamentary government.

[UPPCS Prelims 2003]

(A) Only election cost mattered

(B) Only party issues mattered

(D) It was prohibited by the British Crown

Answer: (C) Election cost, competing authority and parliamentary system mattered

Explanation: Direct election risked expensive duplication and competing claims of authority between Governor and elected Chief Minister. A nominated constitutional head was considered more compatible with the responsible parliamentary ministry.

Q6. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State after independence?

[Chhattisgarh PSC Prelims 2003]

(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

(B) Padmaja Naidu

(D) Sarla Grewal

Answer: (C) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu assumed the governorship of the United Provinces in August 1947. Padmaja Naidu later held the governorship of West Bengal; the dates distinguish these two prominent figures.

Q5. From which fund is the Governor’s salary charged?

[Jharkhand PCS Prelims 2003]

(A) Consolidated Fund of the State

(B) Consolidated Fund of India

(D) Both State and Union Consolidated Funds

Answer: (A) Consolidated Fund of the State

Explanation: The Governor’s emoluments are charged expenditure on the State Consolidated Fund under the constitutional financial framework. Charged expenditure is not voted annually like ordinary grants, preserving the office’s financial security.

Q4. Which Governor of Rajasthan was removed from office during the Janata Party period in 1977?

[UPPCS Mains 2003]

(A) Dr Sampurnanand

(B) Raghukul Tilak

(D) Bali Ram Bhagat

Answer: (B) Raghukul Tilak

Explanation: Raghukul Tilak held the governorship of Rajasthan before being removed in 1977 following a change at the Union level. Governor removal relates to presidential pleasure under Article 156, not State Assembly impeachment.

Q3. Why was the elected-Governor proposal discarded by the Constituent Assembly?
(1) Extra election.
(2) Partisan election issues.
(3) Possible rivalry with Chief Minister.
(4) Parliamentary system.

[UP Urban Development Authority/LDA Prelims 2002]

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: Constitution framers favoured nomination to avoid another election, competing political legitimacy and friction with parliamentary responsible government. The Governor was designed as constitutional head, while the elected ministry holds political confidence.

Q2. National Women’s Day on 13 February commemorates the birth of which first woman State Governor?

[UPPCS Prelims 2002]

(A) Indira Gandhi

(B) Kamala Nehru

(D) Rani Lakshmibai

Answer: (C) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation: India marks Sarojini Naidu’s birth anniversary on 13 February as National Women’s Day. She became the first woman Governor of an Indian State after independence, serving in the United Provinces.

Q1. Who heads the State Executive in the constitutional sense?

[BPSC 45th Combined Prelims 2002]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Governor

(D) High Court Chief Justice

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: The Governor is constitutionally designated as the State’s executive head under Article 154. In the parliamentary system, effective governance is normally exercised through the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers.

Parliament

Chief Minister

Related posts

Awards and Trophies

Sports

Indian Security System