Q150. For parliamentary starred and unstarred questions, consider:
1. Unstarred questions require oral replies.
2. Starred questions require written replies.
3. Supplementary questions cannot be asked on unstarred questions.
How many statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2026)]
(A) All three
(B) Two, including statement 2
(C) Only one
(D) None
Answer: (C) Only one
Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. Starred questions receive oral answers and permit supplementary questions; unstarred questions receive written answers and do not permit supplementaries. The first two statements deliberately interchange these two types of parliamentary questions.
Q149. About the Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, consider:
1. Rajya Sabha Chairman appoints its chairperson.
2. Rajya Sabha elects 20 members, Lok Sabha 10.
3. One Union Minister may join.
4. Members serve two years.
How many statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2026)]
(A) Four
(B) Only statement 2
(C) Two, including statement 1
(D) None
Answer: (D) None
Explanation: None is correct. The Committee has 20 Lok Sabha and 10 Rajya Sabha members; its chairperson is appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker. Ministers cannot join it. Members are elected for a term not exceeding one year.
Q148. How many Lok Sabha seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes?
[SSC MTS 2025 (9 February 2026)]
(A) 84
(B) 54
(C) 56
(D) 92
Answer: (A) 84
Explanation: Eighty-four Lok Sabha constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Castes under the delimitation arrangement currently in force. These reservations provide representation for Scheduled Castes in the directly elected House. Scheduled Tribe reserved constituencies form a separate category.
Q147. What is the objective of a cut motion in the Lok Sabha?
[SSC MTS 2025 (10 February 2026)]
(A) To reduce a demand for grants
(B) To remove a judge
(C) To amend the Constitution
(D) To dissolve the Lok Sabha
Answer: (A) To reduce a demand for grants
Explanation: A cut motion is moved during the discussion of demands for grants. It seeks a reduction in the amount demanded by a ministry, allowing MPs to register a policy objection, recommend economy, or ventilate a specific grievance.
Q146. Under which Article may Parliament legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency?
[SSC MTS 2025 (10 February 2026)]
(A) Article 282
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 173
Answer: (B) Article 250
Explanation: Article 250 enables Parliament to legislate on State List matters while a National Emergency operates. Such legislation generally ceases to have effect six months after the Emergency ends, except for things previously done or omitted under that law.
Q145. Which Article deals with the introduction and passing of Bills in Parliament?
[SSC MTS 2025 (9 February 2026)]
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 105
(C) Article 107
(D) Article 103
Answer: (C) Article 107
Explanation: Article 107 contains constitutional rules for the introduction and passage of ordinary Bills in Parliament. It also deals with the effect of prorogation and dissolution on pending Bills, subject to special provisions applying to other categories of legislation.
Q144. Consider:
I. The Lok Sabha Speaker continues until immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected House.
II. The Constitution requires the Speaker to resign from the political party.
III. Removal requires a majority of all then members and 14 days’ notice.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2025)]
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III
Answer: (C) I and III
Explanation: Statements I and III are correct under Article 94. The Speaker holds office across dissolution until the new House first meets and can be removed through a prescribed majority after fourteen days’ notice. Party resignation is not constitutionally mandatory.
Q143. Consider:
I. A presidential ordinance can amend a Central Act.
II. An ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An ordinance can operate retrospectively.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2025)]
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III
Answer: (C) I and III
Explanation: An ordinance has legislative force and can amend ordinary Central legislation, including with retrospective effect when permissible. It remains subject to the Constitution, however, and cannot violate or abridge Fundamental Rights. Thus statements I and III alone are correct.
Q142. Consider:
I. Disqualification of a Lok Sabha member under the Tenth Schedule is finally decided by the President on ministerial advice.
II. The phrase “political party” does not appear in the Constitution.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2025)]
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (D) Neither
Explanation: Neither statement is correct. Tenth Schedule defection cases are decided by the Speaker of the House, subject to judicial review. The Constitution expressly mentions political parties, including in the Tenth Schedule dealing with disqualification for defection.
Q141. What is the minimum age required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha?
[SSC CHSL (15 November 2025, Shift 2)]
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 21 years
Answer: (B) 30 years
Explanation: Article 84 prescribes a minimum age of thirty years for membership of the Council of States, or Rajya Sabha. The corresponding minimum for Lok Sabha is twenty-five years. Other citizenship and legal qualifications also apply.
Q140. What is the term of an elected member of the Rajya Sabha?
[SSC CHSL (24 November 2025, Shift 3)]
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Until the House is dissolved
Answer: (C) Six years
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber and is not dissolved. Each elected member normally holds office for six years, while about one-third of members retire every two years. This arrangement provides continuity in parliamentary deliberations.
Q139. Which feature of the Indian Constitution was NOT borrowed from Australia?
[SSC CHSL (18 November 2025, Shift 2)]
(A) Concurrent List
(B) Joint sitting of both Houses
(C) Freedom of trade and commerce
(D) Method of electing Rajya Sabha members
Answer: (D) Method of electing Rajya Sabha members
Explanation: The Concurrent List, freedom of trade and commerce, and joint sitting procedure are associated with Australian constitutional influence. The method of electing members to Rajya Sabha through proportional representation is associated with South African influence.
Q138. What is the first hour of a normal Lok Sabha sitting generally known as?
[SSC CHSL (24 November 2025, Shift 2)]
(A) Public Hour
(B) Privilege Hour
(C) Question Hour
(D) Zero Hour
Answer: (C) Question Hour
Explanation: Question Hour ordinarily occupies the first hour of a sitting of Lok Sabha, under the applicable timetable. During this period members seek information from ministers and hold the executive accountable. Zero Hour is a separate, convention-based device.
Q137. How many members can the President nominate to the Rajya Sabha?
[SSC CHSL (20 November 2025, Shift 3)]
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 15
Answer: (C) 12
Explanation: Article 80 authorises the President to nominate twelve Rajya Sabha members from persons possessing special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art or social service. The other members represent States and eligible Union Territories.
Q136. Who was appointed Chairperson of the Estimates Committee of Parliament in July 2025?
[SSC CHSL (27 November 2025, Shift 1)]
(A) Rajiv Ranjan Singh
(B) Sanjay Jaiswal
(C) Nishikant Dubey
(D) Om Birla
Answer: (B) Sanjay Jaiswal
Explanation: Sanjay Jaiswal was named chairperson of the Lok Sabha Estimates Committee in July 2025. The committee examines budget estimates and suggests economy, administrative improvement and efficiency. It has thirty Lok Sabha members and no Rajya Sabha members.
Q135. How may Parliament acquire power to legislate on a State List item in the national interest?
[SSC CHSL (17 November 2025)]
(A) Through a presidential ordinance alone
(B) By a Rajya Sabha resolution supported by two-thirds of members present and voting
(C) By Lok Sabha simple majority alone
(D) By a Rajya Sabha simple-majority resolution
Answer: (B) By a Rajya Sabha resolution supported by two-thirds of members present and voting
Explanation: Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on a State List matter if Rajya Sabha passes a national-interest resolution by two-thirds of members present and voting. The resolution remains operative for up to one year and may be renewed.
Q134. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers?
[SSC CHSL (13 November 2025)]
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) President of India
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (C) President of India
Explanation: Under Article 85, the President has power to dissolve the Lok Sabha, ordinarily acting on the Council of Ministers’ advice. Dissolution ends the life of that House and leads to a fresh general election.
Q133. What is the constitutional procedure for removing the Vice-President of India?
[SSC CHSL (13 November 2025)]
(A) President acting alone
(B) Resolution of Rajya Sabha agreed to by Lok Sabha
(C) Resolution passed by any one-third of members
(D) President on Prime Minister’s advice
Answer: (B) Resolution of Rajya Sabha agreed to by Lok Sabha
Explanation: Article 67(b) requires a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of Rajya Sabha and agreed to by Lok Sabha. At least fourteen days’ notice is required before the resolution is moved.
Q132. Which constitutional amendment limited the size of the Union Council of Ministers to 15% of Lok Sabha strength?
[SSC CHSL (17 November 2025)]
(A) 73rd Amendment
(B) 86th Amendment
(C) 91st Amendment
(D) 101st Amendment
Answer: (C) 91st Amendment
Explanation: The Ninety-first Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 75(1A), restricting the total number of ministers including the Prime Minister to fifteen percent of the total Lok Sabha membership. It also strengthened certain anti-defection-related safeguards.
Q131. Which qualification is required to be elected Vice-President of India?
[SSC CHSL (20 November 2025)]
(A) At least 25 years only
(B) At least 35 years and qualified for Rajya Sabha election
(C) Must be a sitting Lok Sabha member
(D) Must be a sitting Rajya Sabha member
Answer: (B) At least 35 years and qualified for Rajya Sabha election
Explanation: Article 66 requires the Vice-President to be an Indian citizen aged at least thirty-five and qualified for election as a Rajya Sabha member. A sitting member must vacate the parliamentary seat upon assuming the vice-presidency.
Q130. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age in parliamentary elections from 21 to 18?
[SSC CHSL (24 November 2025)]
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 61st
(D) 69th
Answer: (C) 61st
Explanation: The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 changed Article 326 to lower the voting age from twenty-one to eighteen years. It enlarged the electorate for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly elections.
Q129. Which Article grants Rajya Sabha the special power to enable creation of an All India Service?
[SSC CGL (13 September 2025)]
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 108
Answer: (B) Article 312
Explanation: Article 312 permits Parliament to create new All India Services when Rajya Sabha declares by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting that doing so is necessary or expedient in the national interest.
Q128. Consider:
1. A Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249 may operate for one year.
2. Only Rajya Sabha’s concurrence can extend President’s Rule.
Which is correct?
[SSC CGL (24 September 2025)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: An Article 249 resolution lasts up to one year and may be renewed. Extension of President’s Rule under Article 356 requires parliamentary approval through the constitutionally prescribed process; it is not an exclusive Rajya Sabha power.
Q127. Consider:
1. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved.
2. About one-third of its elected members retire every two years.
Which is correct?
[SSC CGL (19 September 2025)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (C) Both
Explanation: Both statements describe the Council of States. Rajya Sabha is a permanent House, with staggered six-year terms for members and approximately one-third retiring every second year. This prevents a complete simultaneous turnover of membership.
Q126. Choose the correct sequence for passage of a Money Bill:
A. Introduction in Lok Sabha;
B. Passage there;
C. Transmission to Rajya Sabha;
D. Presidential assent.
[SSC CGL (13 September 2025)]
(A) B–A–C–D
(B) A–B–C–D
(C) A–C–B–D
(D) C–A–B–D
Answer: (B) A–B–C–D
Explanation: A Money Bill originates in Lok Sabha, must be passed by it, then goes to Rajya Sabha for recommendations within fourteen days. After the constitutional process is completed, it is presented for presidential assent.
Q125. Which one of these statements about the Parliament of India is correct?
[UPSC NDA I (2025)]
(A) Most Rajya Sabha members are elected through proportional representation by single transferable vote
(B) President nominates the Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman
(C) Lok Sabha cannot dissolve before five years
(D) Lok Sabha MPs elect Rajya Sabha members
Answer: (A) Most Rajya Sabha members are elected through proportional representation by single transferable vote
Explanation: The elected members of Rajya Sabha are chosen by elected members of State Assemblies using proportional representation with the single transferable vote. The Deputy Chairman is elected by Rajya Sabha members; Lok Sabha can be dissolved early.
Q124. Consider:
1. A Bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses when that House dissolves.
2. A Bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha also lapses.
3. A Bill for which joint sitting has been notified lapses.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2024)]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All three
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Article 107 provides that pending Lok Sabha Bills and Bills passed by Lok Sabha but awaiting Rajya Sabha lapse upon dissolution. However, a Bill for which the President has already notified an intention for joint sitting does not lapse.
Q123. Regarding the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee, consider:
1. It was initially an ad hoc committee.
2. Only MPs can complain about an MP.
3. It does not consider matters that are sub judice.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2024)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C) 1 and 3
Explanation: The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee began as an ad hoc committee, and matters pending before courts are excluded from its consideration. A complaint may originate from a non-member through the prescribed parliamentary process, making statement 2 incorrect.
Q122. Consider:
1. The Finance Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before Parliament on behalf of the Prime Minister.
2. A demand for grant requires presidential recommendation.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2024)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: Under Article 112, the President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before both Houses. Article 113 requires the President’s recommendation before a demand for grant is made. The first statement wrongly invokes the Prime Minister.
Q121. For Money Bills, consider:
1. Article 109 contains special procedure.
2. Introduction in Rajya Sabha is prohibited.
3. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations but not reject the Bill.
4. Lok Sabha must accept Rajya Sabha recommendations.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2024)]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All four
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Articles 109–110 govern Money Bills. Such a Bill originates in Lok Sabha; Rajya Sabha may only recommend changes within fourteen days. Lok Sabha may accept or reject any recommendations. Therefore statement 4 is incorrect.
Q120. Consider:
1. The President needs no ministerial advice to prorogue Parliament.
2. A House can be prorogued while sitting.
3. The President normally dissolves Lok Sabha on ministerial advice.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2024)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only
Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation: Prorogation and dissolution are presidential functions normally exercised on ministerial advice. Prorogation commonly follows adjournment sine die but need not do so. The Lok Sabha is ordinarily dissolved by the President acting on Cabinet advice.
Q119. Which group of Articles primarily deals with the Parliament of India?
[SSC CGL (24 September 2024)]
(A) Articles 52–78
(B) Articles 79–122
(C) Articles 124–147
(D) Articles 148–151
Answer: (B) Articles 79–122
Explanation: Part V, Chapter II of the Constitution, Articles 79 to 122, sets out Parliament’s composition, officers, procedures, powers and privileges. Different constitutional chapters cover the Union Executive, Supreme Court and Comptroller and Auditor General.
Q118. Which financial parliamentary committee does NOT include any Rajya Sabha members:
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings?
[UPSC NDA II (2024)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only
Answer: (C) 2 only
Explanation: Only the Estimates Committee is composed solely of Lok Sabha members, numbering thirty. The Public Accounts Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings each include members from both Houses, allowing the Upper House to contribute to financial oversight.
Q117. India follows which form of government at the Union level?
[SSC MTS (9 October 2024)]
(A) Presidential
(B) Parliamentary
(C) Military
(D) Directorial
Answer: (B) Parliamentary
Explanation: India adopts a parliamentary system where the executive is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The President is constitutional head of state, while the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers exercise executive functions under constitutional arrangements.
Q116. India borrowed the parliamentary form of government mainly from which country?
[SSC MTS (9 October 2024)]
(A) United States
(B) United Kingdom
(C) Switzerland
(D) Japan
Answer: (B) United Kingdom
Explanation: India’s parliamentary system reflects the Westminster model developed in Britain. Cabinet responsibility to the elected chamber, the Prime Minister’s leadership and a nominal head of state are major features, adapted to a written republican Constitution.
Q115. Which Article specifies the qualifications for membership of Parliament?
[SSC MTS (17 October 2024)]
(A) Article 80
(B) Article 84
(C) Article 100
(D) Article 108
Answer: (B) Article 84
Explanation: Article 84 requires citizenship, an oath or affirmation and minimum ages of thirty for Rajya Sabha and twenty-five for Lok Sabha, along with additional qualifications laid down by parliamentary law.
Q114. Which House of Parliament is called the Council of States?
[SSC MTS (17 October 2024)]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislative Council
(D) Constituent Assembly
Answer: (B) Rajya Sabha
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is constitutionally designated the Council of States. Its members are largely elected indirectly by elected members of State Legislative Assemblies, using proportional representation by the single transferable vote, while twelve members are nominated.
Q113. Which Articles chiefly establish parliamentary government at the Union level by providing for ministerial advice and collective responsibility?
[SSC MTS (7 October 2024)]
(A) Articles 74 and 75
(B) Articles 32 and 226
(C) Articles 123 and 213
(D) Articles 148 and 149
Answer: (A) Articles 74 and 75
Explanation: Article 74 establishes the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President, and Article 75 makes it collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. Together these provisions are essential to the Indian parliamentary executive.
Q112. Under Article 368, which changes to the Constitution may Parliament make by amendment: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2024)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Article 368 explicitly empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by addition, variation or repeal, following the prescribed procedure. The power remains subject to the Supreme Court’s basic structure doctrine, protecting essential constitutional features.
Q111. Who determines the salaries and allowances of Members of Parliament?
[WBCS Mains (2023)]
(A) Union Cabinet
(B) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(C) Cabinet Secretariat
(D) Parliament by law
Answer: (D) Parliament by law
Explanation: Article 106 authorises Parliament to determine MPs’ salaries and allowances by law. Parliamentary members do not constitutionally receive salaries merely on executive direction; statutory arrangements govern their remuneration and associated entitlements.
Q110. Expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India requires whose authorisation?
[WBCS Prelims (2023)]
(A) Only the Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Only the Finance Minister
Answer: (B) Parliament
Explanation: Withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund ordinarily require appropriation authorised by Parliament. This constitutional financial control ensures that executive expenditure has legislative sanction, as reflected in the budget, demands for grants and Appropriation Act.
Q109. After a Bill has been passed by Parliament and has received the President’s assent, what does it become?
[WBCS Mains (2023)]
(A) A resolution
(B) An Act
(C) An ordinance
(D) A parliamentary question
Answer: (B) An Act
Explanation: A Bill passed through the required legislative stages becomes an Act once the President gives assent. Article 111 governs presidential assent to parliamentary Bills, with special considerations for reconsideration of ordinary legislation.
Q108. During President’s Rule in a State, who can exercise the State Legislature’s legislative powers?
[WBCS Mains (2023)]
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) Governor alone in every case
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (B) Parliament
Explanation: Under Article 356, the proclamation may declare that State Legislature powers are exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. Parliament can confer associated legislative powers under Article 357, subject to constitutional limits.
Q107. Which statement regarding the Rajya Sabha is INCORRECT?
[RAS Prelims (2023)]
(A) Dr S. Radhakrishnan was the only Chairman who served two terms
(B) Representatives of some Union Territories sit in Rajya Sabha
(C) The first Constitutional Amendment did not require State ratification
(D) Parliament has held three joint sittings for Bills
Answer: (A) Dr S. Radhakrishnan was the only Chairman who served two terms
Explanation: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan served two vice-presidential terms and chaired Rajya Sabha, but he was not the only person to chair across two terms. The other statements reflect arrangements for nominated or indirectly elected representation and parliamentary procedure.
Q106. Where was the ninth India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association held in 2023?
[RAS Prelims (2023)]
(A) Bhopal
(B) Udaipur
(C) Jaipur
(D) New Delhi
Answer: (B) Udaipur
Explanation: Udaipur in Rajasthan hosted the ninth India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association in 2023. Such conferences facilitate dialogue among legislators and presiding officers about effective legislatures, accountability and democratic institutions.
Q105. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
[SSC MTS (11 September 2023)]
(A) M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) Hukam Singh
(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
Answer: (B) G. V. Mavalankar
Explanation: Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar became the first Speaker of independent India’s Lok Sabha in 1952, having previously presided over the Constituent Assembly’s legislative wing and the Provisional Parliament. He helped develop early parliamentary practices.
Q104. When was India’s first Lok Sabha general election held?
[SSC MTS (11 September 2023)]
(A) 1947–48
(B) 1949–50
(C) 1951–52
(D) 1955–56
Answer: (C) 1951–52
Explanation: The first general election for the Lok Sabha took place during 1951–52, based on adult franchise under the Constitution. It established democratic representation for the newly constituted House and led to the first elected national government.
Q103. On which date did the first Lok Sabha hold its first sitting?
[SSC CGL (20 July 2023)]
(A) 26 January 1950
(B) 13 May 1952
(C) 15 August 1947
(D) 2 October 1952
Answer: (B) 13 May 1952
Explanation: The first Lok Sabha held its inaugural sitting on 13 May 1952, following India’s first general elections. The First Lok Sabha continued until 1957 and set several foundational parliamentary conventions.
Q102. Which body conducts elections to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
[SSC MTS (4 September 2023)]
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) UPSC
(D) Law Commission
Answer: (B) Election Commission of India
Explanation: The Election Commission of India supervises parliamentary elections under Article 324. Lok Sabha members are directly elected, while elected Rajya Sabha members are chosen indirectly by eligible members of State Legislative Assemblies.
Q101. What maximum membership does the Constitution permit in the Lok Sabha as of June 2023?
[SSC MTS (12 September 2023)]
(A) 546
(B) 550
(C) 545
(D) 543
Answer: (B) 550
Explanation: After expiry of the special Anglo-Indian nomination provision, the constitutional maximum for Lok Sabha is 550: up to 530 elected representatives of States and twenty of Union Territories. The existing number of elected territorial constituencies is 543.
Q100. Concerning financial committees, consider:
A. Ministers cannot sit on the Public Accounts Committee.
B. Estimates Committee members are nominated by the Speaker.
C. Ministers can sit on Estimates Committee.
D. COPU members hold two-year terms.
Which is correct?
[SSC CGL (21 July 2023)]
(A) A only
(B) A and B
(C) B and C
(D) C and D
Answer: (A) A only
Explanation: Only A is correct. Ministers cannot serve on the Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee or Committee on Public Undertakings. Estimates members are elected by Lok Sabha, not nominated, and the Committee on Public Undertakings has annual membership.
Q99. Which Article says Parliament consists of the President and two Houses?
[SSC CGL (17 July 2023)]
(A) Article 75
(B) Article 79
(C) Article 110
(D) Article 123
Answer: (B) Article 79
Explanation: Article 79 establishes the Union Parliament comprising the President, Council of States and House of the People. Although the President does not sit in either House, presidential assent and other constitutional functions form part of parliamentary lawmaking.
Q98. Consider:
A. An Appropriation Bill authorises withdrawal from Consolidated Fund.
B. Demands for Grants cover only planned expenditure.
C. Short Duration Discussion requires support of fifty members.
Which statements are correct?
[SSC CGL (18 July 2023)]
(A) A only
(B) A and B
(C) B and C
(D) All three
Answer: (A) A only
Explanation: An Appropriation Act authorises withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund, so A is correct. The obsolete planned/non-planned distinction does not define all grants, and fifty members’ support is associated with another parliamentary device, not Short Duration Discussion.
Q97. Who was Speaker of the Lok Sabha in November 2022?
[SSC MTS 2022 (18 May 2023)]
(A) Om Birla
(B) Sumitra Mahajan
(C) Meira Kumar
(D) Manohar Joshi
Answer: (A) Om Birla
Explanation: Om Birla became Speaker of the Seventeenth Lok Sabha in June 2019 and held the post in November 2022. The Speaker presides over sittings, maintains order and certifies Money Bills under the Constitution.
Q96. Who normally presides over a sitting of the Lok Sabha?
[SSC MTS 2022 (9 May 2023)]
(A) Vice-President
(B) Lok Sabha Speaker
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B) Lok Sabha Speaker
Explanation: The Speaker is the presiding officer of Lok Sabha, elected by members under Article 93. The Deputy Speaker presides when required. The Speaker manages proceedings, interprets House rules and maintains order during debate.
Q95. What is the normal term of the Lok Sabha?
[SSC MTS 2022 (8 May 2023)]
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Answer: (B) Five years
Explanation: Article 83(2) provides that Lok Sabha normally continues for five years from its first meeting unless dissolved earlier. Its term may be extended by law during a National Emergency within constitutional limits.
Q94. Who presents the annual Union Budget in the Lok Sabha?
[SSC MTS 2022 (20 June 2023)]
(A) President
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Speaker
(D) Chief Justice
Answer: (B) Finance Minister
Explanation: The Union Finance Minister traditionally presents the Union Budget in Lok Sabha. The Annual Financial Statement is laid under Article 112, followed by parliamentary scrutiny, demands for grants and necessary legislation authorising taxation and expenditure.
Q93. Which group is NOT part of the electoral college for electing the President of India?
[SSC MTS 2022 (8 May 2023)]
(A) Elected MPs
(B) Elected MLAs of States
(C) Elected MLAs of Delhi and Puducherry
(D) Members of State Legislative Councils
Answer: (D) Members of State Legislative Councils
Explanation: The presidential electoral college includes elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States, Delhi and Puducherry. Members of Legislative Councils and nominated legislators do not participate in that election.
Q92. India’s bicameral parliamentary system was chiefly adopted from which country?
[SSC CHSL 2022 (26 June 2023)]
(A) United Kingdom
(B) China
(C) Switzerland
(D) France
Answer: (A) United Kingdom
Explanation: India drew extensively on British parliamentary practices, including bicameral legislative arrangements and ministerial responsibility. Its Council of States and House of the People operate, however, under a written Constitution rather than parliamentary sovereignty.
Q91. Consider:
1. If a presidential election is declared void, prior official acts become invalid.
2. Election can be postponed merely because some State Assemblies are dissolved.
3. The Constitution fixes a time limit for presidential assent to a Bill.
How many are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2023)]
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: (A) None
Explanation: All three are incorrect. Acts done by a President before an election is declared void remain valid. Vacancies in certain State Assemblies do not prevent a presidential election, and the Constitution fixes no general deadline for assenting to Bills.
Q90. Consider:
1. Rajya Sabha may amend or reject a Finance Bill sent by Lok Sabha.
2. Rajya Sabha may only recommend changes to a Money Bill.
3. A disagreement on any Finance Bill necessarily requires a joint sitting.
How many are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2023)]
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: (C) Two
Explanation: The distinction is between Money Bills and Financial Bills that are not Money Bills. Rajya Sabha can amend or reject appropriate Financial Bills and only recommend changes to Money Bills. Joint sitting is possible for eligible Bills, not invariably required.
Q89. Which is an exclusive power of Lok Sabha:
1. Ratifying a National Emergency;
2. Passing a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers;
3. Impeaching the President?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2022)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: Only Lok Sabha can decide a no-confidence motion against the Union Council of Ministers, because the ministry is collectively responsible to it. Approval of Emergency proclamations and presidential impeachment involve both Houses as constitutionally specified.
Q88. Regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider:
1. The Speaker fixes the date of election.
2. Election from a ruling or principal opposition party is mandatory.
3. While presiding, Deputy Speaker has the Speaker’s powers and rulings are final.
4. The Speaker moves the nomination, seconded by Prime Minister.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2022)]
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The Speaker fixes the date for election of Deputy Speaker, who has equivalent authority when presiding. The Constitution does not reserve candidates by party, and the nomination motion is not required to be proposed by Speaker and Prime Minister.
Q87. Which statement about the Lok Sabha Speaker is INCORRECT?
[UPSC CDS I (10 April 2022)]
(A) Speaker may resign to the President of India
(B) Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha
(C) Speaker presides over Lok Sabha sittings
(D) Speaker can have a casting vote in a tie
Answer: (A) Speaker may resign to the President of India
Explanation: The Lok Sabha Speaker submits resignation to the Deputy Speaker, not the President. Article 94 sets out vacation, resignation and removal. The Speaker ordinarily votes only to break a tie, protecting the neutrality of the Chair.
Q86. How many parliamentary constituencies were there for the Lok Sabha as of 2022?
[SSC CGL (9 December 2022)]
(A) 540
(B) 542
(C) 543
(D) 545
Answer: (C) 543
Explanation: India had 543 directly elected Lok Sabha constituencies in 2022. Constituency boundaries and the allocation of reserved seats follow statutory delimitation arrangements. This number differs from the constitutional maximum permitted for elected membership.
Q85. What fraction of the total membership constitutes the quorum of either House of Parliament?
[SSC CGL (7 December 2022)]
(A) One-fifth
(B) One-tenth
(C) One-third
(D) One-half
Answer: (B) One-tenth
Explanation: Article 100(3) sets the quorum for a sitting of either House at one-tenth of total membership. If the required quorum is absent, the presiding officer must adjourn the House or suspend its meeting.
Q84. When did the Lok Sabha pass the Appropriation Bill, 2022?
[SSC CGL (2 December 2022)]
(A) 24 March 2022
(B) 1 February 2022
(C) 15 August 2022
(D) 26 January 2022
Answer: (A) 24 March 2022
Explanation: The Appropriation Bill, 2022 was passed by Lok Sabha on 24 March 2022. Such legislation authorises withdrawal of approved sums from the Consolidated Fund for government expenditure, following the parliamentary budget and grants process.
Q83. In which year was the Indian Parliamentary Group established?
[SSC CGL (5 December 2022)]
(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1952
(D) 1965
Answer: (B) 1949
Explanation: The Indian Parliamentary Group was founded in 1949 as an autonomous body of parliamentarians. It facilitates exchanges and cooperation with other legislatures and serves as the Indian branch of inter-parliamentary parliamentary associations.
Q82. The general election to Lok Sabha held in 2019 constituted which Lok Sabha?
[UPSC NDA I (10 April 2022)]
(A) 14th Lok Sabha
(B) 15th Lok Sabha
(C) 16th Lok Sabha
(D) 17th Lok Sabha
Answer: (D) 17th Lok Sabha
Explanation: The 2019 general election elected the Seventeenth Lok Sabha. Its first meeting was held in June 2019 following the completion of elections. Lok Sabha’s ordinal number reflects the successive national Houses constituted after Independence.
Q81. The Parliament of India is primarily based on the model of which legislature?
[UPSC NDA I (10 April 2022)]
(A) German Parliament
(B) British Parliament
(C) American Congress
(D) French Parliament
Answer: (B) British Parliament
Explanation: India adapted the Westminster parliamentary model of Britain, including the Prime Minister-led executive, collective ministerial responsibility and a presiding Speaker. These institutions operate within India’s written Constitution and are subject to judicial review.
Q80. Which Article lays down the procedure for amending the Constitution?
[RRB Group D (26 September 2022)]
(A) Article 324
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 148
(D) Article 110
Answer: (B) Article 368
Explanation: Article 368 prescribes the procedure for constitutional amendments. Depending on the subject, a special parliamentary majority and sometimes ratification by at least half the States are required; the basic structure doctrine also limits amendments.
Q79. Who held the Union Parliamentary Affairs portfolio in March 2022?
[RRB Group D (12 September 2022)]
(A) Arjun Ram Meghwal
(B) Pralhad Joshi
(C) Kiren Rijiju
(D) Nitin Gadkari
Answer: (B) Pralhad Joshi
Explanation: Pralhad Joshi served as Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs in March 2022. This ministry helps coordinate government business between the Cabinet and both Houses, including scheduling parliamentary work and liaison concerning legislative priorities.
Q78. Which Union Ministry introduced the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Bill, 2022?
[RRB Group D (6 September 2022)]
(A) Home Affairs
(B) Finance
(C) Law and Justice
(D) Defence
Answer: (A) Home Affairs
Explanation: The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Bill, 2022 was introduced through the Ministry of Home Affairs. It sought to provide a legislative framework for taking and preserving specified measurements to assist criminal investigation and identification.
Q77. Regarding membership of the Indian Parliamentary Group, consider:
I. Only serving Lok Sabha MPs can join.
II. Former MPs can become members.
III. Certain parliamentary presiding officers hold ex officio membership.
Which are correct?
[CGPSC State Service Prelims (13 February 2022)]
(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) All three
Answer: (C) II and III
Explanation: The Indian Parliamentary Group includes eligible current and former Members of Parliament and designated ex officio parliamentary office-holders. Its activities promote parliamentary dialogue and international legislative cooperation rather than restricting membership solely to current Lok Sabha representatives.
Q76. Indian parliamentary democracy differs from Britain because:
1. British Parliament is sovereign whereas Indian Parliament has constitutional limits.
2. Constitutional-amendment validity issues may be referred to a Supreme Court Constitution Bench.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2021)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (C) Both
Explanation: Unlike the British legislature, India’s Parliament is constrained by a written Constitution and judicially enforceable limits. Constitutional interpretation involving substantial questions of law can be heard by Supreme Court benches of the required constitutional strength.
Q75. The construction of the new Parliament building formed part of which redevelopment project?
[RRB NTPC (31 July 2021)]
(A) Central Vista
(B) Golden Quadrilateral
(C) Bharatmala
(D) Sagarmala
Answer: (A) Central Vista
Explanation: The new Parliament building was developed under the Central Vista redevelopment project in New Delhi. Its objective included updated legislative facilities and expanded chamber capacity, reflecting the evolving operational requirements of India’s Parliament.
Q74. When may Parliament legislate on a State List matter in the national interest?
[RRB NTPC (24 July 2021)]
(A) Following a two-thirds Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249
(B) After a Supreme Court direction
(C) At the Speaker’s discretion
(D) By approval of every District Collector
Answer: (A) Following a two-thirds Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249
Explanation: Article 249 allows Parliament to make laws on State List subjects where Rajya Sabha adopts a national-interest resolution by at least two-thirds of members present and voting. The power is temporary and governed by constitutional safeguards.
Q73. Which is the Upper House of the Indian Parliament?
[RRB NTPC (8 February 2021)]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislative Assembly
(D) Gram Sabha
Answer: (B) Rajya Sabha
Explanation: Rajya Sabha, or the Council of States, is India’s Upper House. Unlike Lok Sabha, it is a continuing body. Most members are indirectly elected, with periodic retirement, and twelve distinguished individuals may be nominated.
Q72. Which constitutional Article empowers Parliament to form new States or change existing States’ names and boundaries?
[RRB NTPC (7 April 2021)]
(A) Article 3
(B) Article 110
(C) Article 123
(D) Article 280
Answer: (A) Article 3
Explanation: Article 3 authorises Parliament by law to form new States and alter the area, boundaries or names of existing States. The Bill requires presidential recommendation and the affected State Legislature is given an opportunity to express its views.
Q71. Which body is NOT part of the Indian Parliament?
[RRB NTPC (31 January 2021)]
(A) President
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) State Legislative Council
Answer: (D) State Legislative Council
Explanation: Parliament comprises the President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha under Article 79. Legislative Councils are components of bicameral State Legislatures where they exist, not institutions of the Union Parliament.
Q70. Which Article empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session?
[RRB NTPC (15 March 2021)]
(A) Article 111
(B) Article 123
(C) Article 124
(D) Article 368
Answer: (B) Article 123
Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when immediate action is needed and the Houses are not both in session. An ordinance has the force of an Act but must meet parliamentary approval requirements.
Q69. India’s indirect method for electing Rajya Sabha members through proportional representation was influenced by which Constitution?
[RRB NTPC (22 February 2021)]
(A) South African
(B) French
(C) Japanese
(D) Russian
Answer: (A) South African
Explanation: The method of election of Rajya Sabha members, using proportional representation by the single transferable vote, is conventionally traced to South Africa. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies normally choose the State’s Rajya Sabha representatives.
Q68. To which House is the Union Council of Ministers collectively responsible?
[RRB NTPC (1 April 2021)]
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Both Houses equally
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B) Lok Sabha
Explanation: Article 75(3) makes the Union Council of Ministers collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. A successful no-confidence motion in that House obliges the ministry to resign; a corresponding Rajya Sabha motion cannot achieve that result.
Q67. Which Schedule of the Constitution allocates seats to States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha?
[RRB NTPC (7 March 2021)]
(A) Second
(B) Third
(C) Fourth
(D) Fifth
Answer: (C) Fourth
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule contains the allocation of Rajya Sabha seats among States and relevant Union Territories. Distribution depends on constitutional and statutory arrangements; the number of seats is not necessarily equal for every State.
Q66. Who was the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
[RRB NTPC (7 January 2021)]
(A) Zakir Husain
(B) S. Radhakrishnan
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) B. D. Jatti
Answer: (B) S. Radhakrishnan
Explanation: Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, India’s first Vice-President, was the first ex officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha in 1952. Under Article 64, the Vice-President serves as Chairman of the Council of States.
Q65. How many Lok Sabha constituencies are allotted to Gujarat?
[SSC CHSL 2020 (16 April 2021)]
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 28
Answer: (C) 26
Explanation: Gujarat is represented by twenty-six directly elected members in Lok Sabha under the currently applicable constituency allocation. These seats are divided into territorial constituencies, with some reserved for designated communities.
Q64. Who was the youngest member elected to the 17th Lok Sabha?
[SSC CHSL 2020 (15 April 2021)]
(A) Chandrani Murmu
(B) Mahua Moitra
(C) Harsimrat Kaur Badal
(D) Dimple Yadav
Answer: (A) Chandrani Murmu
Explanation: Chandrani Murmu was the youngest elected MP in the Seventeenth Lok Sabha, winning from Keonjhar in Odisha in 2019. Elections to the House are direct and candidates must satisfy the constitutional minimum age of twenty-five.
Q63. What is a proposed law introduced in Parliament called?
[SSC CHSL 2020 (15 April 2021)]
(A) Ordinance
(B) Bill
(C) Rule
(D) Regulation
Answer: (B) Bill
Explanation: A Bill is the formal proposal for legislation placed before Parliament. After necessary readings, scrutiny and votes, a parliamentary Bill generally requires presidential assent before becoming an Act of Parliament.
Q62. What is the minimum voting age for Lok Sabha elections?
[SSC CHSL 2020 (5 August 2021)]
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 21
(D) 25
Answer: (B) 18
Explanation: Article 326 provides adult suffrage from eighteen years of age, subject to applicable disqualifications and electoral registration. The minimum age was lowered from twenty-one by the Sixty-first Constitutional Amendment of 1988.
Q61. Which is NOT a power of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
[UPSC NDA I (2021)]
(A) Presiding over Lok Sabha sittings
(B) Voting in the first instance on an ordinary division
(C) Maintaining order in the House
(D) Adjourning the House when there is no quorum
Answer: (B) Voting in the first instance on an ordinary division
Explanation: The Speaker does not ordinarily vote in the first instance in the House. Under Article 100, the presiding officer may exercise a casting vote if votes are equal. Maintaining order, presiding and addressing quorum shortages are recognised functions.
Q60. Who serves as ex officio President of the Indian Parliamentary Group?
[SSC CGL 2020 (16 August 2021)]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) President of India
(D) Leader of Opposition
Answer: (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Speaker of Lok Sabha acts as ex officio President of the Indian Parliamentary Group. The Group promotes parliamentary cooperation, seminars, goodwill delegations and contacts with legislative institutions outside India.
Q59. Who was President of the Indian Parliamentary Group as of August 2020?
[SSC MTS 2020 (11 October 2021)]
(A) Om Birla
(B) M. Venkaiah Naidu
(C) Narendra Modi
(D) Ram Nath Kovind
Answer: (A) Om Birla
Explanation: Om Birla, as Speaker of the Lok Sabha, was ex officio President of the Indian Parliamentary Group in August 2020. This autonomous organisation brings together parliamentarians to encourage parliamentary exchange and understanding.
Q58. Consider:
1. President may summon Parliament to any place deemed suitable.
2. Constitution mandates three annual sessions.
3. Constitution does not prescribe a minimum annual number of sitting days.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2020)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (C) 1 and 3
Explanation: Article 85 permits presidential summoning of each House; the Constitution does not mandate exactly three sessions or a minimum number of sitting days. It instead limits the permissible interval between successive sessions to six months.
Q57. For which matter does Rajya Sabha have powers equal to Lok Sabha?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2020)]
(A) No-confidence motion
(B) Demands for Grants
(C) Constitutional amendment
(D) Passing a Money Bill
Answer: (C) Constitutional amendment
Explanation: Both Houses must separately pass a constitutional amendment Bill with the prescribed special majority. Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on demands for grants or pass a no-confidence motion, and Money Bills are subject to special Lok Sabha primacy.
Q56. A parliamentary system of government is one in which:
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2020)]
(A) The government is responsible to the legislature
(B) The judiciary appoints the executive
(C) The head of state always runs the Cabinet
(D) Ministers are independent of Parliament
Answer: (A) The government is responsible to the legislature
Explanation: The defining principle of parliamentary government is executive accountability to the legislature. In India the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible specifically to Lok Sabha, allowing the elected House to withdraw political confidence.
Q55. Which law requires the Union Budget to be accompanied by a Macro-Economic Framework Statement?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2020)]
(A) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
(B) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(C) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(D) RBI Act, 1934
Answer: (A) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Explanation: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 provides for fiscal transparency and statements associated with the Union Budget, including a macroeconomic framework. These disclosures support legislative examination of fiscal assumptions, public debt and budgetary policy.
Q54. Under Article 108, who can notify an intention to summon a joint sitting of both Houses?
[MPPSC State Service Prelims (2020)]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Lok Sabha Speaker
(D) Vice-President
Answer: (B) President
Explanation: Article 108 empowers the President to notify an intention to summon both Houses for a joint sitting when specified legislative deadlocks occur. The procedure does not apply to Money Bills or constitutional amendment Bills.
Q53. Regarding reservation of Lok Sabha seats, consider:
1. Forty-four seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes.
2. The Delimitation Commission may determine reserved constituencies.
3. The Commission is appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker.
Which is correct?
[CGPSC State Service Prelims (2020)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. The delimitation process determines which constituencies are reserved as specified by law. The numbers in statement 1 are incorrect, and the Delimitation Commission is constituted by the Union Government, not the Speaker.
Q52. Which Article provides for the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
[SSC CHSL (12 October 2020)]
(A) Article 89
(B) Article 93
(C) Article 105
(D) Article 118
Answer: (B) Article 93
Explanation: Article 93 requires Lok Sabha to choose two of its members as Speaker and Deputy Speaker. They preside over the House according to the Constitution and parliamentary rules, supporting orderly legislative business.
Q51. How many Lok Sabha constituencies does Rajasthan have?
[SSC CHSL (19 March 2020)]
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 26
Answer: (C) 25
Explanation: Rajasthan has twenty-five Lok Sabha constituencies under the current distribution. Constituencies elect one member each using the first-past-the-post method, with reserved constituencies designated through the statutory delimitation framework.
Q50. Consider:
1. Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several offices from office-of-profit disqualification.
2. It has been amended several times.
3. The Constitution clearly defines “office of profit”.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2019)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation: The 1959 Act exempts certain positions from office-of-profit disqualification and has been amended repeatedly. The Constitution itself does not provide an exhaustive definition of office of profit, leaving interpretation to legislation and judicial decisions.
Q49. Who may review independent regulators in telecommunications, insurance and electricity:
1. Ad hoc parliamentary committees
2. Department-related parliamentary standing committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2019)]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) 2 and 5
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Parliamentary ad hoc committees and department-related standing committees can scrutinise sector regulators and their functioning. The Finance Commission, Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission and NITI Aayog do not perform this specific parliamentary oversight role.
Q48. Which Article formerly empowered the President to nominate Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha?
[SSC CGL (12 June 2019)]
(A) Article 331
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 108
(D) Article 125
Answer: (A) Article 331
Explanation: Article 331 historically allowed the President to nominate Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha if the community lacked adequate representation. This special nomination provision subsequently ceased following the 104th Constitutional Amendment.
Q47. Which statement concerning Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?
[UPSC NDA I (2019)]
(A) Members are elected by State MLAs
(B) Its election uses proportional representation through single transferable vote
(C) Approximately one-third retire every two years
(D) It is permanent but may be dissolved early by the President
Answer: (D) It is permanent but may be dissolved early by the President
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a permanent House that cannot be dissolved, even by the President. State representatives are elected indirectly through proportional representation, and members normally serve six-year terms, with staggered retirements every two years.
Q46. Who normally presides over a joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
[SSC CGL (12 June 2019)]
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Lok Sabha Speaker
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C) Lok Sabha Speaker
Explanation: A joint sitting is ordinarily presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, with alternate presiding arrangements if unavailable. The joint sitting mechanism addresses certain legislative deadlocks and operates under Article 108.
Q45. The first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was established in which year?
[RPF Constable (20 January 2019)]
(A) 2003
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Answer: (B) 2005
Explanation: The Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was formed in 2005 as the first parliamentary forum of its kind. Forums support informed discussion among MPs and connect them with subject experts and government programmes.
Q44. In which year was the Indian Parliamentary Group formed?
[RPF Constable (24 January 2019)]
(A) 1935
(B) 1949
(C) 1952
(D) 1977
Answer: (B) 1949
Explanation: The Indian Parliamentary Group was established in 1949 to foster communication among parliamentarians and with legislatures abroad. Its ex officio President is the Lok Sabha Speaker, and its members include eligible serving and former MPs.
Q43. Which parliamentary committee checks whether delegated regulations, rules and bye-laws remain within the authority granted by Parliament?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2018)]
(A) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: (A) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Explanation: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation scrutinises rules, regulations and other instruments issued under powers delegated by Parliament. It considers whether subordinate law remains within legislative authority and accords with the intent of the parent statute.
Q42. Regarding Money Bills, which statement is NOT correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2018)]
(A) Taxation provisions may fall within a Money Bill
(B) Custody of the Consolidated Fund or Contingency Fund may be addressed in a Money Bill
(C) A Money Bill appropriates money out of the Contingency Fund
(D) Regulation of government borrowing may be covered by a Money Bill
Answer: (C) A Money Bill appropriates money out of the Contingency Fund
Explanation: Article 110 specifies Money Bill subjects. Appropriation ordinarily concerns moneys from the Consolidated Fund, whereas custody or payment into or withdrawal from the Contingency Fund is separately described. Thus statement C wrongly describes appropriation from that Fund.
Q41. Consider:
1. A State Assembly Speaker vacates office on ceasing to be an Assembly member.
2. The Speaker vacates office immediately on dissolution of the Assembly.
Which statement is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2018)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: The Speaker ordinarily vacates office upon ceasing to be a member, but a dissolution does not end the Speaker’s tenure immediately. The Constitution provides continuity until immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected Assembly.
Q40. If President’s Rule is imposed in a State under Article 356, which body may exercise its legislative powers?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2018)]
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) Election Commission
(D) NITI Aayog
Answer: (B) Parliament
Explanation: During President’s Rule, State legislative powers can be declared exercisable by or under Parliament’s authority. Parliament may also delegate the power as constitutionally permitted. Judicial and electoral institutions do not replace the legislature.
Q39. Consider:
1. Swatantra Party was the largest Opposition party in the First Lok Sabha.
2. A Leader of Opposition was first recognised in Lok Sabha in 1969.
3. The constitutional minimum for recognising Opposition leader is 75 MPs.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2018)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. The Swatantra Party was formed after the First Lok Sabha, and the Constitution does not set a seventy-five-member threshold for Leader of Opposition. Official recognition began in 1969.
Q38. An MP remaining absent from all meetings of a House without permission for how many days may have their seat declared vacant?
[UPPSC Prelims (2018)]
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days
Answer: (C) 60 days
Explanation: Article 101(4) permits a House to declare a member’s seat vacant following sixty days’ unauthorised absence from all its meetings. Periods when the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days are excluded.
Q37. What is the maximum number of representatives of States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha, excluding nominated members?
[SSC CHSL (15 March 2018)]
(A) 230
(B) 238
(C) 245
(D) 250
Answer: (B) 238
Explanation: Article 80 provides a constitutional ceiling of 238 elected representatives of States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha, plus twelve nominated members. The actual strength may be below the overall maximum of 250.
Q36. How often must Parliament meet under the constitutional six-month-gap requirement?
[SSC CHSL (17 March 2018)]
(A) At least twice yearly
(B) Exactly once
(C) Once in three years
(D) Once in five years
Answer: (A) At least twice yearly
Explanation: The Constitution does not prescribe exact annual session names or a fixed number of sitting days. Article 85 requires that no more than six months intervene between the last sitting of one session and first sitting of the next.
Q35. To which House is the Union Council of Ministers collectively responsible?
[SSC CHSL (22 March 2018)]
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Both equally
(D) Neither
Answer: (B) Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Council of Ministers is collectively accountable to Lok Sabha under Article 75(3). A ministry that loses the confidence of this directly elected chamber cannot ordinarily remain in office, even if it commands support in Rajya Sabha.
Q34. How many seats are allocated to Himachal Pradesh in Rajya Sabha?
[SSC CHSL (23 March 2018)]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: (B) 3
Explanation: Himachal Pradesh is allotted three seats in Rajya Sabha. Members are elected by the State’s Legislative Assembly under proportional representation through the single transferable vote, as provided in the constitutional electoral arrangements.
Q33. Parliament controls the Council of Ministers by:
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question Hour
3. Supplementary questions.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2017)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: All three devices facilitate parliamentary accountability. Question Hour and supplementary questions demand information and explanations from ministers, while an adjournment motion enables an urgent matter to interrupt normal work and may carry political criticism.
Q32. Consider:
1. Only a President-nominated MP can introduce a private member’s Bill.
2. The first-ever private member’s Bill was passed by Parliament recently.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2017)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (D) Neither
Explanation: Both are incorrect. A private member is any MP who is not a minister, regardless of whether elected or nominated. Several private members’ Bills passed earlier in India’s parliamentary history; the institution was not newly introduced.
Q31. For Lok Sabha elections, who may file a nomination paper?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2017)]
(A) Any person residing in India
(B) Only someone resident in the contested constituency
(C) An Indian citizen enrolled on the electoral roll of a constituency
(D) Any Indian citizen, whether enrolled or not
Answer: (C) An Indian citizen enrolled on the electoral roll of a constituency
Explanation: The nomination rules require the candidate to be an Indian citizen who is registered as an elector in a parliamentary constituency and otherwise eligible. Residence in the specific constituency contested is not ordinarily mandatory.
Q30. Consider:
1. The winning Lok Sabha candidate must secure at least 50% of votes polled.
2. The Constitution reserves Speaker for the ruling party and Deputy Speaker for the opposition.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2017)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (D) Neither
Explanation: India uses first-past-the-post elections, so a candidate with the highest votes can win without a majority. The Constitution does not reserve the Speaker or Deputy Speaker positions by party; such allocations depend on convention and political agreement.
Q29. What is the initial hour of a regular parliamentary sitting called?
[SSC MTS (4 October 2017)]
(A) Zero Hour
(B) Question Hour
(C) Calling Attention Hour
(D) Budget Hour
Answer: (B) Question Hour
Explanation: Question Hour ordinarily starts a parliamentary sitting under scheduled rules. MPs pose questions to ministers, and starred questions permit oral replies and supplementaries. Zero Hour is a separate practice immediately following Question Hour.
Q28. What are the two broad classes of parliamentary committees?
[SSC MTS (23 October 2017)]
(A) Standing and ad hoc
(B) Central and State
(C) Judicial and executive
(D) Permanent and provincial
Answer: (A) Standing and ad hoc
Explanation: Parliamentary committees are broadly classified as standing committees, which continue as regular institutional bodies, and ad hoc committees, created for specific tasks and ordinarily dissolved after completing their assigned work.
Q27. Which House was constituted for the first time in 1952 and is known as the Council of States?
[UPPSC Prelims (2017)]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislative Council
(D) Constituent Assembly
Answer: (B) Rajya Sabha
Explanation: Rajya Sabha was first constituted in 1952 as the Council of States. Unlike Lok Sabha, its membership renews in phases instead of undergoing dissolution, providing a continuing legislative institution at the Union level.
Q26. Consider:
1. MPs enjoy constitutionally protected freedom of speech in Parliament.
2. The power to amend the Constitution is vested in Parliament.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC NDA II (2016)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (C) Both
Explanation: Article 105 safeguards parliamentary freedom of speech within constitutional rules and procedure. Article 368 vests constitutional amendment power in Parliament, subject to prescribed majorities, possible State ratification and the judicially enforced basic structure limitation.
Q25. Consider:
1. Prorogation causes any Bill pending in Lok Sabha to lapse.
2. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha and not yet passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse on Lok Sabha dissolution.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2016)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: Prorogation does not make parliamentary Bills lapse, so statement 1 is incorrect. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by Lok Sabha survives dissolution of Lok Sabha, making statement 2 correct.
Q24. When an ordinary Bill is passed at a joint sitting of both Houses, what majority is required?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2015)]
(A) Simple majority of members present and voting
(B) Three-fourths present and voting
(C) Two-thirds of all MPs
(D) Absolute majority of both Houses separately
Answer: (A) Simple majority of members present and voting
Explanation: Article 108 permits joint sittings to resolve certain legislative deadlocks. The Bill is decided by a simple majority of members present and voting together, ordinarily under the Lok Sabha Speaker’s chairmanship. Money and constitutional amendment Bills are excluded.
Q23. Consider:
1. Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on Demands for Grants.
3. Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2015)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All three
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Rajya Sabha may recommend changes to, but cannot amend or reject, a Money Bill. It also cannot vote on Demands for Grants, an exclusive Lok Sabha privilege. However, Rajya Sabha can discuss the Union Budget.
Q22. Consider: 1. The Department of Revenue prepares the Union Budget.
2. Withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund requires parliamentary authorisation.
3. Every payment from the Public Account needs an Appropriation Act.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2015)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C) 2 only
Explanation: Parliament must authorise withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund, so statement 2 is correct. Budget preparation is coordinated by the Budget Division, not the Department of Revenue. Public Account withdrawals generally do not need parliamentary appropriation.
Q21. Who may summon a joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament under Article 108?
[UPPSC Prelims (2015)]
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (A) President
Explanation: The President may summon a joint sitting after the constitutional conditions of legislative deadlock are met. It is normally chaired by the Lok Sabha Speaker. The mechanism cannot be used for Money Bills or constitutional amendment Bills.
Q20. Which parliamentary period ordinarily begins immediately after Question Hour around noon?
[UPPSC Prelims (2015)]
(A) Zero Hour
(B) Budget Hour
(C) Prorogation Hour
(D) Legislative Hour
Answer: (A) Zero Hour
Explanation: Zero Hour is a parliamentary convention that follows Question Hour, commonly beginning around midday. Members use it to raise issues of urgent public concern, subject to procedures set by the relevant House.
Q19. Under which Article may the Lok Sabha Speaker exercise a casting vote in case of a tie?
[UPPSC Prelims (2015)]
(A) Article 100
(B) Article 84
(C) Article 108
(D) Article 112
Answer: (A) Article 100
Explanation: Article 100 provides that a House’s Speaker or Chairman ordinarily does not vote in the first instance but may exercise a casting vote when votes are equal. This resolves a tie during parliamentary decision-making.
Q18. Consider:
1. The Constitution expressly mentions a no-confidence motion.
2. A no-confidence motion may be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2014)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: The Constitution establishes collective responsibility to Lok Sabha but does not use the specific phrase no-confidence motion. Lok Sabha rules supply the mechanism, which cannot be used to dismiss the ministry through Rajya Sabha.
Q17. Which is the largest financial committee of the Indian Parliament?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2014)]
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: (B) Estimates Committee
Explanation: The Estimates Committee has thirty members, all elected by Lok Sabha, making it the largest of Parliament’s three traditional financial committees. It examines budget estimates and recommends improvements in economy, organisation and efficiency.
Q16. If Rajya Sabha proposes substantial changes to a Money Bill, what may Lok Sabha do?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2013)]
(A) Accept or reject Rajya Sabha recommendations
(B) Refer the Bill to Supreme Court
(C) Convene a mandatory joint sitting
(D) Withdraw the Bill automatically
Answer: (A) Accept or reject Rajya Sabha recommendations
Explanation: Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes to a Money Bill, and must return it within fourteen days. Lok Sabha decides whether to accept those recommendations; a joint sitting does not apply to this category of Bill.
Q15. May Parliament legislate to implement international treaties without obtaining consent from State Governments?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2013)]
(A) Only with all States’ consent
(B) Only with a majority of States
(C) Only with affected States’ consent
(D) Yes, without State consent
Answer: (D) Yes, without State consent
Explanation: Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws implementing international treaties, agreements and conventions for India as a whole or any part of it, even where subject matter would otherwise fall within the State List.
Q14. Consider:
1. Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Parliament as a whole.
2. Union Ministers hold office during President’s pleasure.
3. Prime Minister must communicate legislative proposals to the President.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2013)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (B) 2 and 3
Explanation: Article 75 makes ministers collectively responsible specifically to Lok Sabha, not both Houses collectively. Ministers hold office during the President’s pleasure, and Article 78 requires the Prime Minister to communicate relevant Cabinet decisions and legislative proposals.
Q13. Consider the Public Accounts Committee:
1. It has up to 25 Lok Sabha members.
2. It scrutinises government appropriation and finance accounts.
3. It examines CAG reports.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2013)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All three
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee comprises fifteen Lok Sabha and seven Rajya Sabha members, not twenty-five Lok Sabha members. It examines appropriation and finance accounts and relevant Comptroller and Auditor General reports to scrutinise public expenditure.
Q12. Consider:
1. Constitutional amendment Bills can originate only in Lok Sabha.
2. Federal amendments need ratification by all State Legislatures.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2013)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (D) Neither
Explanation: Amendment Bills may be introduced in either parliamentary House. For specified federal matters, approval by at least half the State Legislatures is required, not all States. Both statements therefore overstate the restrictions in Article 368.
Q11. What special powers does Rajya Sabha possess under Articles 249 and 312?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2012)]
(A) Changing State boundaries without Parliament
(B) Authorising State List legislation and creation of All India Services
(C) Determining presidential pensions
(D) Appointing Election Commissioners
Answer: (B) Authorising State List legislation and creation of All India Services
Explanation: Rajya Sabha has two significant special powers: it can permit Parliament to legislate on State List subjects in the national interest and resolve that creating All India Services is necessary or expedient.
Q10. What is the main purpose of an adjournment motion in the Lok Sabha?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2012)]
(A) Discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance
(B) Gathering private donations
(C) Reducing a specific demand for grant
(D) Electing the Deputy Speaker
Answer: (A) Discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance
Explanation: An adjournment motion seeks to interrupt normal parliamentary work to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance. It is a serious parliamentary device for drawing attention to government responsibility, particularly in Lok Sabha.
Q9. Which of the following Bills can be considered at a joint sitting when the Houses reach a legislative deadlock?
1. Ordinary Bill
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill.
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2012)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: Joint sittings under Article 108 are available for certain deadlocks concerning ordinary Bills. Money Bills follow Article 109’s special procedure and constitutional amendment Bills must receive separate passage in both Houses under Article 368.
Q8. If the Lok Sabha fails to pass the annual Union Budget, what is the constitutional-political consequence?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2011)]
(A) The Budget is automatically enacted
(B) Rajya Sabha approves it instead
(C) The Finance Minister alone is dismissed
(D) The Prime Minister submits the Council of Ministers’ resignation
Answer: (D) The Prime Minister submits the Council of Ministers’ resignation
Explanation: Failure to secure passage of essential budgetary measures in Lok Sabha indicates loss of the elected House’s confidence. Under parliamentary conventions and collective responsibility, the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers must resign.
Q7. Consider:
1. Every Union Cabinet minister must belong to Lok Sabha.
2. The Cabinet Secretariat operates under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2009)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (D) Neither
Explanation: Ministers may come from either House, and even a non-member may serve temporarily subject to the six-month rule. The Cabinet Secretariat operates under the Prime Minister’s charge, not under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Q6. In which House of Parliament is the presiding officer not a member of that House?
[WBCS Prelims (2008)]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Vidhan Sabha
(D) Vidhan Parishad
Answer: (B) Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Vice-President of India serves ex officio as Chairman of Rajya Sabha without being an elected or nominated member of that House. In Lok Sabha, the Speaker is chosen from its membership, like comparable presiding officers of State Legislatures.
Q5. A Money Bill can originate in which House of Parliament?
[WBCS Prelims (2008)]
(A) Either House of Parliament
(B) Only Lok Sabha
(C) Only Rajya Sabha
(D) Only a joint sitting of the Houses
Answer: (B) Only Lok Sabha
Explanation: Under Article 109, a Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. It must originate in Lok Sabha, after which Rajya Sabha has fourteen days to return recommendations; Lok Sabha is not bound to accept them.
Q4. Consider:
1. Only Rajya Sabha can declare it necessary in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on the State List.
2. Emergency proclamations are approved only by Lok Sabha.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2006)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: A national-interest resolution under Article 249 is a special Rajya Sabha function. Emergency proclamations, however, are subject to approval in both Houses as prescribed by the Constitution, making statement 2 incorrect.
Q3. Consider:
1. Speaker may adjourn Lok Sabha sine die, while President summons it after prorogation.
2. Normally Lok Sabha automatically ends after five years.
3. Speaker continues after dissolution until the new House first meets.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2004)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (D) All three
Explanation: All three are correct. The Speaker controls adjournment, and presidential powers govern summoning and prorogation. Lok Sabha ordinarily expires after five years, while the outgoing Speaker remains in office until immediately before the new House first meets.
Q2. Consider:
1. Article 108 authorises joint sittings.
2. The first joint sitting occurred in 1961.
3. The second considered the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2003)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (D) All three
Explanation: Article 108 governs joint sittings, first used for the Dowry Prohibition Bill in 1961. The second joint sitting concerned the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill in 1978, and the third concerned anti-terror legislation in 2002.
Q1. How may the term of the Lok Sabha be extended during a proclaimed National Emergency?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2002)]
(A) Never under any circumstances
(B) Six months at a time
(C) One year at a time
(D) Two years at a time
Answer: (C) One year at a time
Explanation: Article 83(2) allows Parliament by law to extend the Lok Sabha’s five-year term during a National Emergency, by no more than one year at a time. Extension cannot continue beyond six months after the Emergency ends.