40. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body. What is its primary function under Article 280?
[SSC Selection Post 2026 (Graduate Level), 18 September 2026, Shift 1]
(A) To approve the annual Union Budget
(B) To allocate money for Five-Year Plans
(C) To recommend distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States
(D) To monitor GST collections
Answer: (C) To recommend distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States
Explanation: Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission, which recommends sharing divisible Union tax revenues with the States and allocating State shares. It also advises on grants-in-aid. It does not approve budgets, manage planning allocations or supervise GST revenue collection.
39. Which river was at the centre of the inter-State water dispute for which the Supreme Court directed the Union to constitute a tribunal in February 2026?
[RRB Group D 2025 Official Paper, held 9 August 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Krishna River
(B) Pennaiyar River
(C) Godavari River
(D) Cauvery River
Answer: (B) Pennaiyar River
Explanation: The Pennaiyar, also called the South Pennar, flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Their disagreement concerns water diversion and sharing. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 provides a framework for adjudication through a specially constituted tribunal.
38. Articles 245 to 255 of Part XI of the Constitution primarily deal with which aspect of Centre–State relations?
[RRB NTPC (Undergraduate) CBT-I, 9 May 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Administrative relations
(B) Financial relations
(C) Legislative relations
(D) Judicial relations
Answer: (C) Legislative relations
Explanation: Chapter I of Part XI, Articles 245–255, governs legislative relations, including territorial reach, distribution of subjects and special situations permitting parliamentary legislation on State matters. Chapter II of Part XI deals separately with administrative relations under Articles 256–263.
37. The last subject mentioned in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution is numbered what?
[SSC MTS 2025 Official Paper, held 6 February 2026, Shift 2]
(A) 34
(B) 42
(C) 47
(D) 41
Answer: (C) 47
Explanation: The final numbered entry in List III of the Seventh Schedule is Entry 47, concerning fees in respect of matters in that list. Amendments have inserted additional entries without necessarily renumbering the original sequence, so the final entry number remains 47.
36. Consider the Inter-State Council, National Security Council and Zonal Councils. How many were established under provisions of the Constitution?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2025, General Studies Paper I]
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation: The Inter-State Council derives from Article 263 and was established by presidential order. The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The National Security Council was established by executive decision, making only one constitutionally provided body.
35. Which body was instrumental in recommending changes to Centre–State relations in India?
[SSC CPO 2025, 11 December 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) Sarkaria Commission
(D) Punchhi Commission
Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission was constituted in 1983 under Justice R. S. Sarkaria to review legislative, administrative and financial relations between the Union and States. Its recommendations included strengthening consultation and establishing a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263.
34. Under which of the following circumstances can Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List?
[SSC Selection Post 2025 (Higher Secondary Level), 30 July 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Whenever the President issues an ordinance
(B) During a Financial Emergency alone
(C) When the Rajya Sabha passes the specified resolution
(D) Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved
Answer: (C) When the Rajya Sabha passes the specified resolution
Explanation: Article 249 permits Parliament to legislate on State List subjects in the national interest after the Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution by at least two-thirds of members present and voting. The authority is exceptional and depends on the resolution remaining effective.
33. Which Article gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction over qualifying Centre–State and inter-State disputes?
[SSC GD Constable 2025, 19 February 2025, Shift 3]
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 130
(C) Article 135
(D) Article 134
Answer: (A) Article 131
Explanation: Article 131 confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court for certain legal disputes between the Union and States or among States. The controversy must involve a legal right. Special constitutional exclusions and separate statutory dispute mechanisms may apply.
32. Which statement correctly identifies a Union List subject under the Constitution?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024, General Studies Paper I]
(A) Inter-State trade and commerce belongs to the State List
(B) Inter-State migration belongs to the State List
(C) Inter-State quarantine belongs to the Union List
(D) Corporation tax belongs to the State List
Answer: (C) Inter-State quarantine belongs to the Union List
Explanation: Inter-State quarantine is listed in Entry 81 of the Union List. Inter-State migration, inter-State trade and commerce, and corporation tax are also Union subjects. The Seventh Schedule allocates matters requiring nationwide regulation to Parliament rather than individual legislatures.
31. Under the North Eastern Council Act as amended in 2002, which of these are included in the Council:
1. State Governors;
2. State Chief Ministers;
3. Three President-nominated members;
4. Union Home Minister?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024, General Studies Paper I]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Section 3 of the amended North Eastern Council Act specifies Governors, Chief Ministers and three President-nominated members. The Union Home Minister became ex-officio chairperson later, but is not separately named as a member in the 2002 statutory membership provision.
30. Which statements about the Indian Constitution are incorrect?
1. It does not use the word federation.
2. Article 5 empowers Parliament to create States.
3. State legislatures may legislate on Union List subjects.
4. Both levels may legislate on Concurrent List subjects.
[SSC CHSL 2024 Tier-I, 3 July 2024, Shift 2]
(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation: Article 3, not Article 5, governs formation of new States. Union List matters generally lie within Parliament’s exclusive legislative competence. The Constitution does not use federation to describe India, and both Parliament and State legislatures may legislate on Concurrent List subjects.
29. On which of these subjects can a State Legislative Assembly make laws:
(i) Public order,
(ii) Agriculture,
(iii) Public health,
(iv) Cultivation of opium?
[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Political Science Paper II, 4 August 2024]
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) All four
Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation: Public order, agriculture and public health belong to the State List. Cultivation of the opium poppy and manufacture of opium fall under the Union List. The lists in the Seventh Schedule determine primary legislative authority, subject to constitutional exceptions.
28. Which scholar said that Centre–State relations under Congress governments in the 1970s shifted from political bargaining towards feudal tutelage?
[RPSC Assistant Professor, Political Science Paper II, 11 September 2024]
(A) J. R. Siwach
(B) Bhagwan Dua
(C) Myron Weiner
(D) Morris Jones
Answer: (D) Morris Jones
Explanation: Political scientist Morris Jones used this characterisation to describe growing central dominance over State governments during the period. It captures the tension between formal constitutional federalism and actual party-political arrangements that may weaken State bargaining power.
27. Which statements are correct about Centre–State legislative relations?
A. Unlisted subjects are residuary subjects.
B. The Union List prevails in a legislative competence conflict with the State List.
C. A law passed at the request of two States applies automatically to every State.
[SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I, 17 July 2023, Shift 4]
(A) A and C only
(B) B and C only
(C) A, B and C
(D) A and B only
Answer: (D) A and B only
Explanation: A and B are correct. Residuary law-making power belongs to Parliament, and the Union List has priority in its field. Under Article 252, a parliamentary law requested by two or more States applies to those States and subsequently adopting States, not automatically everyone.
26. Statement I: States manage prisons using their own day-to-day rules.
Statement II: The Prisons Act, 1894 retained prison administration with provincial governments.
Which option is correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2023, General Studies Paper I]
(A) Both are correct, and II explains I
(B) Both are correct, but II does not explain I
(C) I is correct and II is incorrect
(D) I is incorrect and II is correct
Answer: (A) Both are correct, and II explains I
Explanation: Prisons are primarily a State List subject and State administrations manage them. The Prisons Act, 1894 historically placed this responsibility with provincial authorities, explaining the established practice. States administer their prisons under applicable legislation, rules and prison manuals.
25. Which commission recommended an Inter-Governmental Council under Article 263 in the place of the proposed Inter-State Council?
[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2023]
(A) Rajamannar Commission
(B) Punchhi Commission
(C) Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Sarkaria Commission
Answer: (D) Sarkaria Commission
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission proposed a permanent Inter-Governmental Council as a national consultative institution under Article 263. The Union subsequently established the Inter-State Council in May 1990. The recommendation aimed to institutionalise dialogue and coordination among governments.
24. Which Article deals with grants-in-aid from the Union to the States?
[WBCS Mains 2023, Polity]
(A) Article 270
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 275
(D) Article 265
Answer: (C) Article 275
Explanation: Article 275 provides for statutory grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India to States needing assistance. Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission, which recommends principles governing these grants. Article 270 concerns tax distribution and Article 265 concerns lawful taxation.
23. The Punchhi Commission report related to which issue?
[SSC CHSL 2023, 9 August 2023, Shift 1]
(A) Centre–State relations
(B) Electoral reforms
(C) Fiscal federalism alone
(D) Creation of new States
Answer: (A) Centre–State relations
Explanation: The Union appointed the Punchhi Commission in 2007 under former Chief Justice M. M. Punchhi to review the working of Centre–State relations. Its 2010 report covered legislative, administrative and financial coordination, Governors and other federal issues.
22. Article 279A of the Constitution relates to which body?
[RRB Group D 2022, 17 August 2022, Shift 2]
(A) Goods and Services Tax Council
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
Answer: (A) Goods and Services Tax Council
Explanation: Article 279A provides for the GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister and including State representatives. It recommends GST rates, exemptions and related arrangements to foster coordinated indirect taxation across the Union and States. It embodies cooperative fiscal federalism.
21. The Finance Commission is established under which Article of the Constitution?
[RRB Group D 2022, 14 September 2022, Shift 3]
(A) Article 276
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 273
(D) Article 288
Answer: (B) Article 280
Explanation: Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission appointed by the President at five-year intervals or earlier when necessary. Its duties include advising on distribution of Union tax proceeds and grants to States, helping correct fiscal imbalances in the federation.
20. Who may legislate on residuary matters not mentioned in the Union, State or Concurrent Lists?
[WBCS Mains 2022, Polity]
(A) State legislatures exclusively
(B) Parliament alone
(C) Parliament only after consulting every State
(D) Parliament or States as decided by the Supreme Court
Answer: (B) Parliament alone
Explanation: Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List vest residuary legislative powers in Parliament. Subjects not enumerated in any of the three lists therefore fall within its competence. Unlike some other federations, India allocates these unlisted matters to the Centre.
19. Which subject belongs to the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule?
[WBCS Mains 2022, Polity]
(A) Public health and sanitation
(B) Forests
(C) Stock exchanges
(D) Agriculture
Answer: (B) Forests
Explanation: Forests were transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Parliament and State legislatures can both legislate on forest matters. Agriculture and public health remain State subjects, while stock exchanges are in the Union List.
18. On whose recommendation was the Inter-State Council set up in India?
[UPPSC Combined State Examination 2021, General Studies Paper I, 24 October 2021]
(A) Punchhi Commission
(B) Rajamannar Committee
(C) Kothari Committee
(D) Sarkaria Commission
Answer: (D) Sarkaria Commission
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission recommended a permanent consultative institution to improve cooperation among States and the Union. Acting on that recommendation, the President established the Inter-State Council through an order dated 28 May 1990 under Article 263 of the Constitution.
17. What is an exception to the general rule that Parliament does not legislate on State List matters?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 24 July 2021, Shift 1]
(A) The Prime Minister asks Parliament to do so
(B) The judiciary orders Parliament to do so
(C) The State Governor certifies the requirement
(D) The Rajya Sabha passes the relevant resolution
Answer: (D) The Rajya Sabha passes the relevant resolution
Explanation: Under Article 249, Rajya Sabha can authorise Parliament to legislate on State subjects in the national interest by a resolution supported by two-thirds of members present and voting. Parliament also has distinct powers under other special constitutional circumstances.
16. Assess these statements:
(i) The Union lacks exclusive power to tax residuary subjects.
(ii) The Constitution allows certain Union tax revenues to be shared with States.
Which is correct?
[WBCS Mains 2021, Polity]
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer: (B) (ii) only
Explanation: The first statement is false because Parliament possesses residuary legislative power, including residual taxation, under Article 248. The second is true: the constitutional financial scheme distributes specified Union tax proceeds among the Union and States, subject to prescribed exceptions.
15. Which Article gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction over certain disputes between the Union and States or between States?
[WBCS Mains 2020, Polity]
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 134
Answer: (A) Article 131
Explanation: Article 131 permits qualifying legal disputes between the Union and one or more States, or between States, to begin directly in the Supreme Court. This adjudicatory role helps enforce constitutional boundaries in the Indian federal system.
14. Who may establish an Inter-State Council under the Indian Constitution?
[CGPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2019, Paper I]
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) National Development Council
(D) Zonal Council
Answer: (B) President
Explanation: Article 263 empowers the President to establish a council when public interest warrants investigation of common matters, coordination or advice on inter-State disputes. The Inter-State Council was formed by presidential order in 1990, following the Sarkaria Commission’s recommendation.
13. Who recommended that Governors should be eminent outsiders without recent intense political links?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2019, General Studies Paper I]
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(B) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(D) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution
Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission recommended appointing Governors who are distinguished persons from outside the State and detached from active party politics. Its purpose was to reduce partisan controversy surrounding governors and strengthen confidence between Union and State governments.
12. Which Article addresses repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?
[WBCS Mains 2019, Polity]
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42 of List III
Answer: (B) Article 254
Explanation: Article 254 deals with inconsistency between parliamentary and State laws on Concurrent List subjects. Generally, the parliamentary law prevails. A State law receiving presidential assent may operate locally despite inconsistency, subject to Parliament’s power to override it subsequently.
11. When Article 356 is invoked for a State, which consequence follows?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2018, General Studies Paper I]
(A) The State Assembly is automatically dissolved
(B) The State Legislature’s powers become exercisable by or under Parliament’s authority
(C) Article 19 automatically stands suspended
(D) Only the President may enact laws for the State
Answer: (B) The State Legislature’s powers become exercisable by or under Parliament’s authority
Explanation: Under President’s Rule, legislative powers of the State may be exercised by or under Parliament’s authority. The Assembly need not be dissolved immediately; it may remain suspended. Article 19 does not automatically cease to operate merely because Article 356 is invoked.
10. Which Article provides for adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
[WBCS Mains 2018, Polity]
(A) Article 258
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 262
(D) Article 264
Answer: (C) Article 262
Explanation: Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for adjudication of disputes concerning use, distribution or control of inter-State river waters. Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 for this purpose and may exclude court jurisdiction as constitutionally authorised.
9. Which criterion received the greatest weight in the formula for distributing State shares recommended by the Fourteenth Finance Commission?
[UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination 2017, General Knowledge, 19 November 2017]
(A) Population
(B) Income distance
(C) Area
(D) Tax effort
Answer: (B) Income distance
Explanation: The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned the largest weight, 50 percent, to income distance for horizontal distribution among States. The formula also considered population, demographic change, area and forest cover. Income distance sought to address differences in States’ fiscal capacities.
8. Which statement is NOT a feature of Indian federalism?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2017, General Studies Paper I]
(A) India has an independent judiciary
(B) Powers are divided between Union and States
(C) States have unequal representation in Rajya Sabha
(D) The Union resulted from an agreement among sovereign federating units
Answer: (D) The Union resulted from an agreement among sovereign federating units
Explanation: India is constitutionally described as a Union of States, not a compact negotiated by previously sovereign States. Independent courts, constitutional division of powers and unequal State representation in Rajya Sabha are all features of the Indian federal arrangement.
7. Administrative relations between the Centre and States are outlined principally in which Articles?
[WBCS Mains 2016, Polity]
(A) Articles 256–263
(B) Articles 245–254
(C) Articles 264–300
(D) Articles 250–260
Answer: (A) Articles 256–263
Explanation: Chapter II of Part XI contains Articles 256–263 on administrative relations. These cover State compliance with Union laws, directions, delegation of functions, inter-State water disputes and coordination through an Inter-State Council. Legislative relations occupy Articles 245–255.
6. Which is NOT necessarily a characteristic of a federal system?
[UPSC NDA & NA Examination (I) 2014, General Ability Test]
(A) Two distinct levels of government
(B) Written constitutional allocation of each level’s powers
(C) Absence of separation between legislative and executive branches
(D) A supreme court that interprets the constitutional division of powers
Answer: (C) Absence of separation between legislative and executive branches
Explanation: Federalism distributes authority vertically between levels of government. Whether legislature and executive are institutionally separated is a different question concerning presidential versus parliamentary government. Two levels, defined constitutional competences and independent adjudication are familiar federal features.
5. The Constitution’s distribution of powers between Centre and States is based mainly on the scheme of which enactment?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2012, General Studies Paper I]
(A) Morley–Minto Reforms, 1909
(B) Montagu–Chelmsford reforms, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Answer: (C) Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 envisaged a federal structure and divided legislative subjects into federal, provincial and concurrent lists. The Constitution retained and adapted this three-list framework, now contained in the Seventh Schedule, to distribute legislative competence.
4. Which pair is NOT correctly matched with the Constitution’s division of legislative subjects?
[UPSC NDA & NA Examination (II) 2011, General Ability Test]
(A) Union List — Banking
(B) State List — Agriculture
(C) Concurrent List — Marriage
(D) Residuary List — Education
Answer: (D) Residuary List — Education
Explanation: Education is an entry in the Concurrent List, not a residuary subject. More fundamentally, the Constitution has only Union, State and Concurrent Lists; it has no separate Residuary List. Parliament exercises residual powers under Article 248.
3. Which tax was primarily within the exclusive jurisdiction of State Governments at the time of the examination?
[UPSC NDA & NA Examination (II) 2009, General Ability Test]
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Customs duty
(C) Sales tax
(D) Income tax other than agricultural income
Answer: (C) Sales tax
Explanation: In the pre-GST framework, ordinary sales tax on goods was generally a State levy, while corporation tax, customs duty and non-agricultural income tax belonged to the Union. Since 2017, GST has replaced much of that earlier sales-tax arrangement.
2. Which subject belongs to the Union List in the Seventh Schedule?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2006, General Studies]
(A) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(B) Agriculture
(C) Fisheries
(D) Public health
Answer: (A) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
Explanation: Entry 55 of the Union List covers regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields. Agriculture, public health and most inland fisheries are State List subjects. The division reflects national regulatory needs in strategically important extractive industries.
1. Which authority recommends principles governing grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2002, General Studies]
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Public Accounts Committee
Answer: (A) Finance Commission
Explanation: Article 280 entrusts the Finance Commission with recommending principles for grants-in-aid to States and distribution of specified tax revenues. The President constitutes the commission periodically. The Inter-State Council instead provides a forum for intergovernmental consultation and coordination.