Q60. Consider:
(1) The Fifth Schedule governs tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
(2) Certain tribal communities receive income-tax exemptions on specified incomes.
3) The Constitution reserves Panchayat seats for women belonging to SCs and STs.
Which conclusion is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
(A) Two statements are correct, including statement 2
(B) Two statements are correct, namely 1 and 3
(C) Only one statement is correct
(D) All three statements are correct
Answer: (A) Two statements are correct, including statement 2
Explanation: The northeastern tribal areas named in statement 1 fall under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth. Certain tribal incomes receive statutory tax exemptions, and Article 243D provides Panchayat reservations for SC/ST women. Thus statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q59. Union Territories are administered by whom?
[SSC GD Constable 2026, 29 April, Shift 1]
(A) Parliament
(B) Chief Ministers
(C) Governors
(D) Administrators appointed by the President
Answer: (D) Administrators appointed by the President
Explanation: Under Article 239, a Union Territory is administered by the President through an appointed administrator, subject to laws made by Parliament. The administrator acts on behalf of the Union, unlike a state Governor functioning as a constitutional state head.
Q58. After the 69th Constitutional Amendment, 1991, by what name is the Union Territory of Delhi officially designated under Article 239AA?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I 2026, 25 March, Shift 2]
(A) Union State of Delhi
(B) Administrative Capital of India
(C) National Capital Region of Delhi
(D) National Capital Territory of Delhi
Answer: (D) National Capital Territory of Delhi
Explanation: Article 239AA renamed Delhi the National Capital Territory and provided its distinctive institutional arrangement, including a Legislative Assembly. The National Capital Region is a wider planning region and is not the constitutional title of the Union Territory.
Q57. Which statements are correct?
I. Part VIII concerns Union Territories.
II. Part IX concerns cooperative societies.
[SSC CHSL Tier-I 2025, 17 November, Shift 2]
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (A) Only I
Explanation: Part VIII of the Constitution concerns Union Territories and covers their administrative provisions. Part IX concerns Panchayats, not cooperative societies. Cooperative societies are addressed by Part IXB. Consequently, the first statement alone is accurate.
Q56. Consider the following concerning Union Territories:
(1) The President appoints their administrators.
(2) Every UT has a Legislative Assembly.
(3) They are centrally administered with limited legislative authority.
(4) Parliament can legislate on State List matters for UTs.
Which are correct?
[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Preliminary Exam 2025, 25 October]
(A) 2 and 4 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Union Territories are administered through presidential appointees. Not all possess elected assemblies, while Parliament ordinarily retains extensive legislative power over them, including State List subjects. Therefore statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
Q55. Which constitutional Article is associated with the President declaring Scheduled Areas?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I 2025, 3 September, Shift 3]
(A) Article 370
(B) Article 338
(C) Article 244
(D) Article 146
Answer: (C) Article 244
Explanation: Article 244(1) links Scheduled Areas to the Fifth Schedule, whose paragraph 6 empowers the President to declare them by order. The other Articles concern unrelated constitutional matters, such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Supreme Court establishment.
Q54. Under the Fifth Schedule, which power concerning Scheduled Areas is granted to the Governor?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I 2025, 14 August, Shift 1]
(A) Dissolving the State Assembly
(B) Regulating land-related matters and governance in Scheduled Areas
(C) Amending the Constitution
(D) Appointing MPs from Scheduled Areas
Answer: (B) Regulating land-related matters and governance in Scheduled Areas
Explanation: Paragraph 5 of the Fifth Schedule permits the Governor to issue regulations for the peace and good government of Scheduled Areas, including restrictions on land transfers and regulation of moneylending. Such regulations require the President’s assent.
Q53. Which Article was amended by the 106th Constitutional Amendment to provide for women’s reservation in the Delhi Legislative Assembly?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I 2025, 13 August, Shift 2]
(A) Article 330A
(B) Article 243D
(C) Article 239AA
(D) Article 332A
Answer: (C) Article 239AA
Explanation: The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 introduced special provisions for women’s reservation, including in the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Its amendment to Article 239AA addresses the Delhi Assembly, while other inserted Articles concern Parliament or state legislatures.
Q52. Under Article 239 of the Constitution, by whom is a Union Territory administered?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I 2025, 8 August, Shift 3]
(A) Governor of an adjoining State
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Parliament of India
(D) President of India
Answer: (D) President of India
Explanation: The constitutional executive authority for a Union Territory lies with the President under Article 239, exercised through a designated administrator. Parliament supplies the legislative framework; it is not the administrator named in this Article.
Q51. In which year was the merged Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu formed?
[DSSSB PGT Chemistry 2025, 23 July, Shift 1]
(A) 2019
(B) 2014
(C) 2016
(D) 2020
Answer: (D) 2020
Explanation: The merger took effect on 26 January 2020 under a parliamentary statute enacted in 2019. Two separate Union Territories were consolidated into one administrative entity, reducing the number of Union Territories in India from nine to eight.
Q50. The Sixth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in which region?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I 2025, 24 June, Shift 1]
(A) North-East India
(B) Western Ghats
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D) Central India
Answer: (A) North-East India
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule establishes a special tribal-area administration in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Its autonomous district and regional councils exercise locally defined powers. The listed states all lie in northeastern India, not in the other regions.
Q49. Which of the following are NOT among Fifth Schedule States covered by PESA:
(i) Rajasthan,
(ii) Madhya Pradesh,
(iii) Assam,
(iv) Tamil Nadu
[Punjab Police Constable 2025, 4 June, Shift 1]
(A) Both i and ii
(B) Both iii and iv
(C) Both i and iv
(D) Both ii and iv
Answer: (B) Both iii and iv
Explanation: Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh have Fifth Schedule areas to which PESA extends. Assam’s constitutionally specified tribal areas are governed by the Sixth Schedule, and Tamil Nadu has no Fifth Schedule area. Accordingly, the excluded pair is iii and iv.
Q48. What does the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deal with?
[RPF Constable 2024 recruitment, held 7 March 2025, Shift 1]
(A) Powers of Panchayats
(B) Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
(C) Disqualification on grounds of defection
(D) Provisions concerning languages
Answer: (B) Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule, read with Article 244(1), concerns Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes outside the four Sixth Schedule states. It sets out the Governor’s role, Tribes Advisory Councils, and safeguards for administration in specified tribal regions.
Q47. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India concerns which subject?
[OSSC CGL Mains 2024, 1 September]
(A) Languages
(B) Rajya Sabha seat allocation
(C) Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
(D) Disqualification for defection
Answer: (C) Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule protects Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes through special administrative safeguards. The Eighth Schedule lists languages, the Fourth allocates Rajya Sabha seats, and the Tenth contains anti-defection provisions. This distinction is frequently tested in polity papers.
Q46. Who may create or dissolve Union Territories in India under the Union’s constitutional framework?
[SSC GD Constable 2024, 1 March, Shift 3]
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) President acting alone
(C) Union Government through the parliamentary process
(D) State Government
Answer: (C) Union Government through the parliamentary process
Explanation: Creation and reorganisation of territories are effected by parliamentary legislation within the Constitution’s framework, principally Articles 3 and 4. The Union Government may initiate proposals, but an executive decision alone does not replace the necessary law enacted by Parliament.
Q45. Consider:
(1) Scheduled Areas are notified by the President.
(2) A State with Scheduled Areas must constitute a Tribes Advisory Council.
Which is correct?
[UPPSC RO/ARO General Studies 2024, 11 February]
(A) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 1
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Paragraph 6 of the Fifth Schedule authorises presidential notification of Scheduled Areas. Paragraph 4 requires a Tribes Advisory Council in every state containing such areas. Both constitutional safeguards operate together, so each statement in the question is correct.
Q44. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution relates to tribal administration in which group of states?
[UPPSC RO/ARO General Studies 2024, 11 February]
(A) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura, Mizoram
(B) Assam, Tripura, Nagaland, Mizoram
(C) Assam, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram
(D) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
Answer: (D) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
Explanation: Article 244(2) makes the Sixth Schedule applicable to specified tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Neither Arunachal Pradesh nor Nagaland belongs to that four-state Sixth Schedule group, despite having distinctive tribal governance arrangements.
Q43. The Fifth Schedule governs and protects the interests of which community?
[69th BPSC Prelims 2023, 30 September]
(A) Scheduled Castes
(B) Religious minorities
(C) Scheduled Tribes
(D) Linguistic minorities
Answer: (C) Scheduled Tribes
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule provides for administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. Its protections include a special gubernatorial regulatory role and Tribes Advisory Councils. Scheduled Castes and religious or linguistic minorities are protected under other constitutional provisions.
Q42. For the administration of which state does the Sixth Schedule NOT provide special arrangements?
[WBCS Mains 2023, Polity and Economy]
(A) Assam
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Tripura
(D) Manipur
Answer: (D) Manipur
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule names Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Manipur has its own arrangements for hill areas but is not one of the four states administered under this Schedule. The distinction avoids confusing northeastern tribal protections.
Q41. Which declarations of entire districts as Scheduled Areas in Chhattisgarh are correct: (i) Surguja, (ii) Korba, (iii) Raigarh, (iv) Jashpur?
[CGPSC Prelims General Studies 2023]
(A) i, ii, iii and iv
(B) Only i and ii
(C) Only i, ii and iii
(D) Only i, ii and iv
Answer: (D) Only i, ii and iv
Explanation: The Scheduled Areas Order identifies Surguja, Korba and Jashpur as whole Scheduled Area districts in the relevant territorial specification. Only selected development blocks within Raigarh were included, not its entire district; therefore iii is incorrect.
Q40. Which states are covered by the Sixth Schedule’s special provisions for tribal-area administration?
[Bihar Prohibition Constable 2023, 14 May, memory-based paper]
(A) Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Nagaland
(B) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
(C) Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland
(D) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland
Answer: (B) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
Explanation: Autonomous district arrangements under the Sixth Schedule operate in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. It does not generally cover tribal areas in Manipur, Nagaland or Arunachal Pradesh, which have different protective frameworks.
Q39. As of 2022, how many Union Territories were there in India?
[SSC CHSL 2022 cycle, held 21 March 2023, Shift 4]
(A) 10
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 8
Answer: (D) 8
Explanation: India had eight Union Territories in 2022. The Jammu and Kashmir reorganisation in October 2019 created two Union Territories from the former state, and the merger of Dadra and Nagar Haveli with Daman and Diu took effect in January 2020.
Q38. Which provision falls under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution?
[SSC CHSL 2022 cycle, held 14 March 2023, Shift 4]
(A) Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
(B) Tribal-area administration in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
(C) Forms of oath or affirmation
(D) Constitutionally recognised languages
Answer: (A) Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule regulates Scheduled Areas and the Scheduled Tribes living there. The Sixth Schedule concerns certain northeastern tribal areas, the Third specifies oaths, and the Eighth lists recognised languages. Each schedule therefore has a distinct constitutional purpose.
Q37. Which Article allows the President to appoint a State Governor as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory?
[SSC GD Constable 2022 cycle, held 24 January 2023, Shift 1]
(A) Article 238(2)
(B) Article 239(2)
(C) Article 237(2)
(D) Article 231(2)
Answer: (B) Article 239(2)
Explanation: Article 239(2) expressly permits appointment of a State Governor as administrator of an adjoining Union Territory. In that separate capacity the Governor works independently of the State Council of Ministers, reflecting the Union Territory’s direct constitutional relationship with the President.
Q36. What is the designation of the President-appointed administrator of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
[JKSSB Sub-Inspector 2022, 20 December, Shift 1]
(A) Lieutenant Governor
(B) Governor
(C) State Counsellor
(D) Vice-Chancellor
Answer: (A) Lieutenant Governor
Explanation: Following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the former state became a Union Territory with a Lieutenant Governor as its administrator. The President appoints the Lieutenant Governor under the applicable statutory and constitutional framework for Union Territories.
Q35. Which statements are correct?
(i) Part X concerns Scheduled and Tribal Areas.
(ii) It contains Articles 220–224.
(iii) It permits formation of an autonomous state in certain Assam tribal areas.
iv) Assam is under the Fifth Schedule.
[OPSC OAS Prelims 2022, 16 October]
(A) i and iii
(B) ii and iv
(C) i and iv
(D) i only
Answer: (A) i and iii
Explanation: Part X comprises Articles 244 and 244A. The latter contemplates an autonomous state within certain tribal areas of Assam. Assam’s specified tribal areas fall under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth, making only statements i and iii correct.
Q34. Who can extend a High Court’s jurisdiction to, or exclude it from, a Union Territory?
[RRB Group D 2022, 30 September, Shift 2]
(A) State Legislature concerned
(B) Parliament by law
(C) President acting alone
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (B) Parliament by law
Explanation: Article 230 empowers Parliament to extend or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court in relation to any Union Territory. Such a change requires a law, rather than an executive order of the President or Chief Justice.
Q33. In which year did Article 239AA come into force, establishing the special constitutional arrangement for Delhi’s Assembly?
[DSSSB Patwari 2022, 21 August, Shift 1]
(A) 1994
(B) 1995
(C) 1992
(D) 1991
Answer: (C) 1992
Explanation: The Constitution (69th Amendment) Act was enacted in 1991, while Article 239AA came into force on 1 February 1992. It established the special framework for the National Capital Territory, including its elected Legislative Assembly and Lieutenant Governor.
Q32. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 239AA concerning the Delhi Legislative Assembly?
[DSSSB Patwari 2022, 20 August, Shift 3]
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) 69th Amendment Act, 1991
(C) 33rd Amendment Act, 1974
(D) 14th Amendment Act, 1962
Answer: (B) 69th Amendment Act, 1991
Explanation: The Sixty-ninth Amendment Act, 1991 inserted Articles 239AA and 239AB and conferred Delhi’s special National Capital Territory arrangements. The 42nd, 33rd and 14th Amendments addressed different constitutional matters and did not create Article 239AA.
Q31. If an area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, which consequence best follows?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022, 5 June]
(A) Restrictions protecting tribal land against transfer to non-tribals
(B) Automatic creation of a local self-governing body
(C) Conversion of the area into a Union Territory
(D) Special Category State status for the entire state
Answer: (A) Restrictions protecting tribal land against transfer to non-tribals
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule enables protective regulations, including restrictions on transfer of tribal land to non-tribal persons. It neither automatically creates an autonomous council nor converts territory into a Union Territory or grants fiscal Special Category State status.
Q30. Article 239 deals with which constitutional matter?
[RRB NTPC CBT-II Level 6, 9 May 2022, Shift 1]
(A) Union Territories administered by Lieutenant Governor
(B) Union Territories administered by the President
(C) Union Territories administered by Prime Minister
(D) Union Territories administered by Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (B) Union Territories administered by the President
Explanation: Article 239 states that every Union Territory, save as Parliament otherwise provides, is administered by the President through an appointed administrator. The Constitution does not require all administrators to bear the title Lieutenant Governor, making the broader presidential formulation correct.
Q29. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the administration of Union Territories?
[SSC GD Constable 2021, 24 November, Shift 1]
(A) 233
(B) 239
(C) 224
(D) 228
Answer: (B) 239
Explanation: Article 239 in Part VIII governs administration of Union Territories. Article 233 relates to district judge appointments, Article 224 concerns additional or acting High Court judges, and Article 228 deals with certain transfers of cases to High Courts.
Q28. How many Indian states had notified Fifth Schedule Areas at the time of the examination?
[UP Police Sub-Inspector 2021, 23 November, Shift 3]
(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 6
Answer: (C) 10
Explanation: Ten states had notified Fifth Schedule Areas, including Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha and several other states. The Fifth Schedule protects designated tribal areas outside the four northeastern states governed under the Sixth Schedule.
Q27. Which Union Territory among the following has representation in the Rajya Sabha?
[SSC MTS 2020 cycle, held 20 October 2021, Shift 2]
(A) Puducherry
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D) Lakshadweep
Answer: (A) Puducherry
Explanation: Puducherry has one Rajya Sabha seat under the constitutional allocation and relevant parliamentary law. The other three listed Union Territories do not elect members to the Council of States. Delhi and Jammu and Kashmir also have Rajya Sabha representation.
Q26. Under which Schedule is a Tribes Advisory Council provided for?
[RPSC Assistant Professor Sociology 2020 cycle, held 4 October 2021]
(A) Fourth Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Sixth Schedule
(D) Seventh Schedule
Answer: (B) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: Paragraph 4 of the Fifth Schedule provides Tribes Advisory Councils for states with Scheduled Areas and, when the President directs, other states with Scheduled Tribes. Their advisory role differs from the legislative powers of Sixth Schedule autonomous councils.
Q25. Part X of the Constitution of India contains provisions concerning what?
[DSSSB PGT English 2021, 30 June, Shift 1]
(A) Elections
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Citizenship
(D) Scheduled and Tribal Areas
Answer: (D) Scheduled and Tribal Areas
Explanation: Part X contains Articles 244 and 244A concerning the administration of Scheduled and Tribal Areas and possible autonomous arrangements in Assam. Elections, citizenship and Fundamental Duties appear in other Parts of the Constitution.
Q24. Which Union Territory was under Portuguese colonial rule until 1954?
[SSC JE Civil 2021, 23 March, Morning]
(A) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(B) Puducherry
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: (A) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Explanation: Dadra and Nagar Haveli was liberated from Portuguese rule in 1954 and later formally integrated into India. Puducherry was associated with French colonial rule. The territory subsequently merged administratively with Daman and Diu in January 2020.
Q23. What did the 69th Constitutional Amendment provide for Delhi?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021, 16 February, Shift 1]
(A) Designation as National Capital Territory with special status
(B) Introduction of the Goods and Services Tax
(C) Addition of Bodo and Dogri to the Eighth Schedule
(D) Reduction of voting age to eighteen
Answer: (A) Designation as National Capital Territory with special status
Explanation: The 69th Amendment of 1991 introduced Delhi’s National Capital Territory status, Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers. GST, language additions and voting-age changes were brought about by other amendments, so they are not consequences of the 69th.
Q22. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Scheduled and Tribal Areas?
[SSC Stenographer 2020, 22 December, Shift 1]
(A) Part XVI
(B) Part X
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part XII
Answer: (B) Part X
Explanation: Part X addresses Scheduled and Tribal Areas through Articles 244 and 244A. Part XVI contains special provisions relating to certain classes, whereas Parts XII and XIV concern finance and services respectively. The subject heading is therefore Part X.
Q21. Which constitutional Part pairing is INCORRECT?
[UPPSC RO/ARO 2020, 20 September]
(A) Citizenship — Part II
(B) Union Territories — Part VII
(C) Municipalities — Part IXA
(D) Elections — Part XV
Answer: (B) Union Territories — Part VII
Explanation: Union Territories belong to Part VIII, not Part VII. The old Part VII relating to Part B states was repealed by the Seventh Amendment. The three other pairings are correct, which makes the Union Territory pairing the mismatch.
Q20. Part VIII of the Constitution of India deals with what?
[SSC CGL 2020, 5 March, Shift 2]
(A) Union Territories
(B) Panchayats
(C) Municipalities
(D) States
Answer: (A) Union Territories
Explanation: The Constitution places Union Territory administration in Part VIII. Panchayats are addressed in Part IX, Municipalities in Part IXA, and provisions relating to States primarily in Part VI. Recognising these Part numbers helps identify the relevant Articles.
Q19. In which states do Fifth Schedule provisions NOT apply?
(1) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha;
(2) Assam, Tripura;
(3) Meghalaya, Mizoram.
[UPSC NDA General Ability Test 2019, 17 November]
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule excludes Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram; their specified tribal areas are governed through the Sixth Schedule. Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha have Fifth Schedule Areas, so only groups 2 and 3 are excluded.
Q18. Which Constitutional Amendment designated Delhi as the National Capital Territory?
[RRB JE CBT-I 2019, 2 June, Shift 2]
(A) 69th Amendment Act
(B) 74th Amendment Act
(C) 63rd Amendment Act
(D) 76th Amendment Act
Answer: (A) 69th Amendment Act
Explanation: The Constitution (69th Amendment) Act, 1991 established Delhi’s constitutional title as the National Capital Territory and inserted Article 239AA. It also created a special elected legislative arrangement while reserving key domains to the Union.
Q17. Under which Schedule may transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2019]
(A) Third Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule
Answer: (B) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule enables protection of Scheduled Area land and restrictions on transfers. The Supreme Court’s Samatha decision considered such protections in the context of private mining leases on tribal land. The other Schedules concern different constitutional subjects.
Q16. Who governs Union Territories in India?
[RPF Sub-Inspector 2018 cycle, held 10 January 2019, Shift 3]
(A) President of India
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) Union Defence Minister
(D) Union Finance Minister
Answer: (A) President of India
Explanation: Article 239 confers administration of Union Territories on the President acting through appointed administrators. Although ministers may supervise relevant departments as part of Union government, the constitutional office expressly identified for administration is the President.
Q15. When the Governor of a State is appointed administrator of an adjoining Union Territory, how must the Governor act in that capacity?
[APPSC Group 1 Prelims 2018 cycle, held 2019]
(A) On aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers
(B) Independently of the State Council of Ministers
(C) With a newly selected personal Council of Ministers
(D) Such an appointment is unconstitutional
Answer: (B) Independently of the State Council of Ministers
Explanation: Article 239(2) specifically provides that an appointed Governor exercises Union Territory administrative functions independently of the State Council of Ministers. This separates the Governor’s special Union Territory role from the ordinary constitutional functioning of the state government.
Q14. Which Schedule of the Constitution provides for establishment of Autonomous District Councils?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge 2018, 18 November]
(A) Third Schedule
(B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Fifth Schedule
(D) Sixth Schedule
Answer: (D) Sixth Schedule
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule authorises Autonomous District and Regional Councils in specified tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Unlike Fifth Schedule Tribes Advisory Councils, they can exercise defined legislative, administrative and judicial functions.
Q13. Article 239AA gives special constitutional status to which territory?
[MP Vyapam AAO 2018, 4 August, Shift 2]
(A) National Capital Territory of Delhi
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Puducherry
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: (A) National Capital Territory of Delhi
Explanation: Article 239AA was inserted by the Sixty-ninth Amendment in 1991 for Delhi. It makes Delhi the National Capital Territory and provides its distinctive Assembly, Council of Ministers and Lieutenant Governor arrangements within the Union Territory framework.
Q12. Who may enact laws for Union Territories on subjects included in the Union, State and Concurrent Lists?
[SSC CHSL 2018, 5 March, Shift 3]
(A) President alone
(B) Parliament
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Union Home Minister
Answer: (B) Parliament
Explanation: Parliament has broad legislative competence for Union Territories, including matters listed in the State List, subject to constitutional arrangements and applicable statutes. Elected assemblies in some territories do not erase Parliament’s power to legislate for those territories.
Q11. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Union Territories?
[SSC CHSL 2018, 4 March, Shift 1]
(A) Part VI
(B) Part VII
(C) Part VIII
(D) Part IX
Answer: (C) Part VIII
Explanation: Part VIII contains provisions on Union Territories, including Article 239 and Delhi’s special Article 239AA. Part VI deals with states, Part IX with Panchayats, and the former Part VII was repealed in 1956.
Q10. Which Schedule contains provisions for administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
[UP Police Sub-Inspector 2017, 19 December, Shift 3]
(A) Fourth Schedule
(B) Sixth Schedule
(C) Eighth Schedule
(D) Fifth Schedule
Answer: (D) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule is devoted to special governance and safeguards for Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. The Sixth Schedule separately concerns certain northeastern tribal areas, whereas the Fourth and Eighth concern Rajya Sabha seats and languages.
Q9. How many Union Territories did India have as of June 2017?
[SSC CGL 2017, 18 August, Shift 2]
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 4
Answer: (A) 7
Explanation: India had seven Union Territories in June 2017. Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh became separate Union Territories in October 2019, and the merger of Dadra and Nagar Haveli with Daman and Diu in 2020 later produced eight.
Q8. What is the maximum number of members in a Tribes Advisory Council under the Fifth Schedule?
[APPSC Group II Prelims 2017, 11 June]
(A) Up to 10
(B) Up to 20
(C) Up to 25
(D) Up to 50
Answer: (B) Up to 20
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule permits a Tribes Advisory Council of not more than twenty members. As nearly as possible, three-fourths must be Scheduled Tribe representatives in the State Legislative Assembly, with special arrangements if enough such legislators are unavailable.
Q7. Which constitutional provision deals with Autonomous District Councils?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge 2016, 14 February]
(A) Eighth Schedule
(B) Article 370
(C) Sixth Schedule
(D) Article 250
Answer: (C) Sixth Schedule
Explanation: Autonomous District Councils derive from the Sixth Schedule, which provides local institutional autonomy in specified northeastern tribal areas. The Eighth Schedule lists languages, Article 250 concerns emergency-related parliamentary lawmaking, and Article 370 historically concerned Jammu and Kashmir.
Q6. Which of the listed functions are powers of Zila Panchayats in Scheduled Areas under the applicable framework?
[CGPSC Prelims General Studies 2016]
(A) Planning concerning minor water bodies
(B) Control over institutions in social sectors
(C) Control over tribal sub-plans
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: PESA-inspired state arrangements give local bodies in Scheduled Areas roles relating to minor water bodies, social institutions and tribal development planning. The exam groups these functions together. Their precise exercise also depends upon enabling state legislation.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2013, 26 May]
(A) Providing self-governance
(B) Recognising traditional rights
(C) Creating autonomous regions in tribal areas
(D) Protecting tribal people from exploitation
Answer: (C) Creating autonomous regions in tribal areas
Explanation: PESA extends modified Panchayat institutions and Gram Sabha authority to Fifth Schedule Areas. It recognises customary rights and promotes self-government; it does not create autonomous regions, which are a distinct governance feature associated with the Sixth Schedule.
Q4. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, who initiates the process for determining individual or community forest rights?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2013, 26 May]
(A) State Forest Department
(B) District Collector or Deputy Commissioner
(C) Tehsildar or Block Development Officer
(D) Gram Sabha
Answer: (D) Gram Sabha
Explanation: The Gram Sabha begins recognition of individual and community forest rights by receiving claims and initiating local verification. Recommendations proceed through sub-divisional and district committees, with final approval by the District Level Committee under the Forest Rights Act.
Q3. Which of these Union Territories has its own High Court?
[WBPSC Miscellaneous Prelims 2012 cycle, held 19 May 2013]
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Delhi
(D) Lakshadweep
Answer: (C) Delhi
Explanation: The Delhi High Court was established in 1966 and exercises jurisdiction over the National Capital Territory. The listed other territories come under High Courts shared with states. The examination’s original options make Delhi the correct answer.
Q2. Which is the smallest Union Territory of India by geographical area?
[MPPSC General Studies 2013]
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Answer: (C) Lakshadweep
Explanation: Lakshadweep is India’s smallest Union Territory by land area, comprising islands in the Arabian Sea with a combined area of about thirty-two square kilometres. The remaining options occupy substantially greater land areas.
Q1. Which Schedule contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several Indian states?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2008]
(A) Third Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Seventh Schedule
(D) Ninth Schedule
Answer: (B) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule, associated with Article 244(1), prescribes administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in specified states. The Sixth Schedule separately governs certain northeastern tribal areas; the Third, Seventh and Ninth Schedules address other subjects.