GK Questions Indian Polity

Constitutional Bodies

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Q175. Which constitutional Article establishes the Finance Commission in India?

[DSSSB MTS, 1 August 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Article 280
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 324
  4. Article 51A

Answer: (A) Article 280

Explanation: Article 280 directs the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years, or sooner if necessary. The Commission recommends division of tax proceeds between the Union and the States and principles governing grants-in-aid.

Q174. Who chaired the Sixteenth Finance Commission, whose report was tabled in February 2026?

[RRB Group D, 9 August 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Arvind Panagariya
  2. Sanjay Malhotra
  3. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
  4. Ashok Lahiri

Answer: (A) Arvind Panagariya

Explanation: The President constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission in December 2023 under Arvind Panagariya. Its central responsibility was to recommend fiscal transfers for the five-year period beginning in April 2026, including both vertical and horizontal tax devolution.

Q173. Who heads the Council of Ministers that assists and advises a State Governor?

[DSSSB MTS, 25 July 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Chief Minister
  2. Advocate General
  3. Chief Secretary
  4. Speaker of the Assembly

Answer: (A) Chief Minister

Explanation: Article 163 provides for a Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister to aid and advise the Governor, except where discretion applies. The Advocate General is the State’s chief legal adviser, not the political executive’s head.

[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 3 July 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. ElectNet
  2. ECIAPP
  3. ElectApp 1.0
  4. ECINET

Answer: (D) ECINET

Explanation: ECINET was announced as a consolidated platform bringing together over forty separate Election Commission mobile and web applications. It aimed to simplify access for voters, candidates and officials while improving the delivery of election-related digital services.

Q171. Which Article establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 1 July 2026 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 340
  2. Article 336
  3. Article 342
  4. Article 338

Answer: (D) Article 338

Explanation: Article 338 provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. The Commission monitors constitutional safeguards, investigates complaints and reports to the President. Article 338A separately concerns Scheduled Tribes, while Article 338B concerns Backward Classes.

Q170. The constitutional post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is provided under which Article?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 28 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 370
  2. Article 343
  3. Article 326
  4. Article 350B

Answer: (D) Article 350B

Explanation: Article 350B was inserted through the Seventh Constitutional Amendment in 1956. The President appoints the Special Officer to investigate implementation of constitutional safeguards for linguistic minorities and submit reports for placement before Parliament.

Q169. Which body is described as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 24 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Comptroller and Auditor General
  2. NITI Aayog
  3. Inter-State Council
  4. Finance Commission

Answer: (D) Finance Commission

Explanation: The Finance Commission evaluates both the financial imbalance between the Union and States and disparities among States. Under Article 280, its recommendations guide tax sharing and grants so that different governments can meet their responsibilities.

Q168. Which Article provides for a Finance Commission to review the finances of municipalities?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 22 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 243Y
  2. Article 243I
  3. Article 243X
  4. Article 243H

Answer: (A) Article 243Y

Explanation: Article 243Y extends the State Finance Commission’s review to municipalities. Article 243I provides for a commission at the State level to examine Panchayat finances, and the same institutional mechanism also recommends measures for urban local bodies.

Q167. Which amendment introduced the constitutional framework for the GST Council?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 21 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. 98th Amendment
  2. 100th Amendment
  3. 101st Amendment
  4. 99th Amendment

Answer: (C) 101st Amendment

Explanation: The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016 added Article 279A for the GST Council. It created an institutional forum bringing Union and State representatives together to recommend GST rates, exemptions and related administration.

Q166. The Election Commission of India is best classified as which kind of body?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 20 June 2026 (Shift 3)]

  1. Non-constitutional body
  2. Constitutional body
  3. Statutory body
  4. Only a quasi-judicial body

Answer: (B) Constitutional body

Explanation: The Election Commission derives its existence directly from Article 324 of the Constitution, making it a constitutional rather than merely statutory institution. It supervises national and State legislative elections and elections for President and Vice-President.

Q165. Under which Article is the Finance Commission of India constituted?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 18 June 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Article 324
  2. Article 148
  3. Article 370
  4. Article 280

Answer: (D) Article 280

Explanation: Article 280 contains the constitutional mandate for a Finance Commission. Its Chairperson and four members are appointed by the President; their recommendations address intergovernmental tax sharing, grants-in-aid and other specified fiscal matters.

Q164. What is the constitutional Article concerning a State Advocate General?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 17 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 148
  2. Article 165
  3. Article 76
  4. Article 152

Answer: (B) Article 165

Explanation: Article 165 provides for the Advocate General, appointed by the Governor from persons qualified to become High Court judges. The Advocate General advises the State government on legal issues and holds office during the Governor’s pleasure.

Q163. Which Article provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 7 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 165
  2. Article 148
  3. Article 76
  4. Article 350B

Answer: (B) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 creates the independent constitutional office of Comptroller and Auditor General. Appointment is made by the President. The office audits government finances, while other constitutional provisions govern its duties, reporting and accounting advice.

Q162. Who appoints the Advocate General for a State?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 6 June 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Chief Justice
  2. Governor
  3. Chief Minister
  4. President

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: Under Article 165, the Governor appoints the Advocate General. The appointee must be qualified for appointment as a High Court judge. Their principal role is advising the State government and performing legal duties assigned by the Governor.

Q161. What is the chief duty of the Attorney General of India?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 4 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Appointing Supreme Court judges
  2. Conducting Parliament sessions
  3. Providing legal advice to the Union government
  4. Enforcing Fundamental Rights

Answer: (C) Providing legal advice to the Union government

Explanation: Article 76 establishes the Attorney General as the Union government’s principal legal adviser. The Attorney General gives advice on referred legal matters and performs legal duties assigned by the President, rather than administering courts or Parliament.

Q160. In which Part of the Constitution are Union and State Public Service Commissions addressed?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 4 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Part XV
  2. Part XIV
  3. Part XVI
  4. Part XVII

Answer: (B) Part XIV

Explanation: Part XIV deals with services under the Union and the States. Chapter II, Articles 315 to 323, sets out the creation, composition, terms, functions, expense safeguards and reporting duties of Public Service Commissions.

Q159. In which Part of the Constitution are detailed provisions for UPSC appointments and removal located?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 8 June 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Part XIII
  2. Part XIV
  3. Part XI
  4. Part X

Answer: (B) Part XIV

Explanation: Articles 315 to 323 are in Part XIV of the Constitution. These provisions frame the Public Service Commissions as independent recruitment institutions and govern commissioners’ appointment, conditions of service and removal safeguards.

Q158. Which Article prescribes appointment and tenure of UPSC Chairperson and members?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 2 June 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Article 324
  2. Article 317
  3. Article 319
  4. Article 316

Answer: (D) Article 316

Explanation: Article 316 governs appointments and terms of Public Service Commission members. The President appoints UPSC members, whereas Governors appoint State commission members; the Constitution provides different retirement-age limits for Union and State commissions.

Q157. Which Article constitutionally mandates setting up the Finance Commission at five-year intervals?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 9 May 2026 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 299
  2. Article 280
  3. Article 270
  4. Article 291

Answer: (B) Article 280

Explanation: Under Article 280, the President must constitute a Finance Commission every fifth year, or earlier when necessary. It recommends sharing of net Union tax proceeds and measures that strengthen States’ and local bodies’ fiscal resources.

Q156. The State Election Commission conducts elections to which institutions?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 8 May 2026 (Shift 3)]

  1. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
  2. Panchayats and Municipalities
  3. President and Vice-President
  4. State Legislative Assemblies

Answer: (B) Panchayats and Municipalities

Explanation: The State Election Commission administers local-body elections under Articles 243K and 243ZA. By contrast, the Election Commission of India manages parliamentary, State legislative, presidential and vice-presidential elections under Article 324.

Q155. Which constitutional authority audits the Union and State governments’ accounts?

[SSC GD Constable, 6 May 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Finance Commission
  2. Comptroller and Auditor General
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. Union Public Service Commission

Answer: (B) Comptroller and Auditor General

Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General is India’s supreme public audit institution under Articles 148 to 151. Its financial examination supports legislative accountability, with Union audit reports sent to the President and State reports to Governors.

Q154. Which Finance Commission statements are accurate:
I Article 280;
II recommendations advisory;
III eight members;
IV reappointment possible?

[OSSSC Forester/Forest Guard/Excise Constable, 2 May 2026 (Shift 3)]

  1. I, II and IV only
  2. II, III and IV only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. I, II and III only

Answer: (A) I, II and IV only

Explanation: The Finance Commission is created under Article 280, has a Chairperson and four other members, and makes advisory recommendations. Members may be reappointed, so the assertion that the body has eight members is incorrect.

Q153. Who appoints the Chairperson and other members of the Finance Commission?

[SSC GD Constable, 27 April 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Parliament
  2. Union Cabinet
  3. President
  4. Prime Minister

Answer: (C) President

Explanation: Article 280 entrusts the President with constituting the Finance Commission and appointing its Chairperson and members. Parliament may prescribe the qualifications and selection method through legislation, but it does not make the appointments itself.

Q152. Which amendment separated the National Commission for Scheduled Castes from the former joint SC/ST commission?

[OSSSC Forester/Forest Guard/Excise Constable, 27 April 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. 80th Amendment
  2. 109th Amendment
  3. 89th Amendment
  4. 69th Amendment

Answer: (C) 89th Amendment

Explanation: The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 split the combined Commission into separate Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes commissions. Article 338 now governs the SC commission and the new Article 338A the ST commission.

Q151. Regarding the Election Commission:
I created by Article 324;
II CEC removed like a Supreme Court judge;
III Constitution fixes six-year tenure.

Which hold?

[UPHESC Assistant Professor (Political Science), 19 April 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. III only
  4. All three

Answer: (A) I and II only

Explanation: Article 324 establishes the Election Commission and protects the Chief Election Commissioner through Supreme Court judge-equivalent removal safeguards. The Constitution itself does not prescribe a universal six-year term; the statutory framework regulates tenure.

Q150. Which Articles govern Election Commission advice on parliamentary and State legislative membership disqualification?

[UPHESC Assistant Professor (Sociology), 18 April 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Articles 324 and 325
  2. Articles 280 and 356
  3. Articles 102 and 191
  4. Articles 103 and 192

Answer: (D) Articles 103 and 192

Explanation: Article 103 requires presidential decisions on specified parliamentary disqualifications after obtaining the Election Commission’s opinion. Article 192 provides the corresponding arrangement for a Governor deciding specified disqualifications of a State legislator.

Q149. Which Constitutional Amendment provided for State Finance Commissions to assess Panchayat finances?

[OSSSC Forester/Forest Guard/Excise Constable, 16 April 2026 (Shift 3)]

  1. 94th
  2. 73rd
  3. 93rd
  4. 75th

Answer: (B) 73rd

Explanation: The 73rd Amendment added Part IX, including Article 243I, requiring State Finance Commissions for Panchayats. These commissions periodically review local-government finances and recommend principles for State taxes, assigned revenue and grants to Panchayats.

Q148. For NCBC, assess:
I constitutional body;
II 1993 NCBC Act repealed;
III headed by Social Justice Ministry Secretary.

Which are correct?

[UPSC CDS-I General Knowledge, 12 April 2026]

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I, II and III
  4. I only

Answer: (A) I and II only

Explanation: The 102nd Amendment established the constitutional National Commission for Backward Classes through Article 338B, replacing the earlier statutory regime. The commission has its own Chairperson; it is not chaired by a ministry secretary.

Q147. What is the principal Finance Commission responsibility in Centre–State fiscal relations?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 27 March 2026 (Shift 3)]

  1. Recommending the division of net Union tax proceeds
  2. Planning all economic development funds
  3. Approving each State budget
  4. Allocating the State GST share directly

Answer: (A) Recommending the division of net Union tax proceeds

Explanation: The Finance Commission recommends distribution of tax revenues between the Union and States under Article 280. It also considers horizontal allocation among States and principles for grants, but neither approves State budgets nor implements each allocation directly.

Q146. Regarding the Finance Commission, which statements hold:
I quasi-judicial;
II Article 280;
III President constitutes it;
IV constituted every six years?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 27 March 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. I, II and III only
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. IV only

Answer: (A) I, II and III only

Explanation: The Finance Commission is commonly classified as a quasi-judicial constitutional body under Article 280. It is constituted by the President at five-year intervals or earlier, not on the six-year timetable proposed in statement IV.

Q145. Which amendment created a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 24 March 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. 102nd Amendment
  2. 97th Amendment
  3. 65th Amendment
  4. 89th Amendment

Answer: (D) 89th Amendment

Explanation: The 89th Amendment introduced Article 338A to create the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes separately from the Scheduled Castes commission. This followed the earlier joint constitutional commission model and enabled a distinct ST-focused institution.

Q144. Which Union ministry is administratively associated with the National Commission for Backward Classes?

[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 14 March 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Home Affairs
  2. Minority Affairs
  3. Labour and Employment
  4. Social Justice and Empowerment

Answer: (D) Social Justice and Empowerment

Explanation: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the relevant administrative ministry for the National Commission for Backward Classes. NCBC itself has constitutional recognition under Article 338B following the 102nd Amendment of 2018.

Q143. At what interval does Article 280 require constitution of the Finance Commission?

[RRB Technician Grade I, 13 March 2026]

  1. Every four years or earlier
  2. Every three years
  3. Every five years or earlier
  4. Every seven years or earlier

Answer: (C) Every five years or earlier

Explanation: The President must constitute the Finance Commission after every fifth year or earlier if necessary. Article 280 creates this recurring constitutional mechanism for considering intergovernmental revenue sharing and the principles governing grants-in-aid.

Q142. Who took charge as Chief Election Commissioner of India in February 2025?

[DSSSB MTS, 6 March 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
  2. Gyanesh Kumar
  3. Gyanendra Pratap Singh
  4. Vivek Joshi

Answer: (B) Gyanesh Kumar

Explanation: Gyanesh Kumar assumed the office of Chief Election Commissioner on 19 February 2025, succeeding Rajiv Kumar. The appointment followed the statutory selection process created by the 2023 legislation concerning election commissioners.

Q141. Who appoints the Attorney General, India’s highest law officer?

[RRB ALP CBT-I, 18 February 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Senior-most Supreme Court judge
  2. President of India
  3. Prime Minister
  4. Chief Justice of India

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: The President appoints the Attorney General under Article 76. The appointee must satisfy the qualifications for Supreme Court judgeship and advises the Union government on legal questions while retaining a right of audience in Indian courts.

Q140. Which statement best describes the Election Commission’s constitutional independence?

[Delhi Police Head Constable AWO/TPO, 21 January 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. It annually reports to Parliament as a dependent authority
  2. CEC may be dismissed at any time by President
  3. Article 324 creates it; CEC removal follows Supreme Court judge-like safeguards
  4. Council of Ministers must approve every Commission decision

Answer: (C) Article 324 creates it; CEC removal follows Supreme Court judge-like safeguards

Explanation: The Election Commission is directly established by Article 324, and the Chief Election Commissioner benefits from an enhanced removal safeguard. This helps insulate election supervision from arbitrary executive interference and preserve independent decisions.

Q139. Assertion: Petrol and diesel prices differ among States.
Reason: These petroleum products are outside GST pending Council-level inclusion.

Which is correct?

[UGC NET Economics, 7 January 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Both true and Reason explains Assertion
  2. Both true, but Reason does not explain Assertion
  3. Assertion true, Reason false
  4. Assertion false, Reason true

Answer: (A) Both true and Reason explains Assertion

Explanation: Petrol and diesel remain outside the operational GST levy, and States impose their own value-added taxes while the Union imposes duties. Differing tax structures contribute to varying retail prices, making the stated reason relevant.

Q138. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

[SSC GD Constable, 30 May 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. Three years
  2. Five years
  3. Six years or until attaining 65 years, whichever is earlier
  4. Six years or until attaining 62 years, whichever is earlier

Answer: (C) Six years or until attaining 65 years, whichever is earlier

Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner serves for six years or until the age of sixty-five, whichever comes first. This tenure applies under the election commissioners’ service framework, while constitutional removal safeguards protect independence from political pressure.

Q137. Which institution among the following is not a constitutional body?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 24 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
  2. Finance Commission
  3. National Commission for Minorities
  4. Union Public Service Commission

Answer: (C) National Commission for Minorities

Explanation: The National Commission for Minorities was established through legislation passed in 1992, making it statutory. The other three institutions derive their establishment directly from provisions of the Constitution: Articles 338, 280 and 315 respectively.

Q136. Who can remove a UPSC chairperson or member under Article 317 for insolvency or infirmity of mind or body?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 5 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  2. President of India
  3. Prime Minister
  4. Chief Justice of India

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: The President is the constitutional removal authority for members of the Union Public Service Commission. Insolvency and specified incapacity permit removal under Article 317 without the Supreme Court inquiry required for a charge of misbehaviour.

Q135. Who appoints the chairperson and other members of a State Public Service Commission?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 11 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Chief Justice of the High Court
  2. President of India
  3. Governor of the State
  4. Chief Minister

Answer: (C) Governor of the State

Explanation: The Governor appoints State Public Service Commission members under Article 316. However, their removal is entrusted to the President under Article 317. This difference helps maintain independence from the State executive whose recruitment practices the commission examines.

Q134. Which amendment split the combined constitutional commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into separate bodies?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 15 June 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. 44th Constitutional Amendment
  2. 89th Constitutional Amendment
  3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
  4. 86th Constitutional Amendment

Answer: (B) 89th Constitutional Amendment

Explanation: The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 divided the former combined commission into separate organizations. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes remained under Article 338, while Article 338A was inserted to provide for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

Q133. Who appoints the chairperson and members of a Joint State Public Service Commission?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 5 June 2026 (Shift 1)]

  1. President of India
  2. Attorney General of India
  3. Chief Justice of India
  4. Governors of the participating States

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: The President appoints members of a Joint State Public Service Commission. Such a joint commission may be established by Parliament following resolutions passed by the legislatures of the States concerned, unlike the separate commissions appointed by individual Governors.

Q132. To which authority does the UPSC submit its annual report?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 28 April 2026 (Shift 2)]

  1. Prime Minister
  2. Cabinet Secretary
  3. Parliament directly
  4. President of India

Answer: (D) President of India

Explanation: Under Article 323 the Union Public Service Commission presents its annual report to the President, who causes it to be laid before both Houses of Parliament. An explanatory memorandum addresses instances in which commission advice was not accepted.

Q131. Who appoints the Attorney General of India?

[Delhi Police Constable, 18 December 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. President
  2. Parliament
  3. Union Law Minister
  4. Prime Minister

Answer: (A) President

Explanation: The Attorney General is appointed by the President in accordance with Article 76. Although the Union executive advises the President, appointment authority formally rests with the President; the incumbent serves at presidential pleasure.

Q130. Which statement describes the Attorney General’s constitutional tenure?

[MP Police ASI and Subedar Stenographer, 17 December 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. The Constitution prescribes no fixed term
  2. Until age 65
  3. Exactly five years
  4. Exactly three years

Answer: (A) The Constitution prescribes no fixed term

Explanation: No fixed constitutional term is specified for the Attorney General of India. Under Article 76, the office is held during the pleasure of the President, unlike the defined statutory tenures of certain other constitutional officers.

Q129. Who was appointed the sixteenth Attorney General of India?

[SSC CPO, 12 December 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. R. Venkataramani
  2. Tushar Mehta
  3. Mukul Rohatgi
  4. K. K. Venugopal

Answer: (A) R. Venkataramani

Explanation: R. Venkataramani became the sixteenth Attorney General of India in October 2022. The President appoints the Attorney General under Article 76, and the incumbent acts as the Union’s principal constitutional legal adviser.

Q128. Which Article states that India shall have a Comptroller and Auditor General?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 29 November 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 142
  2. Article 144
  3. Article 146
  4. Article 148

Answer: (D) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 creates the Comptroller and Auditor General as an independent authority. Other provisions specify audit duties, accounting advice and presentation of reports, making the office central to parliamentary supervision of public finances.

Q127. Who appoints members of a State Public Service Commission?

[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Examination, 4 November 2025 (Shift 1)]

  1. Prime Minister
  2. Chief Justice
  3. Governor
  4. President

Answer: (C) Governor

Explanation: Article 316 places appointment of a State Public Service Commission’s Chairperson and members with the Governor. Removal safeguards are different: the President, not the Governor, possesses constitutional removal authority under Article 317.

Q126. GST Council statements:
I. set up through 101st Amendment;
II. Article 279A inserted;
III. chaired by Prime Minister.

Which are correct?

[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Examination, 1 November 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. II and III only
  2. I and II only
  3. I only
  4. I, II and III

Answer: (B) I and II only

Explanation: The 101st Amendment added Article 279A and provided for the GST Council. The Union Finance Minister, not the Prime Minister, chairs it; the body facilitates joint tax-policy recommendations by Union and State representatives.

Q125. For CAG, which are correct:
(a) modelled on Advocate General under 1919 Act;
(b) impartial audit head;
(c) President may remove alone;
(d) six-year term?

[OPSC Odisha Civil Services Preliminary, 12 October 2025]

  1. a and b
  2. a and c
  3. b and d
  4. All four

Answer: (C) b and d

Explanation: The CAG is India’s independent audit head and normally has a six-year term subject to the retirement age. The constitutional removal mechanism parallels that of a Supreme Court judge; a President cannot remove the CAG unilaterally.

Q124. Under which Article is the Finance Commission established?

[SSC CGL Tier I, 22 September 2025 (Shift 1)]

  1. Article 280
  2. Article 268
  3. Article 246
  4. Article 365

Answer: (A) Article 280

Explanation: Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission. It is constituted by the President and recommends Union–State tax distribution, grants-in-aid principles and specified measures for strengthening State finances and resources for local institutions.

Q123. Which statement about Finance Commission recommendations is correct?

[SSC CGL Tier I, 19 September 2025 (Shift 1)]

  1. They bind governments in every case
  2. Members have constitutionally guaranteed life tenure
  3. Recommendations are advisory, not legally binding
  4. The Commission sends reports directly to Parliament for enactment

Answer: (C) Recommendations are advisory, not legally binding

Explanation: Finance Commission recommendations are advisory, despite the Commission’s constitutional status. The report is submitted to the President, who causes it to be laid before Parliament with an explanatory memorandum on the action taken.

Q122. Which amendment gave the National Commission for Backward Classes constitutional status?

[IB ACIO Grade II, 17 September 2025 (Shift 1)]

  1. 97th
  2. 99th
  3. 103rd
  4. 102nd

Answer: (D) 102nd

Explanation: The Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act, 2018 inserted Article 338B creating a constitutional National Commission for Backward Classes. It also inserted Article 342A relating to identification of socially and educationally backward classes.

Q121. The CAG office is provided under which Article?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 8 September 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 324
  2. Article 148
  3. Article 280
  4. Article 76

Answer: (B) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 creates the office of Comptroller and Auditor General and provides for presidential appointment. Article 149 deals with audit duties, whereas Articles 280, 324 and 76 establish other constitutional authorities.

Q120. How many Vice-Chairpersons and additional members are in the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, besides its Chairperson?

[DSSSB TGT English, 24 August 2025 (Shift 3)]

  1. Two and three
  2. One and five
  3. One and three
  4. Two and four

Answer: (C) One and three

Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes has a Chairperson, one Vice-Chairperson and three other members. It investigates safeguards and complaints relating to Scheduled Castes and submits reports to the President under Article 338.

Q119. How many major Election Commission initiatives were launched on 1 May 2025 to improve electoral rolls and voting access?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 14 August 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. Six
  2. Three
  3. Two
  4. Four

Answer: (B) Three

Explanation: The paper referred to three initiatives announced by the Election Commission on 1 May 2025. The measures sought to improve electoral-roll accuracy and the ease of voting, supporting wider voter participation.

Q118. Which National Voters’ Day edition was celebrated on 25 January 2025?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 14 August 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. Fifth
  2. Fifteenth
  3. Twentieth
  4. Tenth

Answer: (B) Fifteenth

Explanation: The fifteenth National Voters’ Day was observed on 25 January 2025. National Voters’ Day was inaugurated in 2011 and falls on the anniversary of the Election Commission’s establishment on 25 January 1950.

Q117. CAG statements:
I. audits expenditure from Consolidated Fund;
II. controls issue and receipt of Consolidated Fund money;
III. audits substantially financed bodies.

Correct?

[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandants, 3 August 2025]

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III

Answer: (C) I and III only

Explanation: The CAG examines spending from the Consolidated Fund and accounts of substantially government-financed bodies. Unlike some overseas comptrollers, the Indian CAG does not authorize or control releases from the Consolidated Fund.

Q116. Who is Chairperson of India’s GST Council?

[Haryana CET, 27 July 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. RBI Governor
  2. Union Finance Minister
  3. Finance Secretary
  4. Prime Minister

Answer: (B) Union Finance Minister

Explanation: Article 279A names the Union Finance Minister as Chairperson of the GST Council. State finance or taxation ministers are members, along with the Union Minister of State responsible for finance or revenue.

Q115. Who became the 26th Chief Election Commissioner of India?

[SSC Selection Post Higher Secondary, 24 July 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. Gyanesh Kumar
  2. Rajiv Kumar
  3. Sushil Chandra
  4. Sunil Arora

Answer: (A) Gyanesh Kumar

Explanation: Gyanesh Kumar took office as the twenty-sixth Chief Election Commissioner in February 2025. He had previously served as an Election Commissioner; the Commission operates under Article 324 of the Constitution.

Q114. On which date was the Election Commission of India constituted?

[DFCCIL MTS, 11 July 2025 (Shift 1)]

  1. 25 January 1950
  2. 26 August 1950
  3. 26 November 1949
  4. 25 November 1950

Answer: (A) 25 January 1950

Explanation: The Election Commission was established on 25 January 1950, before the Republic’s first general elections. Article 324 places responsibility for supervising parliamentary, State legislative and presidential election processes with this independent constitutional authority.

Q113. Which Article concerns appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 24 June 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 148
  2. Article 147
  3. Article 145
  4. Article 146

Answer: (A) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 provides for the CAG and appointment by the President through warrant under hand and seal. The CAG’s audit authority and reporting relationship are governed by subsequent constitutional articles and legislation.

Q112. Which of these individuals held the office of CAG:
A. V. Narahari Rao,
B. Ranjan Gogoi,
C. Vinod Rai,
D. J. M. Lyngdoh,
E. Girish Chandra Murmu

[UGC NET Political Science, 26 June 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. A, C and D only
  2. C, D and E only
  3. A, C and E only
  4. B, C and E only

Answer: (C) A, C and E only

Explanation: V. Narahari Rao, Vinod Rai and Girish Chandra Murmu served as Comptrollers and Auditors General. Ranjan Gogoi served as Chief Justice of India and J. M. Lyngdoh as Chief Election Commissioner.

Q111. Which amendment created the separate constitutional National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?

[RPF Constable, 18 March 2025 (Shift 3)]

  1. 102nd
  2. 89th
  3. 85th
  4. 101st

Answer: (B) 89th

Explanation: The 89th Constitutional Amendment, 2003 separated the former joint commission. It inserted Article 338A for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes and retained Article 338 for the separate Scheduled Castes commission.

Q110. Who formally appoints State Public Service Commission members?

[RPF Constable, 6 March 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. State Chief Minister
  2. Governor
  3. President
  4. UPSC Chairperson

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: The Governor appoints the Chairperson and members of a State Public Service Commission under Article 316. Members, however, have constitutional independence safeguards, and removal is entrusted to the President under Article 317.

Q109. Under which Article may functions of a Public Service Commission be extended by law?

[RPF Constable, 5 March 2025 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 335
  2. Article 315
  3. Article 323
  4. Article 321

Answer: (D) Article 321

Explanation: Article 321 permits Parliament or a State legislature to enlarge the functions of its respective Public Service Commission by law. The additional duties may relate to services of local authorities, corporations or other public institutions.

Q108. Which amendment granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes?

[SSC GD Constable, 6 February 2025 (Shift 3)]

  1. 102nd Amendment, 2018
  2. 86th Amendment, 2002
  3. 104th Amendment, 2019
  4. 84th Amendment, 2001

Answer: (A) 102nd Amendment, 2018

Explanation: The 102nd Constitutional Amendment gave NCBC constitutional status in 2018. Its new Article 338B provides for monitoring and reviewing safeguards for socially and educationally backward classes and reporting to the President.

Q107. Which range of Articles deals with Public Service Commissions for the Union and States?

[SSC GD Constable, 4 February 2025 (Shift 1)]

  1. 210–219
  2. 300–320
  3. 330–338
  4. 315–323

Answer: (D) 315–323

Explanation: Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV set out the Public Service Commission framework. They address appointments, removal, restrictions on further employment, functions, expenses and annual reports, covering both the UPSC and State commissions.

Q106. Which item was NOT a recommendation subject for the Finance Commission constituted in December 2023?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary, 2 February 2025]

  1. Vertical division of net taxes
  2. Principles governing State grants-in-aid
  3. Supplementation of Panchayat and municipal resources
  4. Reviewing existing financing for climate-management initiatives

Answer: (D) Reviewing existing financing for climate-management initiatives

Explanation: The Sixteenth Finance Commission’s notified terms included tax devolution, grants-in-aid principles and strengthening local-body funding. A separate review of existing arrangements for climate-management financing was not listed in those terms.

Q105. Which Election Commission statement is correct?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary, 2 February 2025]

  1. It was established on 25 January 1952
  2. Multi-member decisions began only in 1995
  3. It advises on certain post-election disqualifications of sitting legislators
  4. ECs hold five years or till age sixty

Answer: (C) It advises on certain post-election disqualifications of sitting legislators

Explanation: The Election Commission advises the President and Governors regarding specified disqualifications of sitting parliamentary and State legislators under Articles 103 and 192. Its establishment was in January 1950, and the other dates and tenures are incorrect.

Q104. What is the Finance Commission’s primary constitutional task?

[70th BPSC Re-examination, 4 January 2025]

  1. Distributing revenue between Union and States
  2. Allocating every department’s budget
  3. Advising President on any financial matter
  4. Preparing the Union Budget

Answer: (A) Distributing revenue between Union and States

Explanation: Under Article 280, the Finance Commission principally recommends division of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and among States. It is not a budget-drafting body or a ministry-level fund allocator.

Q103. Who took office as an Election Commissioner on 15 March 2024?

[SSC GD Constable, 20 February 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. Manoj K. Keshav
  2. Meera Ravindran
  3. Ravi Methuen
  4. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu

Answer: (D) Sukhbir Singh Sandhu

Explanation: Sukhbir Singh Sandhu was appointed Election Commissioner in March 2024. The Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority established under Article 324 to supervise key national and State elections.

Q102. Who was the Comptroller and Auditor General of India as of October 2024?

[SSC GD Constable, 10 February 2025 (Shift 1)]

  1. Nirmala Sitharaman
  2. Shivraj Singh Chouhan
  3. Girish Chandra Murmu
  4. Manohar Lal

Answer: (C) Girish Chandra Murmu

Explanation: Girish Chandra Murmu held the CAG office in October 2024, having assumed it in August 2020. K. Sanjay Murthy succeeded him in November 2024; the time reference therefore matters for this PYQ.

Q101. Under which Article is the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities appointed?

[OSSSC CRE Preliminary, 13 October 2025 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 350B
  2. Article 342C
  3. Article 338
  4. Article 280

Answer: (A) Article 350B

Explanation: Article 350B authorizes the President to appoint a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. The officer investigates the working of constitutional safeguards for linguistic groups and sends reports to the President for parliamentary and State-level consideration.

Q100. Which statements about the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities are correct: 1 Punchhi Commission recommended its creation; 2 Ninth Amendment inserted Article 350B?

[OSSSC CRE Preliminary, 7 November 2025 (Shift 1)]

  1. Both 1 and 2
  2. Only 2
  3. Neither 1 nor 2
  4. Only 1

Answer: (C) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both propositions are incorrect. The original recommendation arose from the States Reorganisation Commission rather than the Punchhi Commission. Article 350B entered the Constitution through the Seventh Amendment Act, 1956, not through the Ninth Amendment.

Q99. Which officer investigates matters concerning constitutional protections for linguistic minorities?

[DSSSB TGT Natural Science, 6 September 2025 (Shift 3)]

  1. Prime Minister
  2. President
  3. Language Commission
  4. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

Answer: (D) Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

Explanation: The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, provided for by Article 350B, examines the safeguards available to linguistic minority communities. The officer reports findings to the President, who places relevant reports before Parliament and sends them to concerned State governments.

Q98. Which of these is not a constitutional body?

[SSC Stenographer, 10 December 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. National Commission for Backward Classes
  2. Comptroller and Auditor General
  3. Reserve Bank of India
  4. Election Commission of India

Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation: The Reserve Bank is a statutory institution created by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The other three are constitutional bodies under Articles 338B, 148 and 324 respectively.

Q97. Which Article obliges Union and State Public Service Commissions to hold recruitment examinations?

[RPF SI CBT-I, 13 December 2024 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 319
  2. Article 318
  3. Article 320
  4. Article 322

Answer: (C) Article 320

Explanation: Article 320 specifies the Public Service Commissions’ duty to conduct examinations for Union and State appointments, respectively. The article also defines consultation on appointments, promotions, disciplinary matters and service-related claims where applicable.

Q96. Which Article states that Public Service Commissions must exist for the Union and States, subject to constitutional provisions?

[RPF SI CBT-I, 13 December 2024 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 316
  2. Article 317
  3. Article 318
  4. Article 315

Answer: (D) Article 315

Explanation: Article 315 provides for a Public Service Commission for the Union and each State, subject to the framework for joint or otherwise authorized arrangements. The provision appears in Part XIV, Chapter II of the Constitution.

Q95. Which Article requires the President to appoint India’s CAG by warrant under hand and seal?

[RPF SI CBT-I, 13 December 2024 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 148
  2. Article 153
  3. Article 145
  4. Article 157

Answer: (A) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 establishes the CAG’s office and prescribes appointment by the President. The office enjoys safeguards against executive interference, with removal following the same procedure as for a judge of the Supreme Court.

Q94. Statements:
A. joint SC/ST commission was established under Article 339;
B. NCW under 1990 Act;
C. NCM under 1992 Act;
D. NHRC created by December 1993 ordinance.

Which hold?

[MPSC Rajyaseva Prelims, 1 December 2024]

  1. A and C
  2. B and D
  3. A and D
  4. B and C

Answer: (D) B and C

Explanation: The National Commission for Women has a 1990 founding statute, and the National Commission for Minorities was constituted under a 1992 Act. The joint SC/ST commission was not founded under Article 339, and the NHRC chronology in D is wrong.

Q93. Which Constitutional Amendment provided for creation of the GST Council?

[SSC CGL Tier I, 25 September 2024 (Shift 3)]

  1. 102nd Amendment
  2. 100th Amendment
  3. 101st Amendment
  4. 103rd Amendment

Answer: (C) 101st Amendment

Explanation: The 101st Amendment of 2016 inserted Article 279A, enabling creation of the GST Council. The Council serves as a constitutional forum for Union and State representatives to recommend GST policy and implementation measures.

Q92. In which Part of the Constitution do Election Commission provisions appear?

[SSC CGL Tier I, 25 September 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. Part XV
  2. Part XII
  3. Part IV
  4. Part XI

Answer: (A) Part XV

Explanation: Part XV contains Articles 324 to 329, covering elections. Article 324 specifically vests control over preparation of electoral rolls and national and State legislative elections in the Election Commission.

Q91. Which Article provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

[SSC CGL Tier I, 24 September 2024 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 154
  2. Article 156
  3. Article 148
  4. Article 136

Answer: (C) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 establishes the independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General. The President appoints the officeholder; reports later undergo legislative examination, commonly through the Public Accounts Committee.

Q90. In which year was the Election Commission of India established?

[SSC CGL Tier I, 17 September 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. 1955
  2. 1952
  3. 1950
  4. 1947

Answer: (C) 1950

Explanation: The Election Commission of India was established on 25 January 1950. It is an independent constitutional authority under Article 324 and supervises parliamentary, State legislative, presidential and vice-presidential election processes.

Q89. GST Council statements:
I. first meeting in October 2016;
II. Revenue Secretary ex-officio Council Secretary;
III. CBEC Chair a voting permanent invitee.

Which correct?

[RPSC Assistant Professor Political Science, 11 September 2024]

  1. I and III only
  2. All three
  3. II only
  4. I only

Answer: (C) II only

Explanation: The first GST Council meeting took place in September 2016, not October. The Revenue Secretary functions as ex-officio Secretary; the tax-board chairperson may attend as a permanent invitee without voting rights.

Q88. How many members did the GST Council have in the arrangement referred to by the examination?

[UP Police Constable Re-examination, 25 August 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. 30
  2. 33
  3. 40
  4. 25

Answer: (B) 33

Explanation: The examination used the figure of 33 members for the GST Council. Under Article 279A, its structure includes the Union Finance Minister, a Union Minister of State and representatives nominated by States.

Q87. Which statement about the Attorney General of India is incorrect?

[SSC Selection Post Matriculation, 20 June 2024 (Shift 4)]

  1. Must be eligible to become Supreme Court judge
  2. Office is established by Article 76
  3. Is the country’s highest legal officer
  4. Is appointed by the Prime Minister

Answer: (D) Is appointed by the Prime Minister

Explanation: The President, not the Prime Minister, formally appoints the Attorney General under Article 76. The appointee must possess Supreme Court judicial qualifications and advises the Union government on legal matters.

Q86. Which Article establishes Public Service Commissions for Union and States?

[DSSSB Jail Warder, 20 June 2024 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 123
  2. Article 280
  3. Article 315
  4. Article 100

Answer: (C) Article 315

Explanation: Article 315 provides for Public Service Commissions for the Union and States. The institutions independently assist merit-based public recruitment, while later articles cover terms, removal safeguards and consultation functions.

Q85. Who was Chairperson of the GST Council as of 31 January 2024?

[DSSSB Jail Warder, 19 June 2024 (Shift 2)]

  1. Rajnath Singh
  2. Nirmala Sitharaman
  3. K. Sundarajan
  4. Arvind Panagariya

Answer: (B) Nirmala Sitharaman

Explanation: Nirmala Sitharaman, then Union Finance Minister, chaired the GST Council. Article 279A makes the Union Finance Minister the ex-officio Chairperson, so the office follows the ministerial position rather than a separate appointment.

Q84. Who presides over the GST Council?

[DSSSB Jail Warder, 14 June 2024 (Shift 2)]

  1. Prime Minister
  2. President
  3. Chief Minister
  4. Union Finance Minister

Answer: (D) Union Finance Minister

Explanation: The Union Finance Minister chairs the GST Council under Article 279A. The Council is a platform for cooperative federalism, recommending tax slabs, exemptions, model laws and related GST administrative decisions.

Q83. Who appoints India’s Comptroller and Auditor General?

[DSSSB Jail Warder, 11 June 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. Prime Minister
  2. Parliament
  3. President
  4. Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C) President

Explanation: The President appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General under Article 148 by warrant under hand and seal. Despite presidential appointment, the CAG has protected service conditions and an enhanced removal procedure to secure impartial auditing.

Q82. Under the Supreme Court’s March 2023 interim order, which committee was to recommend Election Commissioner appointments?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 10 July 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. PM, CJI and Lok Sabha Speaker
  2. PM, Opposition Leader and Lok Sabha Speaker
  3. PM, Opposition Leader and CJI
  4. PM, Opposition Leader and Rajya Sabha Chair

Answer: (C) PM, Opposition Leader and CJI

Explanation: The March 2023 Supreme Court interim arrangement included the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition and the Chief Justice of India. Parliament subsequently enacted a different statutory appointment framework in December 2023.

Q81. Which constitutional Article directly concerns the Election Commission of India?

[SSC GD Constable, 30 March 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. Article 322
  2. Article 324
  3. Article 321
  4. Article 323

Answer: (B) Article 324

Explanation: Article 324 vests election supervision, direction and control in the Election Commission. Articles 321 to 323 instead relate to Public Service Commissions, so they do not establish the Election Commission.

Q80. Which among these is a constitutional body?

[SSC GD Constable, 22 February 2024 (Shift 3)]

  1. National Human Rights Commission
  2. Food Corporation of India
  3. Law Commission of India
  4. Election Commission of India

Answer: (D) Election Commission of India

Explanation: The Election Commission is established directly under Article 324. The NHRC and Food Corporation arise from statutes, whereas the Law Commission is constituted through executive action and is not itself a constitutional institution.

Q79. Evaluate Finance Commission statements:
I. Sixteenth Commission chaired by Arvind Panagariya;
II. Commission constituted under Article 263.

Which is correct?

[NDA General Ability Test, 21 April 2024]

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both
  4. Neither

Answer: (A) I only

Explanation: The Sixteenth Finance Commission was constituted under Arvind Panagariya. The applicable constitutional provision is Article 280, not Article 263, which addresses the Inter-State Council.

Q78. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
I. one such officer for each State;
II. Article 350B inserted by Ninth Amendment.

Which correct?

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary GS-I 2024]

  1. Neither I nor II
  2. I only
  3. II only
  4. Both

Answer: (A) Neither I nor II

Explanation: Article 350B creates a centrally appointed Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, not a separate officer for every State. The Seventh Amendment of 1956, rather than the Ninth, inserted that Article.

Q77. Within how many days was the President required to constitute the GST Council after commencement of the 101st Amendment?

[UP Police Assistant Operator, 4 February 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. 600 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 6000 days
  4. 60 days

Answer: (D) 60 days

Explanation: Article 279A required constitution of the GST Council within sixty days after the relevant 101st Amendment provision commenced. This ensured the intergovernmental institutional mechanism existed before the nationwide GST system became operational.

Q76. Which Article provides for India’s Comptroller and Auditor General?

[IB ACIO Grade II, 18 January 2024 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 165
  2. Article 125
  3. Article 368
  4. Article 148

Answer: (D) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 creates the CAG, while Article 149 addresses duties and powers prescribed by Parliament. The institution examines public accounts and reports on expenditure, helping legislatures hold the executive accountable.

Q75. A party winning at least four Lok Sabha seats and 6% valid votes in four States may qualify as a national party. What is that vote threshold?

[SSC MTS, 1 October 2024 (Shift 1)]

  1. Eight per cent
  2. Three per cent
  3. One per cent
  4. Six per cent

Answer: (D) Six per cent

Explanation: The Election Symbols Order provides various routes to recognition as a national party. One route requires at least six per cent of valid votes in four or more States along with four Lok Sabha seats.

Q74. Who was appointed a national icon by the Election Commission to promote participation before the 2024 polls?

[SSC GD Constable, 26 February 2024 (Shift 2)]

  1. M. S. Dhoni
  2. Amitabh Bachchan
  3. Aamir Khan
  4. Sachin Tendulkar

Answer: (D) Sachin Tendulkar

Explanation: The Election Commission associated Sachin Tendulkar with voter-awareness campaigns to motivate eligible electors, particularly younger voters. The initiative aligned with the Commission’s broader voter-education and participation activities.

Q73. Of the following, how many are constitutional bodies:
National Commission for Backward Classes,
National Human Rights Commission,
Law Commission,
National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2023]

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. All four

Answer: (A) One

Explanation: Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is constitutional, under Article 338B. The NHRC and consumer disputes commission are statutory institutions, while the Law Commission is constituted through executive arrangements.

Q72. For Fifteenth Finance Commission horizontal devolution, how many were used besides population,
area and income distance: demographic performance, forest/ecology, governance reform, stable government, tax/fiscal effort?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2023]

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five

Answer: (B) Three

Explanation: The Fifteenth Finance Commission considered demographic performance, forest and ecology, and tax and fiscal efforts. Stable government and general governance reforms were not criteria in the horizontal tax-devolution formula.

Q71. What was the maximum prescribed tenure of India’s Comptroller and Auditor General?

[MPPSC State Services Preliminary GS-I, 17 December 2023]

  1. Four years
  2. Five years
  3. Six years
  4. Seven years

Answer: (C) Six years

Explanation: The CAG normally serves for six years from taking office or until attaining age sixty-five, whichever occurs first. The CAG enjoys significant institutional safeguards for independent auditing of Union and State public expenditure.

Q70. Who chaired the Twelfth Finance Commission of India?

[MPPSC State Services Preliminary GS-I, 17 December 2023]

  1. A. M. Khusro
  2. C. Rangarajan
  3. Vijay Kelkar
  4. Y. V. Reddy

Answer: (B) C. Rangarajan

Explanation: C. Rangarajan chaired the Twelfth Finance Commission constituted in 2002. Finance Commissions are periodically established under Article 280 to recommend sharing of tax proceeds and principles for grants-in-aid.

Q69. Union Finance Commission statements:
I. consists of a Chairperson and six members;
II. submits its report to NITI Aayog.

Which correct?

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary GS-I, 14 May 2023]

  1. Both
  2. II only
  3. Neither
  4. I only

Answer: (C) Neither

Explanation: The Finance Commission consists of a Chairperson and four other members. It submits its report to the President, not NITI Aayog; its fiscal recommendations are constitutional but advisory in nature.

Q68. Which institution formally recognizes political parties in India?

[WBCS Mains (Polity and Economy) 2023]

  1. Election Commission
  2. Lok Sabha Speaker
  3. President
  4. Law Commission

Answer: (A) Election Commission

Explanation: The Election Commission recognizes national and State political parties using criteria under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. Recognition also determines entitlement to reserved election symbols and related privileges.

Q67. Who appoints the members of the Election Commission of India?

[WBCS Mains (Polity and Economy) 2023]

  1. Vice-President
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Chief Justice of India
  4. President

Answer: (D) President

Explanation: Under Article 324, appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners is formally made by the President, subject to parliamentary legislation governing the selection process and conditions of service.

Q66. Which Article establishes the office of the Attorney General of India?

[WBCS Mains (Polity and Economy) 2023]

  1. Article 78
  2. Article 76
  3. Article 67
  4. Article 113

Answer: (B) Article 76

Explanation: Article 76 establishes the Attorney General, appointed by the President from persons qualified to become Supreme Court judges. The Attorney General acts as the Union’s leading legal adviser and enjoys a right of audience throughout India.

Q65. On what date was the Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission established?

[MPPSC State Services Preliminary 2022, held 21 May 2023]

  1. 15 January 1994
  2. 1 February 1994
  3. 15 March 1994
  4. 15 April 1994

Answer: (B) 1 February 1994

Explanation: The Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission was established on 1 February 1994 and began working later that month. The State Election Commission is responsible for local-body elections under the constitutional decentralization framework.

Q64. Which constitutional Article establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

[SSC MTS, 14 June 2023 (Shift 1)]

  1. Article 337
  2. Article 344
  3. Article 343
  4. Article 338

Answer: (D) Article 338

Explanation: Article 338 contains constitutional provisions for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. The Commission examines safeguards and complaints relating to Scheduled Castes and reports to the President on implementation of protective measures.

Q63. GST Council assertions:
I. chaired by Union Finance Commissioner;
II. Article 279A joint Union–State forum;
III. recommends GST matters to governments.

Which correct?

[PPSC Naib Tehsildar, 18 June 2023]

  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. I and III
  4. All three

Answer: (B) II and III

Explanation: Article 279A creates the Council as a joint Centre–State forum that makes GST recommendations. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not a constitutional official called the Union Finance Commissioner.

Q62. Which Article deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

[Delhi Police Constable, 22 November 2023 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 338
  2. Article 335
  3. Article 336
  4. Article 337

Answer: (A) Article 338

Explanation: Article 338 provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, which monitors the constitutional and legal protections afforded to Scheduled Castes. The separate Scheduled Tribes commission falls under Article 338A.

Q61. Which Article empowers the President to constitute the GST Council?

[Delhi Police Constable, 21 November 2023 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 279A
  2. Article 277A
  3. Article 280A
  4. Article 278A

Answer: (A) Article 279A

Explanation: Article 279A, inserted by the 101st Amendment, provides for the President to constitute the GST Council. Its members advise on rates, exemptions, thresholds and other aspects of harmonizing Goods and Services Tax.

Q60. Who belongs to the GST Council:
A. Union Finance Minister;
B. Prime Minister;
C. Union Minister of State for Revenue/Finance;
D. State nominee ministers;
E. Union Finance Secretary

[UGC NET Political Science, 6 March 2023 (Shift 2)]

  1. A, B, C
  2. C, D, E
  3. A, C, D
  4. A, B, C, D

Answer: (C) A, C, D

Explanation: The Union Finance Minister chairs, the Union Minister of State for Revenue or Finance participates, and every State nominates an appropriate minister. The Prime Minister and Finance Secretary are not voting Council members under Article 279A.

Q59. Who chairs the GST Council?

[MP Police Constable, 20 August 2023 (Shift 1)]

  1. Union Finance Minister
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Home Minister
  4. RBI Governor

Answer: (A) Union Finance Minister

Explanation: Article 279A names the Union Finance Minister as chair of the GST Council. State and Union representatives participate in its deliberations over indirect tax rates, exemptions and harmonization matters.

Q58. What is the expansion of the acronym GST?

[WBCS Mains (Polity and Economy) 2023]

  1. Goods and Services Trade
  2. Goods and Services Tax
  3. Government Services Tax
  4. None of the above

Answer: (B) Goods and Services Tax

Explanation: GST stands for Goods and Services Tax, a destination-based indirect levy introduced in July 2017. The Council governing GST recommendations was constitutionally created under Article 279A by the 101st Amendment.

Q57. Which Article establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

[MPPSC State Services 2022 Preliminary, held 21 May 2023]

  1. Article 332
  2. Article 338
  3. Article 342
  4. Article 328

Answer: (B) Article 338

Explanation: Article 338 provides for the separate National Commission for Scheduled Castes. The commission investigates safeguards and complaints and may present reports and recommendations concerning the welfare and rights of Scheduled Castes.

Q56. Who is not part of the GST Council under its constitutional composition?

[SSC JE Mechanical, 9 October 2023 (Shift 2)]

  1. Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories
  2. Union Finance Minister
  3. Union Minister of State for Finance/Revenue
  4. State-nominated Finance or Taxation Ministers

Answer: (A) Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories

Explanation: The Council includes the Union Finance Minister, the relevant Union Minister of State and ministers nominated by States. Lieutenant Governors are not listed as its members under Article 279A.

Q55. What weight do Central government votes carry in GST Council decision-making?

[Bihar STET PGT Commerce, 9 September 2023 (Shift 1)]

  1. One-third of votes cast
  2. One-half
  3. Two-thirds
  4. None

Answer: (A) One-third of votes cast

Explanation: Article 279A(9) gives the Union government a one-third vote weight and States together a two-thirds weight. Important Council decisions require the prescribed weighted majority of votes cast.

Q54. Which Article originally addressed the combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

[WBCS Mains (Polity and Economy) 2023]

  1. Article 337
  2. Article 334
  3. Article 338
  4. Article 339

Answer: (C) Article 338

Explanation: Article 338 originally provided the combined framework for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The 89th Amendment reorganized the institutions, leaving the separate SC commission under Article 338 and adding Article 338A for STs.

Q53. Which are members of the GST Council:
I. Union Finance Minister;
II. Union Minister of State for Finance/Revenue;
III. State-nominated ministers

[SSC GD Constable, 23 January 2023 (Shift 3)]

  1. III only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III
  4. I only

Answer: (C) I, II and III

Explanation: All three categories of officials are included in Article 279A’s GST Council composition. The Union Finance Minister chairs it, and State-nominated ministers represent their respective governments in tax-policy deliberations.

Q52. Which Article concerns the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?

[UPSSSC Village Development Officer re-exam, 26 June 2023 (Shift 1)]

  1. Article 333
  2. Article 338
  3. Article 326
  4. Article 330

Answer: (B) Article 338

Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is established under Article 338. The Commission oversees the implementation of constitutional safeguards and can investigate complaints concerning deprivation of Scheduled Castes’ rights.

Q51. Who holds the chair of the GST Council?

[DDA Junior Secretariat Assistant, 24 September 2023 (Shift 4)]

  1. Reserve Bank Governor
  2. Union Finance Minister
  3. Prime Minister
  4. President

Answer: (B) Union Finance Minister

Explanation: The Union Finance Minister presides over the GST Council by virtue of Article 279A. The Council gives coordinated recommendations on indirect taxation to both Union and State governments.

Q50. Assertion: National Commission for Scheduled Castes is constitutional.
Reason: it is created under Article 338A. Choose correct.

[MP Forest Guard and Jail Prahari, 16 June 2023 (Shift 2)]

  1. Assertion true; Reason false
  2. Both false
  3. Both true but unrelated
  4. Both true and explanatory

Answer: (A) Assertion true; Reason false

Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is indeed a constitutional body, but it is provided under Article 338. Article 338A instead concerns the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, so the stated reason is false.

Q49. Who was appointed Attorney General of India in September 2022?

[SSC CHSL Tier I 2022, held 10 March 2023 (Shift 2)]

  1. Mukul Rohatgi
  2. Ram Jethmalani
  3. R. Venkataramani
  4. K. K. Venugopal

Answer: (C) R. Venkataramani

Explanation: R. Venkataramani was appointed Attorney General in September 2022 and assumed office on 1 October 2022. He succeeded K. K. Venugopal. The post, provided under Article 76, serves as the Union Government’s principal legal adviser.

Q48. Assess:
I. Attorney General and Solicitor General are the only government officers entitled to participate in Parliament;
II. the Constitution requires the Attorney General to resign when the appointing ministry resigns.

Which correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2022]

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both
  4. Neither

Answer: (D) Neither

Explanation: The Solicitor General lacks the Attorney General’s special constitutional parliamentary participation right, and other persons such as ministers also participate. Resignation on a government change is conventional, not prescribed by the Constitution.

Q47. Which Article requires appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities by the President?

[SSC Selection Post Matriculation, 2 February 2022 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 234A
  2. Article 167B
  3. Article 345
  4. Article 350B

Answer: (D) Article 350B

Explanation: Article 350B mandates a Special Officer appointed by the President to examine safeguards for linguistic minorities. The provision was inserted by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment of 1956 following linguistic reorganization debates.

[MPPSC State Service 2021 Preliminary, held 19 June 2022]

  1. Chief Justice of India
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Vice-President
  4. None of these

Answer: (D) None of these

Explanation: Article 151 requires the CAG to submit Union audit reports to the President, who causes their presentation before Parliament. Because President was not among the first three listed choices, none of these was correct.

Q45. Election Commissioner statements:
I CEC draws Supreme Court judge-equivalent salary;
II six years or age 65;
III ordinary EC resigns to CEC.

Correct?

[MPPSC State Service 2021 Preliminary, held 19 June 2022]

  1. I and III
  2. I and II
  3. All three
  4. III only

Answer: (B) I and II

Explanation: At the time of the paper, the first two descriptions reflected the statutory pay and tenure scheme. The Election Commissioners resigned to the President, not the Chief Election Commissioner. Pay provisions have since been amended.

Q44. Who has the authority to approve or refuse leave for the Comptroller and Auditor General?

[MPPSC State Service 2021 Preliminary, held 19 June 2022]

  1. Finance Minister
  2. President
  3. Prime Minister
  4. Chief Justice of India

Answer: (B) President

Explanation: The President is the competent authority in respect of CAG leave under the applicable service-condition framework. Article 148 also provides the constitutional foundation of this independent audit office and protects its service terms.

Q43. Who appoints a State Election Commissioner?

[MPPSC State Service 2021 Preliminary, held 19 June 2022]

  1. Governor
  2. President
  3. Chief Justice of High Court
  4. Home Minister

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Article 243K provides that the State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor. Independent State commissions administer Panchayat elections, with analogous provisions for municipal elections under Article 243ZA.

Q42. Who was appointed the Attorney General of India by President Droupadi Murmu for a three-year term in 2022?

[SSC CGL Tier I, 7 December 2022 (Shift 1)]

  1. Shehan Karunatilaka
  2. D. Y. Chandrachud
  3. Rishi Sunak
  4. R. Venkataramani

Answer: (D) R. Venkataramani

Explanation: Senior advocate R. Venkataramani was appointed as Attorney General in September 2022 and succeeded K. K. Venugopal. Unlike judges, the Attorney General holds office at the pleasure of the President under Article 76.

Q41. Who held the office of Attorney General of India on 30 May 2022?

[Punjab and Haryana High Court Clerk, 3 October 2022 (Shift 3)]

  1. Mukul Rohatgi
  2. Soli Sorabjee
  3. K. K. Venugopal
  4. Goolam Vahanvati

Answer: (C) K. K. Venugopal

Explanation: K. K. Venugopal served as Attorney General throughout May 2022. He entered office in July 2017 after Mukul Rohatgi and was succeeded by R. Venkataramani in October 2022, making the reference date central to the answer.

Q40. The Election Commission of India is constituted through appointment by whom?

[WBCS Preliminary, 22 August 2021]

  1. Vice-President
  2. Prime Minister
  3. President
  4. Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C) President

Explanation: Article 324 vests appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners in the President, subject to relevant legislation. The independent Election Commission supervises the conduct of parliamentary, State legislative and presidential elections.

Q39. The Election Commission of India is which kind of institution?

[WBCS Mains 2021, conducted May 2022 (Paper V)]

  1. Constitutional body
  2. Statutory body
  3. Private body
  4. Government-controlled body

Answer: (A) Constitutional body

Explanation: The Election Commission is directly created by Article 324 of the Constitution, so it is a constitutional body. Its independence is important for conducting elections without improper control by the government of the day.

Q38. Which elections are administered by the Election Commission of India?

[WBCS Mains 2021, conducted May 2022 (Paper V)]

  1. Parliament, State legislatures, President and Vice-President
  2. Parliament and State councils only
  3. Parliament only
  4. Parliament and State assemblies only

Answer: (A) Parliament, State legislatures, President and Vice-President

Explanation: The Election Commission of India oversees elections to Parliament, State legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President. Elections for Panchayats and Municipalities instead come under the relevant State Election Commissions.

Q37. What is the primary duty of the Union Finance Commission?

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary GS-I, 24 October 2021]

  1. Recommending Union–State tax distribution
  2. Preparing the Union Budget
  3. General financial advice to President
  4. Allocating department-level expenditure

Answer: (A) Recommending Union–State tax distribution

Explanation: Under Article 280, the Finance Commission recommends how divisible Union tax proceeds are apportioned between Union and States and among States. Preparing the Union Budget is instead an executive function.

Q36. Assertion: President determines Finance Commission members’ qualifications.
Reason: President appoints its Chairperson and members.

Choose correct.

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary GS-I, 24 October 2021]

  1. Both true; reason explains assertion
  2. Both true; reason not explanation
  3. Assertion true; reason false
  4. Assertion false; reason true

Answer: (D) Assertion false; reason true

Explanation: The President appoints the members, but Article 280 allows Parliament to determine their qualifications and selection method by law. Consequently the assertion is false while the reason accurately states the appointing authority.

Q35. Who heads the Goods and Services Tax Council?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 16 October 2020 (Shift 1)]

  1. SEBI Chairperson
  2. Prime Minister
  3. RBI Governor
  4. Union Finance Minister

Answer: (D) Union Finance Minister

Explanation: The Union Finance Minister chairs the GST Council as provided by Article 279A. Other members include the Union Minister of State for finance or revenue and State ministers responsible for finance or taxation.

Q34. On which date was the Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission set up?

[MPPSC General Studies Official Paper 2020]

  1. 1 February 1994
  2. 1 March 1994
  3. 1 April 1994
  4. 1 May 1994

Answer: (A) 1 February 1994

Explanation: The Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission was constituted on 1 February 1994 to administer elections to local government institutions. It began operations on 15 February, and the office has constitutional protection.

Q33. CAG statements:
I. audits receipts payable into Consolidated Fund;
II. has authority to audit accounts of stores and stock in Union/State offices.

Which correct?

[MPPSC General Studies Official Paper 2020]

  1. Neither
  2. Both
  3. Only II
  4. Only I

Answer: (B) Both

Explanation: The CAG audits government receipts to verify assessment and collection and may audit stores and stock accounts kept by Union or State departments. These powers derive from constitutional and statutory audit provisions.

Q32. Girish Chandra Murmu became which numbered CAG of India?

[CGPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2020]

  1. 12th
  2. 13th
  3. 14th
  4. 15th

Answer: (C) 14th

Explanation: Girish Chandra Murmu became the fourteenth Comptroller and Auditor General in August 2020, succeeding Rajiv Mehrishi. The CAG is constitutionally established under Article 148 and heads the public audit system.

Q31. Which stated fact about the Fifteenth Finance Commission was incorrect for this examination?

[UPPSC Block Education Officer, 16 August 2020]

  1. Constituted in November 2017
  2. N. K. Singh chaired it
  3. Recommendations cover 2021–26
  4. Final report was due 30 August 2020

Answer: (D) Final report was due 30 August 2020

Explanation: The Fifteenth Finance Commission was appointed in November 2017 under N. K. Singh and was asked to report on the 2021–26 period. The listed August submission date was not correct.

Q30. Which constitutional Article provides for the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?

[Delhi Police Constable, 14 December 2020 (Shift 3)]

  1. Article 351
  2. Article 350B
  3. Article 350A
  4. Article 352

Answer: (B) Article 350B

Explanation: Article 350B, inserted by the Seventh Amendment, provides for a Special Officer appointed by the President. This officer investigates matters concerning constitutional safeguards for linguistic minorities and reports to the President about the operation of those protections.

Q29. Which Article prescribes the CAG’s duties and powers?

[MPPSC General Studies Official Paper 2019]

  1. Article 146
  2. Article 147
  3. Article 148
  4. Article 149

Answer: (D) Article 149

Explanation: Article 149 authorizes Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General. Article 148 establishes the office, while Article 151 covers presentation of audit reports.

Q28. Who was NOT a Madhya Pradesh State Election Commissioner among these?

[MPPSC General Studies Official Paper 2019]

  1. Gopal Sharan Shukla
  2. R. Parshuram
  3. Ajit Raizada
  4. Avni Vaishya

Answer: (D) Avni Vaishya

Explanation: Gopal Sharan Shukla, Ajit Raizada and R. Parshuram served as State Election Commissioners in Madhya Pradesh. Avni Vaishya served as a senior administrative officer but did not hold that Election Commissioner post.

Q27. Which statement concerning the Advocate General is false?

[SSC Selection Post Graduate Level, 17 January 2019 (Shift 3)]

  1. Appointed by the President of India
  2. Each State has an Advocate General
  3. Appointed by the State Governor
  4. Performs a role comparable to Union Attorney General

Answer: (A) Appointed by the President of India

Explanation: Article 165 says the Governor appoints a State Advocate General. The President instead appoints the Attorney General of India under Article 76. Both posts provide legal advice at their respective levels.

Q26. Which Article governs State Election Commission supervision of rural local-body elections?

[MPPSC General Studies Official Paper 2019]

  1. Article 243K
  2. Article 243L
  3. Article 243M
  4. Article 243N

Answer: (A) Article 243K

Explanation: Article 243K vests Panchayat electoral supervision in a State Election Commission. The officeholder is appointed by the Governor, while constitutional safeguards protect removal conditions to promote electoral independence.

Q25. What is the commonly described nature of the Finance Commission under Article 280?

[RPF Constable 2018 paper, held 5 February 2019]

  1. Administrative body
  2. Quasi-judicial body
  3. Judicial body
  4. Non-statutory body

Answer: (B) Quasi-judicial body

Explanation: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body often described as quasi-judicial because of its statutory powers to summon witnesses and obtain records. Its central function remains making recommendations about tax sharing, grants and fiscal relations between governments.

Q24. How is the Finance Commission constitutionally classified?

[RPF Constable 2018 paper, held 14 February 2019]

  1. Quasi-federal body
  2. Quasi-judicial body only
  3. Constitutional body
  4. Executive body

Answer: (C) Constitutional body

Explanation: Article 280 explicitly provides for a Finance Commission constituted by the President, making it constitutional rather than merely executive. It recommends fiscal transfers and tax devolution between the Union and States to support cooperative fiscal federalism.

Q23. Who chaired the Fourteenth Finance Commission of India?

[RPF Constable 2018 paper, held 19 January 2019 (Shift 3)]

  1. Y. V. Reddy
  2. C. Rangarajan
  3. Vijay Kelkar
  4. N. K. Singh

Answer: (A) Y. V. Reddy

Explanation: Y. V. Reddy, a former Reserve Bank Governor, chaired the Fourteenth Finance Commission. Its recommendations concerned the 2015–2020 period, including a substantial increase in the States’ share of divisible Union tax revenue.

Q22. At what regular interval is the Finance Commission constituted?

[BARC UDC/JPA/JSK 2018 paper, held 10 March 2019]

  1. Every year
  2. Every four years
  3. Every two years
  4. Every five years

Answer: (D) Every five years

Explanation: Article 280 provides for constitution of the Finance Commission every fifth year or earlier when the President considers it necessary. Each commission recommends tax sharing and grants suitable for its assigned period of fiscal assessment.

Q21. Which office is not appointed by the President of India?

[UP Police Constable, 19 June 2018 (Shift 2)]

  1. High Court judge
  2. Advocate General of State
  3. Governor
  4. Attorney General of India

Answer: (B) Advocate General of State

Explanation: The State Advocate General is appointed by the Governor under Article 165. The President appoints High Court judges, State Governors and the Union Attorney General under their respective constitutional provisions.

Q20. Which Article of the Indian Constitution establishes the Finance Commission?

[MP Vyapam AAO, 4 August 2018 (Shift 2)]

  1. Article 280
  2. Article 282
  3. Article 284
  4. Article 283

Answer: (A) Article 280

Explanation: Article 280 provides the constitutional basis for the Finance Commission. Article 282 concerns discretionary grants, while Articles 283 and 284 address custody of public funds and deposits; these provisions have different financial purposes.

Q19. Who served as Chairperson of the Fifteenth Finance Commission?

[KVS Trained Graduate Teacher Official Paper 2018]

  1. Ramesh Chand
  2. N. K. Singh
  3. Y. V. Reddy
  4. Ashok Lahiri

Answer: (B) N. K. Singh

Explanation: N. K. Singh was appointed chairperson of the Fifteenth Finance Commission, established in 2017. The commission evaluated Union–State financial sharing for a subsequent award period and considered recommendations on taxation, grants and fiscal management.

Q18. Who was chairperson of the Fourteenth Finance Commission?

[RPF Sub-Inspector, 19 December 2018 (Shift 3)]

  1. C. Rangarajan
  2. N. K. Singh
  3. Y. V. Reddy
  4. Vijay Kelkar

Answer: (C) Y. V. Reddy

Explanation: Y. V. Reddy headed the Fourteenth Finance Commission, established in January 2013. C. Rangarajan, Vijay Kelkar and N. K. Singh chaired other Finance Commissions, so identifying the ordinal number is essential to this question.

Q17. Election Commission claims: I a five-member body; II Home Ministry fixes election dates; III Commission settles recognized-party split disputes. Which correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2017]

  1. I and II only
  2. II only
  3. II and III only
  4. III only

Answer: (D) III only

Explanation: The Election Commission is not constitutionally fixed at five members and decides election schedules independently of the Home Ministry. It also recognizes parties, allots symbols and adjudicates specified party split disputes.

Q16. Who was the incumbent CAG named in the 2017 recruitment paper?

[CIL Management Trainee Electrical, 2017]

  1. Mukul Rohatgi
  2. Shashikant Sharma
  3. Vinod Rai
  4. V. N. Kaul

Answer: (B) Shashikant Sharma

Explanation: Shashikant Sharma served as CAG until September 2017, when Rajiv Mehrishi succeeded him. This is a date-dependent historical question; officeholders have changed since the original examination.

Q15. Match CAG, Finance Commission, Administrative Tribunal and UPSC to Articles 148, 280, 323A and 315. Which mapping is right?

[UPPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2016]

  1. CAG–148, FC–280, Tribunal–323A, UPSC–315
  2. CAG–148, FC–323A, Tribunal–280, UPSC–315
  3. CAG–315, FC–280, Tribunal–323A, UPSC–148
  4. CAG–323A, FC–315, Tribunal–148, UPSC–280

Answer: (A) CAG–148, FC–280, Tribunal–323A, UPSC–315

Explanation: The Constitution places the CAG under Article 148, Finance Commission under Article 280, administrative tribunals under Article 323A and Public Service Commissions under Article 315. These are distinct constitutional provisions.

Q14. What is the constitutional status of a State Finance Commission?

[UPPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2016]

  1. Legal body only
  2. Non-statutory body
  3. Constitutional body
  4. None of these

Answer: (C) Constitutional body

Explanation: State Finance Commissions are constitutional bodies established under Articles 243I and 243Y. Their five-year reviews help determine financial arrangements for Panchayats and Municipalities within each State.

Q13. Who suggested merging the Finance Commission and Planning Commission?

[MPPSC General Studies Official Paper 2015]

  1. D. D. Basu
  2. Bhalchandra Goswami
  3. M. V. Mathur
  4. Ashutosh Pandey

Answer: (C) M. V. Mathur

Explanation: M. V. Mathur was associated with the proposal to merge the Finance and Planning Commissions. The Finance Commission has constitutional backing through Article 280, unlike the erstwhile executive Planning Commission.

Q12. Assertion: State Finance Commission is constitutional.
Reason: Union Finance Commission cannot recommend support for Panchayats.

Select correct.

[UPPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 10 May 2015]

  1. Both true; reason explains
  2. Both true; not explanation
  3. Assertion true; reason false
  4. Assertion false; reason true

Answer: (C) Assertion true; reason false

Explanation: State Finance Commissions are constitutional institutions under Article 243I. But the Union Finance Commission can recommend measures under Article 280 to augment State funds supporting Panchayats; therefore the reason is false.

Q11. Which Article contains the core provision concerning the Election Commission?

[MPPSC General Studies Official Paper 2014]

  1. Article 320
  2. Article 322
  3. Article 324
  4. None of these

Answer: (C) Article 324

Explanation: Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control over specified election processes in the Election Commission of India. Articles 320 and 322 relate to Public Service Commission functions and expenses, respectively.

Q10. Can the Attorney General of India (
1) participate in Lok Sabha proceedings,
(2) sit on its committee,
(3) speak there,
(4) vote there?

Which apply?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2013]

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Attorney General may speak in and participate in parliamentary proceedings, joint sittings and committees to which the officeholder belongs. The special right under Article 88 never includes voting power.

Q9. CAG claims:
I. controls exchequer in emergencies;
II. PAC discusses its project audits;
III. audits may inform investigators;
IV. has prosecution powers for companies.

Which correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2012]

  1. I, II and IV only
  2. II only
  3. II and III only
  4. All four

Answer: (C) II and III only

Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee examines CAG findings, and audit evidence may assist investigations. The CAG neither exercises emergency exchequer control nor possesses prosecution powers over audited companies.

Q8. Regarding Thirteenth Finance Commission:
I. GST design with compensation;
II. plan for lakhs of new jobs;
III. local-body grants.

Which correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2012]

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. All three

Answer: (C) I and III only

Explanation: The Thirteenth Finance Commission discussed a GST framework and compensation arrangements, as well as grants benefiting local bodies. A ten-year job-creation design was not one of the specified recommendations in this question.

Q7. Who chaired the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

[UPPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2012]

  1. Indira Rajaraman
  2. C. Rangarajan
  3. Vijay Kelkar
  4. None of these

Answer: (C) Vijay Kelkar

Explanation: Vijay Kelkar chaired the Thirteenth Finance Commission, constituted in 2007. Its recommendations covered financial arrangements for 2010–15, including Centre–State tax sharing and grants.

Q6. Which statement describes the Finance Commission: encourages foreign investment; shares funds among PSUs; assures financial-administration transparency; or none?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2011]

  1. Encourages external investment
  2. Distributes funds among PSUs
  3. Ensures all financial transparency
  4. None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation: The Finance Commission’s constitutional focus is on Union–State tax distribution and grants, not foreign investment, public-enterprise allocations or government audit. Financial transparency through examination of accounts is associated more directly with the CAG.

Q5. Which institution was established in pursuance of an express constitutional Article?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2006]

  1. University Grants Commission
  2. National Human Rights Commission
  3. Election Commission
  4. Central Vigilance Commission

Answer: (C) Election Commission

Explanation: The Election Commission derives directly from Article 324. The other organizations named were established under ordinary legislation or executive measures rather than a specific founding constitutional provision.

Q4. Which are Election Commission functions:
1 conducting free elections,
2 preparing electoral rolls,
3 recognising parties/allotting symbols,
4 finally deciding election litigation?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2004]

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Election Commission supervises elections and electoral rolls and handles party recognition and symbols. Courts determine the final outcome of election petitions, so adjudicating all election disputes is not its function.

Q3. Which are Finance Commission functions:
1. allowing Consolidated Fund withdrawals;
2. dividing tax shares among States;
3. considering State grants-in-aid;
4. overseeing whether taxes comply with budgets

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2003]

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation: The Finance Commission advises on sharing Union tax proceeds and principles for State grants-in-aid. It cannot authorize withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund and is not a tax-administration audit agency.

Q2. Which statements were correct in 2002:
I. CEC and ECs have equal powers but different pay;
II. CEC paid like a Supreme Court judge;
III. CEC removed like a Supreme Court judge;
IV. EC tenure five years or age 62

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2002]

  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. I and IV
  4. II and IV

Answer: (B) II and III

Explanation: At the time, the salary equivalence and Supreme Court judge-equivalent removal safeguard applied to the Chief Election Commissioner. Commissioners shared powers and salary arrangements, and the proposed five-year/age-62 tenure was wrong.

Q1. Which body recommends principles governing grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary 2002]

  1. Finance Commission
  2. Inter-State Council
  3. Union Finance Ministry
  4. Public Accounts Committee

Answer: (A) Finance Commission

Explanation: Article 280 requires the Finance Commission to recommend the principles governing such grants to States. Its advice supports fiscal balancing and is distinct from the Public Accounts Committee’s legislative examination of expenditure.

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