Non-Constitutional Bodies

VidyaarOctober 18, 20260274 views

Q170. In which year was the Central Vigilance Commission set up on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee?

[DSSSB MTS, 1 Aug 2026 Shift 2]

(A) 1972

(B) 1968

(D) 1964

Answer: (D) 1964

Explanation: The CVC began in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption headed by K. Santhanam. It originally functioned through an executive resolution and received statutory recognition under a 2003 parliamentary law.

Q169. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in which year?

[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 7 Jul 2026 Shift 1]

(A) 2016

(B) 2014

(D) 2013

Answer: (D) 2013

Explanation: Parliament passed the Lokpal and Lokayuktas legislation in December 2013. Presidential assent followed on 1 January 2014, and the Act commenced on 16 January 2014 to create anti-corruption ombudsman institutions.

Q168. The Central Vigilance Commission is categorised as what type of body?

[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 5 Jul 2026 Shift 3]

(A) Regulatory

(B) Constitutional

(D) Quasi-judicial

Answer: (C) Statutory

Explanation: CVC was set up in 1964 as an executive institution. Parliament conferred statutory status through the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003; it is not specifically established by any provision of the Constitution.

Q167. In which year was the Lokpal Bill first introduced in the Lok Sabha?

[UGC NET Public Administration, 7 Jan 2026 Shift 1]

(A) 1952

(B) 1968

(D) 2013

Answer: (B) 1968

Explanation: The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in 1968 and passed by the Lok Sabha, but lapsed before enactment. The effort preceded the comprehensive Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act finally enacted decades later in 2013.

Q166. Which of the following is a core function of NITI Aayog?

[SSC GD Constable, 19 May 2026 Shift 1]

(A) Allocation of plan funds to states

(B) Policy think tank and cooperative federalism

(D) Conducting elections

Answer: (B) Policy think tank and cooperative federalism

Explanation: NITI Aayog offers strategic policy advice and encourages cooperation between the Union and states. Unlike the former Planning Commission, it does not allocate Plan funds; monetary policy belongs to the RBI and elections to the ECI.

Q165. The tenure of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India is _____.

[SSC GD Constable, 21 May 2026 Shift 3]

(A) 3 years or till age 65

(B) 3 years or till age 70

(D) 4 years or till age 68

Answer: (B) 3 years or till age 70

Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 reduced the chairperson’s tenure to three years. The maximum age is seventy, so the office ends on the earlier of these limits, subject to statutory provisions.

Q164. As of May 2025, who was the Chief Information Commissioner of India?

[SSC GD Constable, 19 May 2026 Shift 1]

(A) Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha

(B) Heeralal Samariya

(D) Suresh Chandra

Answer: (B) Heeralal Samariya

Explanation: Heeralal Samariya assumed the post of Chief Information Commissioner in November 2023 and held it at the date specified. The Commission supervises central RTI appeals and complaints and is established under the RTI Act, 2005.

Q163. Under which Act was the Central Information Commission established as a statutory body?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 28 Jun 2026 Shift 2]

(A) Right to Information Act, 2005

(B) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013

(D) Freedom of Information Act, 2002

Answer: (A) Right to Information Act, 2005

Explanation: The Central Information Commission was constituted under Section 12 of the Right to Information Act, 2005. It decides second appeals and hears complaints regarding information requests involving central public authorities under that legislation.

Q162. When was the Right to Information Act passed?

[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 4 Jul 2026 Shift 3]

(A) 2002

(B) 2005

(D) 2007

Answer: (B) 2005

Explanation: Parliament enacted the Right to Information Act in 2005, and its principal provisions took effect in October that year. The law established a statutory mechanism to obtain records held by public authorities and improve accountability.

Q161. Under which section of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 is the National Disaster Management Authority constituted?

[UPSSSC Lekhpal Mains, 21 May 2026]

(A) Section 10

(B) Section 6

(D) Section 14

Answer: (C) Section 3

Explanation: Section 3 provides for the National Disaster Management Authority. Section 14 establishes the State Disaster Management Authority, while Section 6 enumerates national authority functions. The Prime Minister serves as the NDMA chairperson.

Q160. Who is the chairperson of the National Executive Committee under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?

[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 2 Jul 2026 Shift 1]

(A) Secretary in charge of disaster management in the Ministry of Home Affairs

(B) Union Environment Minister

(D) Cabinet Secretary

Answer: (A) Secretary in charge of disaster management in the Ministry of Home Affairs

Explanation: Under Section 8, the secretary responsible for the Union department handling disaster management chairs the National Executive Committee. It assists the NDMA and coordinates planning and implementation rather than replacing the Prime Minister-led authority.

Q159. Under the Disaster Management Act, which statements correctly describe a disaster:
1. Natural or human causes;
2. Large-scale death is essential;
3. Property or environmental damage;
4. Exceeds community coping capacity

[OPSC OCS Preliminary, 7 Jun 2026]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: The Act covers grave occurrences caused by natural or man-made factors, including accidents and negligence. Human suffering, property or environmental damage and an impact beyond local coping capacity are relevant; fatalities are not an indispensable condition.

Q158. In which year was the Planning Commission, later replaced by NITI Aayog, established?

[RRB NTPC UG, 8 May 2026 Shift 3]

(A) 1950

(B) 1971

(D) 1947

Answer: (A) 1950

Explanation: The Planning Commission was constituted on 15 March 1950 by a government resolution. It prepared Five-Year Plans and was headed by the Prime Minister; it was replaced by NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015.

Q157. Which index measures poverty using multiple dimensions such as education, health and living standards?

[RRB NTPC Graduate, 27 Mar 2026 Shift 3]

(A) Multidimensional Poverty Index

(B) Income Poverty Index

(D) Human Development Index

Answer: (A) Multidimensional Poverty Index

Explanation: The Multidimensional Poverty Index assesses deprivation beyond income, including household conditions related to health, education and living standards. NITI Aayog publishes India’s national MPI to support evidence-based policy and monitoring of development outcomes.

Q156. The erstwhile Planning Commission is now known as which institution?

[UGC NET Paper 1, 24 Jun 2026 Shift 1]

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) Yojana Aayog

(D) PM-Amritkal Aayog

Answer: (A) NITI Aayog

Explanation: The Government of India replaced the Planning Commission with the National Institution for Transforming India, or NITI Aayog, on 1 January 2015. The change emphasised policy advice, bottom-up planning and cooperative federalism.

Q155. NITI Aayog replaced which older organisation in 2015?

[Delhi Police Constable, 5 Jan 2026 Shift 1]

(A) Finance Commission

(B) Planning Commission

(D) National Development Council

Answer: (B) Planning Commission

Explanation: NITI Aayog succeeded the Planning Commission, established in 1950. The Finance Commission and Election Commission remain separate constitutional institutions. NITI Aayog is an executive policy think tank focused on advice rather than fund allocation.

[RRB Group D, 5 Feb 2026 Shift 2]

(A) Intelligence Bureau

(B) Central Bureau of Investigation

(D) Research and Analysis Wing

Answer: (B) Central Bureau of Investigation

Explanation: The CBI developed BHARATPOL in its role as India’s National Central Bureau for INTERPOL. It facilitates more efficient transmission of information and international police cooperation among Indian enforcement agencies and foreign counterparts.

Q153. Who launched the CBI-developed BHARATPOL portal on 7 January 2025?

[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 1 Jul 2026 Shift 1]

(A) Union Home Minister Amit Shah

(B) CBI Director Praveen Sood

(D) Prime Minister Narendra Modi

Answer: (A) Union Home Minister Amit Shah

Explanation: Union Home Minister Amit Shah formally launched BHARATPOL on 7 January 2025. The portal was designed to strengthen the exchange of INTERPOL-related requests and alerts between India’s law-enforcement agencies and international partners.

Q152. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

[DSSSB MTS, 26 Jul 2026 Shift 1]

(A) Union Public Service Commission

(B) Central Bureau of Investigation

(D) Election Commission of India

Answer: (B) Central Bureau of Investigation

Explanation: The CBI was created by a government resolution in 1963 and exercises police-investigation powers under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. The other three institutions are expressly provided for by India’s Constitution.

Q151. Where was the first Lokpal Day commemoration held in 2025?

[RRB ALP CBT-I, 16 Feb 2026 Shift 3]

(A) Zorawar Auditorium, Manekshaw Centre, Delhi Cantt

(B) Parliament House, New Delhi

(D) Supreme Court Auditorium, New Delhi

Answer: (A) Zorawar Auditorium, Manekshaw Centre, Delhi Cantt

Explanation: The commemoration was hosted at Zorawar Auditorium in the Manekshaw Centre, Delhi Cantonment. Lokpal Day marks the institutional journey of India’s anti-corruption ombudsman, established under legislation enacted in 2013.

Q150. The Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission became functional in which year?

[RSMSSB Forester, 28 Jun 2026]

(A) 2005

(B) 1993

(D) 2000

Answer: (D) 2000

Explanation: Rajasthan notified its State Human Rights Commission in January 1999, and the commission began functioning in March 2000. Such state commissions are created under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, to address state-level grievances.

Q149. When was the Human Rights Commission established in Bihar?

[Bihar Police SI, 21 Jan 2026 Shift 1 (memory-based)]

(A) 1998

(B) 2000

(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B) 2000

Explanation: The Bihar Human Rights Commission was established in 2000 according to the cited examination’s answer key. State commissions examine human rights complaints under powers granted by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q148. What technology enables simultaneous geographically targeted emergency alerts without relying on ordinary SMS delivery?

[RRB Group D, 18 Aug 2026 Shift 3]

(A) Short Message Peer Protocol

(B) Cell Broadcast System

(D) Optical Fiber Multicasting

Answer: (B) Cell Broadcast System

Explanation: The Cell Broadcast System allows network operators to push alerts to mobile devices within a selected geographic area. Unlike individual SMS messages, broadcasts are transmitted to numerous devices simultaneously and help issue location-specific disaster warnings.

Q147. Which State Disaster Management Authority received the institutional Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar 2026?

[RRB Group D, 13 Aug 2026 Shift 3]

(A) Uttarakhand

(B) Sikkim

(D) Assam

Answer: (B) Sikkim

Explanation: The 2026 institutional honour was associated with the Sikkim State Disaster Management Authority. The award recognises significant contributions to disaster management and supports public awareness of preparedness, resilience and risk reduction efforts.

Q146. Which disaster management authority was established in Odisha in 1999?

[OSSSC Forester and Forest Guard, 20 Apr 2026 Shift 3]

(A) Odisha State Disaster Management Authority

(B) Odisha Relief and Rescue Force

(D) Odisha Emergency Response Centre

Answer: (A) Odisha State Disaster Management Authority

Explanation: Odisha set up the Odisha State Disaster Management Authority following the 1999 super cyclone. The organisation developed state-level arrangements for preparedness, mitigation and emergency coordination, illustrating the importance of institutional disaster governance.

Q145. The CBI’s 2026 action against a transnational cyber-trafficking network concerned victims trafficked mainly to which region?

[RRB Group D, 3 Aug 2026 Shift 1]

(A) West Asia

(B) Central Asia

(D) Eastern Europe

Answer: (C) Southeast Asia

Explanation: The question refers to trafficking operations linked to cyber-fraud compounds in Southeast Asia. The CBI investigates such organised crimes involving Indian citizens and can coordinate with international law-enforcement counterparts when offences have cross-border elements.

Q144. In NITI Aayog, what does NITI stand for?

[SSC JE Mechanical, 6 Dec 2025 Shift 2]

(A) National Institution for Technology and Innovation

(B) National Institution for Transforming India

(D) National Initiative for Technology and Innovation

Answer: (B) National Institution for Transforming India

Explanation: NITI expands to National Institution for Transforming India. The policy advisory organisation began in January 2015 after the Planning Commission was discontinued, emphasising collaborative development and long-term strategic governance.

Q143. Which organisation launched the Fiscal Health Index for India in 2025?

[RRB NTPC UG, 2 Sep 2025 Shift 2]

(A) Ministry of Finance

(B) Finance Commission

(D) Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C) NITI Aayog

Explanation: NITI Aayog released the Fiscal Health Index to examine the quality of state finances. Its indicators assess budget management, debt, expenditure and revenues, helping identify fiscal strengths and potential policy improvements.

Q142. Which Act gave statutory status to the Central Vigilance Commission?

[RRB NTPC UG, 13 Aug 2025 Shift 1]

(A) Central Vigilance Commission Act, 1964

(B) Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003

(D) Lokpal Act, 2013

Answer: (B) Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003

Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 transformed an institution originally constituted in 1964 by executive resolution into a statutory commission. It formalised the body’s appointment structure, powers and supervisory role in vigilance matters.

Q141. Who was the Central Vigilance Commissioner as of February 2025?

[Punjab Police Constable, 1 Jun 2025 Shift 2]

(A) Gyanesh Kumar

(B) A. S. Rajeev

(D) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Answer: (D) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Explanation: Praveen Kumar Srivastava assumed the Central Vigilance Commissioner’s office in May 2023 and was serving on the date asked. The post leads the statutory commission that advises the Union government on vigilance administration.

Q140. In which year was India’s National Human Rights Commission established?

[UKSSSC Patwari, 21 Sep 2025]

(A) 1993

(B) 1991

(D) 1992

Answer: (A) 1993

Explanation: The NHRC was formed on 12 October 1993 under the framework of the Protection of Human Rights Act. It investigates alleged violations, reviews safeguards and promotes public understanding of fundamental human rights.

Q139. Who was the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India in 2025?

[SSC Selection Post Higher Secondary, 28 Jul 2025 Shift 2]

(A) Justice V. Ramasubramanian

(B) Justice Arun Kumar Mishra

(D) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan

Answer: (A) Justice V. Ramasubramanian

Explanation: Justice V. Ramasubramanian took charge as the commission’s chairperson in the period specified. The NHRC is a statutory rights-monitoring institution, and its chairperson is appointed through the process laid down in the Protection of Human Rights Act.

Q138. When was the Protection of Human Rights Act passed in India?

[RRB NTPC Graduate, 5 Jun 2025 Shift 3]

(A) 1996

(B) 2006

(D) 1993

Answer: (D) 1993

Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights Act was enacted in 1993. It provides a legal basis for the National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions and Human Rights Courts and defines the rights these mechanisms protect.

Q137. Which Act provides for the creation of a State Information Commission?

[RSSB JE Mechanical Diploma, 6 Feb 2025 Shift 2]

(A) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992

(B) Right to Information Act, 2005

(D) 74th Amendment Act, 1992

Answer: (B) Right to Information Act, 2005

Explanation: Section 15 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 requires state governments to constitute State Information Commissions. These statutory bodies consider appeals and complaints about disclosure decisions by state public authorities.

Q136. In May 2025, for how long was CBI Director Praveen Sood’s tenure extended?

[RRB NTPC UG, 9 Sep 2025 Shift 2]

(A) 6 months

(B) 3 months

(D) 1 year

Answer: (D) 1 year

Explanation: The Union government extended Praveen Sood’s CBI directorship for one year in May 2025. The agency’s director has a fixed initial tenure, with extensions governed by the amended legal framework.

Q135. Which senior 1986-batch IPS officer received an extension as CBI Director in May 2025?

[Delhi Police Constable, 30 Dec 2025 Shift 1]

(A) Praveen Sood

(B) Rajwinder Singh Bhatti

(D) Rishi Kumar Shukla

Answer: (A) Praveen Sood

Explanation: Praveen Sood, a Karnataka-cadre IPS officer, was appointed CBI Director in 2023. His term was extended in May 2025 under the provisions governing continuity of leadership in the investigating agency.

Q134. When was the Central Bureau of Investigation established in India?

[Agniveer Army GD, 3 Jul 2025 Shift 2 (memory-based)]

(A) 1947

(B) 1971

(D) 1950

Explanation: CBI was constituted in 1963 through a Union Home Ministry resolution. Its antecedent was the Special Police Establishment, and its investigative powers derive principally from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.

Q133. BHARATPOL, an international police-cooperation portal, was developed by which agency: 1. CBI, 2. RAW, 3. IB, 4. ED?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2025]

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 3

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation: BHARATPOL was developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation, India’s National Central Bureau for INTERPOL. The portal streamlines exchanges of police requests and notices with international counterparts through an integrated online mechanism.

Q132. Which organisation launched BHARATPOL to enhance coordination with INTERPOL in January 2025?

[RRB NTPC UG, 19 Aug 2025 Shift 3]

(A) National Crime Records Bureau

(B) Ministry of Home Affairs

(D) National Investigation Agency

Answer: (C) Central Bureau of Investigation

Explanation: The CBI launched BHARATPOL as a platform for international policing coordination. Its INTERPOL-facing role enables different Indian law-enforcement bodies to share information and manage cross-border police requests more efficiently.

Q131. Which commission or body was formed in 1964?

[UPHESC Assistant Professor Political Science, 2025]

(A) Administrative Reforms Commission

(B) National Human Rights Commission

(D) Central Vigilance Commission

Answer: (D) Central Vigilance Commission

Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commission was established in February 1964, following the Santhanam Committee’s recommendations. By comparison, the CBI dates to 1963 and the NHRC to 1993, making the CVC the correct option.

Q130. In which year was the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act passed?

[Punjab Police Constable, 3 Jun 2025 Shift 1]

(A) 2018

(B) 2020

(D) 2005

Explanation: The legislation was passed in December 2013 to establish a central Lokpal and provide for state Lokayuktas. It became effective in January 2014 and covers corruption allegations involving specified categories of public servants.

Q129. Who was the Chairperson of the Lokpal of India as of April 2025?

[RRB NTPC Graduate, 17 Jun 2025 Shift 2]

(A) Justice L. Narayana Swamy

(B) Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi

(D) Justice Sanjay Yadav

Answer: (C) Justice Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar

Explanation: Justice Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar was serving as Lokpal chairperson at the specified time, following his appointment in 2024. The Lokpal is the national statutory ombudsman that enquires into specified corruption complaints.

Q128. Which commission originally suggested establishing the institution of Lokpal?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor Political Science, 1 Jun 2025]

(A) States Reorganisation Commission

(B) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(D) Sarkaria Commission

Answer: (B) First Administrative Reforms Commission

Explanation: The First Administrative Reforms Commission recommended independent Lokpal and Lokayukta bodies during the 1960s. Their proposed purpose was to investigate complaints about maladministration and corruption in public administration.

Q127. What new motto did the Lokpal adopt in June 2025?

[RRB Group D, 2 Dec 2025 Shift 3]

(A) Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption

(B) Prevent Corruption, Promote Growth

(D) Ma Gridhah Kasyasvidhanam

Answer: (A) Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption

Explanation: The quoted motto emphasises citizen participation in exposing public-sector corruption. It expresses the ombudsman’s role in encouraging accountability and integrity, supplementing its statutory powers to address complaints against covered public functionaries.

Q126. When did the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 come into force?

[UPHESC Assistant Professor Law, 2025]

(A) 1 January 2014

(B) 17 December 2013

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) 16 January 2014

Explanation: The Lokpal legislation came into operation on 16 January 2014. Although Parliament adopted the law in December 2013, commencement followed presidential assent, a distinction commonly tested in polity examinations.

Q125. Lokpal and Lokayuktas primarily aim to promote what?

[DSSSB PGT Political Science, 14 Jul 2025 Shift 1]

(A) Political reservations during elections

(B) Accountability in public services

(D) Judicial independence

Answer: (B) Accountability in public services

Explanation: Lokpal and Lokayuktas are ombudsman institutions designed to strengthen integrity in public office. Their central function is examining corruption-related allegations against covered public servants, thereby encouraging administrative accountability.

Q124. Under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Deputy Lokayukta Act, 1978, which subject is not itself among the categories of misconduct investigated by the Lokayukta?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary, 2 Feb 2025]

(A) Unreasonable harm caused by the conduct of a public servant

(B) Abusing public office to obtain improper benefits

(D) Allegations relating to corruption or misuse of public office

Answer: (C) Sexual harassment, caste discrimination and violence against children

Explanation: Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta law focuses on abuse of official position, corruption, improper gain and administrative injustice involving designated public servants. Sexual harassment, caste violence and offences against children are addressed through other specialised criminal and protective laws.

Q123. Who is NOT part of the Lokpal selection committee?

[BSSC Field Assistant, 10 Aug 2025]

(A) Vice-President of India

(B) Chief Justice of India

(D) Prime Minister of India

Answer: (A) Vice-President of India

Explanation: The selection committee includes the Prime Minister, Lok Sabha Speaker, opposition leader in the Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India or nominee, and an eminent jurist. The Vice-President is not a member.

Q122. When did the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act come into force in India?

[RRB NTPC Graduate, 17 Jun 2025 Shift 1]

(A) 17 December 2013

(B) 16 January 2011

(D) 16 January 2013

Answer: (C) 16 January 2014

Explanation: Although the Act is named after its 2013 passage, its operative commencement date was 16 January 2014. This national anti-corruption framework created the legal foundation for Lokpal inquiries and state-level Lokayukta arrangements.

Q121. Who was appointed Chairperson of the Lokpal in February 2024?

[MPSC Group C Preliminary 2024, held 1 Jun 2025]

(A) Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar

(B) Satish Chandra Sharma

(D) Sanjeev Khanna

Answer: (A) Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar

Explanation: Former Supreme Court judge Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar was selected as Lokpal chairperson in February 2024. His appointment filled the vacancy following the completion of the first chairperson Pinaki Chandra Ghose’s tenure.

Q120. Arrange by establishment: 1. NHRC, 2. CVC, 3. NIA, 4. NCW, 5. CIC.

[AAI Junior Assistant Fire Service, 21 Apr 2025 Shift 1]

(A) 2-4-1-5-3

(B) 1-2-4-3-5

(D) 4-5-1-2-3

Answer: (A) 2-4-1-5-3

Explanation: The sequence is CVC (1964), National Commission for Women (1992), NHRC (1993), Central Information Commission (2005), and NIA (2008). The question tests establishment chronology rather than constitutional status.

Q119. Which term is NOT included in the statutory definition of disaster in the Disaster Management Act, 2005?

[UGC NET Environmental Science, 25 Jun 2025 Shift 1]

(A) Calamity

(B) Catastrophe

(D) Risk

Answer: (D) Risk

Explanation: The statute describes a disaster using expressions such as catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence. Risk is an important concept in disaster policy, but is not one of the specified event nouns in the definition.

Q118. In which year was NDMA initially constituted under the Prime Minister by executive order?

[RRB NTPC UG, 21 Aug 2025 Shift 1]

(A) 2005

(B) 2010

(D) 2008

Answer: (A) 2005

Explanation: The National Disaster Management Authority originated in 2005, before the subsequent full statutory arrangements under the Disaster Management Act. Its role is to frame national policies, plans and guidelines for coordinated disaster management.

Q117. Who chaired the Planning Commission’s 2005 expert group reviewing poverty-estimation methodology?

[UPSSSC Junior Assistant, 29 Jun 2025]

(A) Suresh D. Tendulkar

(B) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(D) C. Rangarajan

Answer: (A) Suresh D. Tendulkar

Explanation: Economist Suresh Tendulkar headed the expert group formed in 2005 to review poverty estimation. Its work informed a revised approach to measuring consumption expenditure and estimating poverty across rural and urban populations.

Q116. What is the main function of NITI Aayog?

[UP Police Constable, 31 Aug 2024 Shift 2]

(A) Oversee national elections

(B) Manage India’s defence forces

(D) Formulate national development strategies

Answer: (D) Formulate national development strategies

Explanation: NITI Aayog develops strategic policy inputs for national development. The body encourages participation by state governments and offers recommendations on governance, economic priorities and sustainable growth instead of regulating elections or monetary policy.

Q115. NITI Aayog is most closely associated with which field?

[Agniveer Army GD, 24 Apr 2024 Shift 1 (memory-based)]

(A) Health

(B) Education

(D) Women empowerment

Answer: (C) Economy

Explanation: NITI Aayog primarily functions as the Union government’s economic and public-policy think tank. Although it works across health, education and social sectors, its wider coordinating mandate concerns national development and policy strategy.

Q114. Which institution was replaced by NITI Aayog?

[Assam ADRE SLRC 2024 Paper I]

(A) Competition Commission of India

(B) Staff Selection Commission

(D) Planning Commission

Answer: (D) Planning Commission

Explanation: The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015. The change introduced a policy think tank emphasising collaborative federalism, rather than continuing the previous centrally managed Five-Year Plan model.

Q113. When was NITI Aayog set up in India?

[Bihar D.El.Ed, 2 Apr 2024 Shift 2]

(A) 15 October 1991

(B) 15 October 1950

(D) 1 January 1916

Answer: (C) 1 January 2015

Explanation: NITI Aayog began on 1 January 2015 through a Union Cabinet resolution. Its creation superseded the Planning Commission and sought to provide flexible policy recommendations with active participation by state governments.

Q112. In which year was the National Human Rights Commission established?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 10 Jul 2024 Shift 1]

(A) 2003

(B) 1995

(D) 1993

Answer: (D) 1993

Explanation: The NHRC was established on 12 October 1993. Created within the Protection of Human Rights Act framework, it reviews alleged rights violations, recommends corrective measures and works to raise public awareness of rights protection.

Q111. In which year was the National Human Rights Commission of India established?

[WBPSC Food SI 2023, held 17 Mar 2024 Shift 2]

(A) 1990

(B) 1993

(D) 2000

Answer: (B) 1993

Explanation: India’s National Human Rights Commission commenced in October 1993. It is not a constitutional body; the Protection of Human Rights Act provides its legal framework and its advisory, investigative and educational responsibilities.

Q110. When was the National Human Rights Commission constituted in India?

[UP Police Assistant Operator, 5 Feb 2024 Shift 1]

(A) 1952

(B) 1912

(D) 1922

Explanation: The NHRC was constituted in 1993 and is based in New Delhi. Its mandate extends to protecting life, liberty, equality and dignity through investigation of complaints, advisory recommendations and human rights education.

Q109. Where is the headquarters of the National Human Rights Commission located?

[UP Police Constable, 17 Feb 2024 Shift 2]

(A) New Delhi

(B) Bengaluru

(D) Mumbai

Answer: (A) New Delhi

Explanation: The NHRC has its headquarters in New Delhi. As the national statutory human rights body, it processes allegations of rights violations and issues recommendations, while state commissions operate within their own jurisdictions.

Q108. Which section of the Protection of Human Rights Act defines human rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity?

[UP Police Assistant Operator, 8 Feb 2024 Shift 1]

(A) Section 2(d)

(B) Section 144

(D) Section 302

Answer: (A) Section 2(d)

Explanation: Section 2(d) contains the definition of human rights under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It covers specified rights guaranteed by the Constitution or recognised in enforceable international covenants.

Q107. What is the maximum number of Information Commissioners besides the Chief Information Commissioner?

[MPSC Rajyaseva Prelims, 1 Dec 2024]

(A) Five

(B) Ten

(D) Eight

Answer: (B) Ten

Explanation: Under Section 12 of the RTI Act, the Central Information Commission consists of the Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. It adjudicates access-to-information matters involving central public authorities.

Q106. Who was the Central Vigilance Commissioner as of October 2023?

[SSC GD Constable, 29 Feb 2024 Shift 4]

(A) Pradeep Kumar

(B) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

(D) Suresh N. Patel

Answer: (B) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Explanation: Praveen Kumar Srivastava became Central Vigilance Commissioner in May 2023. He was therefore serving at the reference date; the office heads the statutory body supervising vigilance activities under central government institutions.

Q105. Who was sworn in as Central Vigilance Commissioner on 29 May 2023?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 1 Jul 2024 Shift 3]

(A) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

(B) Arti C. Srivastava

(D) Uday Veer Singh

Answer: (A) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Explanation: Praveen Kumar Srivastava took the oath as Central Vigilance Commissioner on 29 May 2023. The commission monitors vigilance administration in central organisations and derives its statutory authority from the CVC Act, 2003.

Q104. Who was the Central Vigilance Commissioner as of November 2023?

[IB ACIO Grade II, 18 Jan 2024 Shift 1]

(A) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

(B) Brijesh Kumar Rai

(D) Sarthak Sarangi

Answer: (A) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Explanation: Praveen Kumar Srivastava assumed leadership of the CVC in May 2023. The date in the question distinguishes this appointment from his predecessor; the commission’s broader mandate is corruption prevention and vigilance oversight.

Q103. Who assumed the position of Central Vigilance Commissioner in May 2023?

[SSC MTS, 5 Nov 2024 Shift 1]

(A) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

(B) Rajiv Gauba

(D) Amitabh Kant

Answer: (A) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Explanation: Praveen Kumar Srivastava was appointed CVC chief during May 2023. His office leads a commission with responsibility for central vigilance supervision, review and advice concerning integrity in public administration.

Q102. In May 2023, who was sworn in as the Central Vigilance Commissioner?

[SSC MTS, 12 Nov 2024 Shift 3]

(A) Samuel Joseph

(B) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

(D) Dayal Yadav

Answer: (B) Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Explanation: The officeholder was Praveen Kumar Srivastava, appointed after the tenure of Suresh N. Patel. CVC’s role concerns integrity and anti-corruption oversight within central public-sector organisations and selected investigating matters.

Q101. What was the theme of Vigilance Awareness Week 2022?

[SSC CHSL Tier II, 18 Nov 2024]

(A) Vigilant India, Prosperous India

(B) Corruption Free India for a Developed Nation

(D) Integrity: A Way of Life

Answer: (B) Corruption Free India for a Developed Nation

Explanation: The 2022 Vigilance Awareness Week theme called for a corruption-free India as part of national development. The CVC coordinates awareness activities promoting ethical conduct, transparency and accountability in public administration.

Q100. Who became Central Vigilance Commissioner in May 2023?

[SSC MTS, 30 Oct 2024 Shift 1]

(A) G. C. Murmu

(B) Amit Khare

(D) P. K. Srivastava

Answer: (D) P. K. Srivastava

Explanation: P. K. Srivastava refers to Praveen Kumar Srivastava, the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed in 2023. The CVC is the Union’s apex vigilance institution established in 1964 and accorded statutory status in 2003.

Q99. Who was appointed Director of the CBI in May 2023?

[SSC MTS, 5 Nov 2024 Shift 2]

(A) Praveen Sood

(B) Debadatta Chand

(D) Rakesh Asthana

Answer: (A) Praveen Sood

Explanation: Praveen Sood, a senior Karnataka-cadre IPS officer, became CBI Director in May 2023. The agency investigates corruption, serious economic crime and other cases within its jurisdiction or referred by competent authorities.

Q98. In May 2023, Praveen Sood was appointed Director of which organisation?

[SSC GD Constable, 21 Feb 2024 Shift 4]

(A) World Bank

(B) Central Bureau of Investigation

(D) Federal Bureau of Investigation

Answer: (B) Central Bureau of Investigation

Explanation: Praveen Sood moved from leadership of Karnataka Police to become CBI Director in 2023. The organisation handles complex national investigations and operates through powers conferred by the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.

Q97. Which Lokpal selection committee members are correct:
1. CJI,
2. Rajya Sabha Chairman,
3. Lok Sabha Speaker,
4. Lok Sabha opposition leader?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024]

(A) 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: The Lokpal selection committee includes the Chief Justice of India or nominee, Lok Sabha Speaker and opposition leader, along with the Prime Minister and an eminent jurist. The Rajya Sabha Chairman is excluded.

Q96. In which country was the ombudsman institution first established?

[SSC MTS, 11 Nov 2024 Shift 1]

(A) New Zealand

(B) Norway

(D) Sweden

Answer: (D) Sweden

Explanation: Sweden established the modern parliamentary ombudsman in 1809. The concept later influenced India’s Lokpal and Lokayuktas, which investigate complaints of corruption and maladministration by designated public authorities.

Q95. Who was appointed Chairperson of the Lokpal in February 2024?

[RRB Technician Grade III, 29 Dec 2024 Shift 1]

(A) Justice Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar

(B) Justice Manmohan

(D) Justice Rajiv Shakdher

Answer: (A) Justice Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar

Explanation: Retired Supreme Court judge Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar was appointed Lokpal chairperson in February 2024. The post heads India’s national anti-corruption ombudsman, established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.

Q94. Who was appointed Chairperson of the Lokpal in February 2024?

[Jammu and Kashmir High Court Junior Assistant, 29 Apr 2024]

(A) Lingappa Narayana Swamy

(B) B. V. Nagarathna

(D) Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar

Answer: (D) Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar

Explanation: Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar, previously a Supreme Court judge, was named Lokpal chairperson during February 2024. The institution has jurisdiction to examine corruption allegations against specified Union-level public functionaries.

Q93. Which are non-constitutional bodies:
1. Tribunals,
2. NIA,
3. CCI,
4. Law Commission,
5. NCST,
6. CAG?

[OPSC OAS Prelims, 15 Dec 2024]

(A) 1, 5 and 6

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 2, 4 and 5

Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: NIA and CCI are statutory institutions, while the Law Commission is established by executive action. NCST and CAG have constitutional status; the classification depends on how each institution obtains its legal authority.

[Maharashtra Police Constable Dhule, 7 Jul 2024]

(A) NIA

(B) NSG

(D) IB

Answer: (A) NIA

Explanation: The National Investigation Agency is India’s dedicated central counter-terrorism investigative body. Created under the NIA Act, 2008, it investigates scheduled offences affecting national security and may take up cases across state boundaries.

Q91. What is the full form of NIA?

[UP Police Constable, 18 Feb 2024 Shift 2]

(A) National Incubation Agency

(B) Naval Investigation Agency

(D) National Investigation Agency

Answer: (D) National Investigation Agency

Explanation: NIA stands for National Investigation Agency. The institution was established under the 2008 NIA Act after the Mumbai terror attacks to investigate and prosecute specified offences involving terrorism and national security.

Q90. Which Act provides a framework for addressing unlawful and terrorist activities in India?

[UP Police Constable, 24 Aug 2024 Shift 2]

(A) DIR Act

(B) UAPA

(D) MISA

Answer: (B) UAPA

Explanation: The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 is a principal law dealing with unlawful associations and terrorism-related offences. The NIA investigates scheduled offences under several laws, including the UAPA, when statutorily authorised.

Q89. Which body is not constitutional: NHRC, NCST, NCBC or NCSC?

[UPSC EPFO EO/AO 2023 Official Paper]

(A) National Human Rights Commission

(B) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Answer: (A) National Human Rights Commission

Explanation: The NHRC was established by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and hence is statutory. The other three commissions enjoy constitutional recognition under the relevant provisions concerning disadvantaged communities.

Q88. In which year was NITI Aayog established?

[SSC GD Constable, 17 Jan 2023]

(A) 2014

(B) 2015

(D) 2017

Answer: (B) 2015

Explanation: The Union Government constituted NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. It was intended as a policy think tank promoting cooperative federalism, long-term strategic advice and participation of states in national development planning.

Q87. In which year was the National Development Council established?

[MP Forest Guard, 3 Jun 2023]

(A) 1951

(B) 1952

(D) 1968

Answer: (B) 1952

Explanation: The National Development Council came into being in August 1952 through an executive resolution. Chaired by the Prime Minister, it brought together central and state leadership to discuss development priorities and approve national Five-Year Plans.

Q86. Which law provides the statutory basis for India’s National Human Rights Commission?

[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandant, 2023]

(A) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

(B) Protection and Implementation of Human Rights Act, 1993

(D) Human Rights Commission Act, 1993

Answer: (A) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

Explanation: Parliament established the legal framework for the NHRC through the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The same statute provides for State Human Rights Commissions and Human Rights Courts, with later amendments modifying the commissions’ composition and tenure.

Q85. Which among the following is not a constitutional body?

[SSC Selection Post, 28 Jun 2023]

(A) National Human Rights Commission

(B) Finance Commission

(D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Answer: (A) National Human Rights Commission

Explanation: The NHRC derives its authority from the Protection of Human Rights Act rather than the Constitution. In contrast, the Finance Commission, State Public Service Commissions and National Commission for Scheduled Castes have expressly defined constitutional foundations.

Q84. Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner?

[Maharashtra Talathi, 21 Aug 2023]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Governor

Answer: (D) Governor

Explanation: Under Section 15 of the Right to Information Act, the Governor appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner and other State Information Commissioners. Appointment follows recommendations by the selection committee headed by the Chief Minister.

Q83. Which section of the Right to Information Act, 2005 deals with grounds for rejection of an information request in specified circumstances?

[Maharashtra Talathi, 17 Aug 2023]

(A) Section 9

(B) Section 11

(D) Section 12

Answer: (A) Section 9

Explanation: Section 9 permits refusal where providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State. Other exemptions, such as security and privacy grounds, appear principally in Section 8.

Q82. On which date did the Right to Information Act, 2005 become fully operational?

[Maharashtra Talathi, 22 Aug 2023]

(A) 12 September 2005

(B) 12 October 2005

(D) 12 November 2005

Answer: (B) 12 October 2005

Explanation: The RTI Act received presidential assent in June 2005, and its major provisions came into force on 12 October 2005. The law enables citizens to seek records from public authorities, subject to statutory exemptions.

Q81. Suresh N. Patel was appointed chief of which organisation in August 2022?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 14 Mar 2023]

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) SEBI

(D) Central Vigilance Commission

Answer: (D) Central Vigilance Commission

Explanation: Suresh N. Patel became Central Vigilance Commissioner in August 2022. The CVC is an anti-corruption oversight institution, responsible for vigilance supervision within the Union Government framework, including specified oversight relating to investigations under anti-corruption legislation.

Q80. Who was appointed Director-General of the National Investigation Agency in June 2022?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 15 Mar 2023]

(A) Dinkar Gupta

(B) Anshul Mishra

(D) Kiran Bedi

Answer: (A) Dinkar Gupta

Explanation: Senior IPS officer Dinkar Gupta took charge as NIA Director-General in June 2022. The agency investigates scheduled offences, particularly terrorism-related crimes, under the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008 and its subsequent amendments.

Q79. According to NITI Aayog’s September 2021 report on district hospitals, what was the average number of hospital beds per lakh population?

[SSC CGL Tier I, 24 Jul 2023 Shift 1]

(A) 12 beds

(B) 40 beds

(D) 36 beds

Answer: (C) 24 beds

Explanation: NITI Aayog’s 2021 report on district hospital performance highlighted an average of 24 district hospital beds per lakh population. The report examined service capacity and performance indicators to guide improvements in public hospital infrastructure.

Q78. Who chairs the State Disaster Management Authority in India?

[Punjab Police Constable, 18 Aug 2023]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Governor

(D) President

Answer: (C) Chief Minister

Explanation: Section 14 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 provides for a State Disaster Management Authority chaired ex officio by the Chief Minister. This authority coordinates the state’s disaster preparedness, mitigation and response policy.

Q77. Who chaired the National Disaster Management Authority as of February 2023?

[SSC Junior Engineer, 9 Oct 2023]

(A) Droupadi Murmu

(B) Amit Shah

(D) Narendra Modi

Answer: (D) Narendra Modi

Explanation: The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairperson of NDMA under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Narendra Modi therefore held that position in February 2023, with responsibility for high-level disaster policy and coordinating national preparedness.

Q76. Which organisation replaced the Planning Commission of India?

[WBCS Main Examination, 2023]

(A) NABARD

(B) SEBI

(D) National Institute of Planning

Answer: (C) NITI Aayog

Explanation: NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission on 1 January 2015. Unlike the former centralised planning body, the new institution focuses on policy guidance, evidence-based monitoring and cooperative federalism rather than direct allocation of plan funds.

Q75. The computation of poverty using monthly per capita consumption expenditure based on the Mixed Reference Period was recommended by which committee?

[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 16 Apr 2023]

(A) Lakdawala Committee

(B) Tendulkar Committee

(D) Alagh Committee

Answer: (B) Tendulkar Committee

Explanation: The Planning Commission constituted the Suresh Tendulkar Committee in 2005 to review poverty estimation. It recommended methodological changes incorporating broader household consumption expenditure, including essential non-food spending, and reported in 2009.

Q74. How many members, excluding the Chairperson, are provided for in a State Human Rights Commission?

[Rajasthan Police Constable, 15 May 2022]

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) Four

Answer: (B) Two

Explanation: Under the Protection of Human Rights Act as amended, a State Human Rights Commission consists of a Chairperson and two members. One member must be or have been a High Court judge or district judge, and another has human rights expertise.

Q73. Who among the following is eligible to be the Chairperson of a State Human Rights Commission?

[Rajasthan Police Constable, 13 May 2022]

(A) Retired IAS officer

(B) Chief Secretary

(D) Cabinet Secretary

Answer: (C) Former High Court judge

Explanation: The 2019 amendments to the Protection of Human Rights Act broadened eligibility for State Human Rights Commission Chairpersons to persons who have been Chief Justices or judges of High Courts. Appointment is formally made by the Governor.

Q72. What is the term of office of the NHRC Chairperson, subject to the upper age limit?

[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandant, 7 Aug 2022]

(A) Five years or 70 years

(B) Three years or 70 years

(D) Three years or 65 years

Answer: (B) Three years or 70 years

Explanation: Following the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, NHRC Chairperson and members ordinarily serve three years or until attaining 70 years of age, whichever is earlier. Earlier, the prescribed tenure was five years.

Q71. Which of these officials belongs to the committee recommending appointment of the State Human Rights Commission Chairperson?

[MPPSC State Service Preliminary, 19 Jun 2022]

(A) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

(B) Governor

(D) Chief Justice of the High Court

Answer: (A) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

Explanation: The selection committee for State Human Rights Commission appointments includes the Chief Minister, Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, the minister in charge of Home Affairs and Leader of the Opposition, with further provisions for bicameral states.

Q70. On which date did the Jammu and Kashmir State Human Rights Commission cease functioning after reorganisation?

[MPSC State Service, 23 Jan 2022]

(A) 31 October 2019

(B) 15 August 2019

(D) 1 January 2020

Answer: (A) 31 October 2019

Explanation: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act took effect on 31 October 2019, converting the former state into two Union Territories. The erstwhile State Human Rights Commission was among the institutions discontinued during that transition.

Q69. Who was Chairperson of the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission in March 2022?

[Rajasthan Police Constable, 16 May 2022]

(A) Ashok Meena

(B) Gopal Krishna Vyas

(D) Savita Rathi

Answer: (B) Gopal Krishna Vyas

Explanation: Justice Gopal Krishna Vyas, a former judge of the Rajasthan High Court, served as Chairperson of the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission. Such commissions investigate complaints and recommend corrective measures under the Protection of Human Rights Act.

Q68. Who among the following can be appointed Chairperson of the Maharashtra State Human Rights Commission?

[MPSC Subordinate Services Mains, 31 Jul 2022]

(A) Retired High Court judge

(B) Serving High Court judge

(D) Retired district judge

Answer: (A) Retired High Court judge

Explanation: For the period relevant to the examination, eligibility under the amended Protection of Human Rights Act covered former High Court Chief Justices and judges. A retired High Court judge thus qualifies; the Chairperson is appointed by the Governor.

Q67. Which one of these institutions is not established directly under the Constitution?

[OSSC Combined Graduate Level, 12 Oct 2022]

(A) State Information Commission

(B) State Public Service Commission

(D) State Finance Commission

Answer: (A) State Information Commission

Explanation: State Information Commissions are constituted under Section 15 of the Right to Information Act, 2005. By contrast, State Public Service Commissions, State Election Commissions and State Finance Commissions are explicitly provided for by constitutional articles.

Q66. In which year was the Right to Information Act enacted?

[OSSC Welfare Extension Officer, 20 Dec 2022]

(A) 2003

(B) 2005

(D) 2004

Answer: (B) 2005

Explanation: Parliament passed the Right to Information Act in 2005. The legislation established a disclosure framework for public authorities and provided for independent central and state information commissions to hear appeals and complaints about access to records.

Q65. Who formally appoints the Chief Information Commissioner of India?

[OSSC Combined Graduate Level, 20 Oct 2022]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Union Minister for Information Technology

(D) Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Under Section 12 of the RTI Act, the President appoints the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners following recommendations from the prescribed committee consisting of the Prime Minister, opposition leader and nominated Union Cabinet Minister.

Q64. When was the Rajasthan State Information Commission constituted?

[RSMSSB Junior Engineer, 19 May 2022]

(A) 18 April 2006

(B) 2 October 2005

(D) 12 May 2005

Answer: (A) 18 April 2006

Explanation: The Rajasthan State Information Commission was set up on 18 April 2006 to implement the state-level appellate and complaint mechanism under the RTI Act. It hears disputes regarding information held by Rajasthan public authorities.

Q63. An extension of the CBI Director’s tenure can be granted for how long at a time?

[Delhi Police Head Constable, 19 Oct 2022]

(A) Six months

(B) Two years

(D) Three months

Answer: (C) One year

Explanation: Changes made in 2021 permit extensions of the CBI Director’s tenure for periods of up to one year each, subject to prescribed conditions and an overall five-year cap. The original statutory minimum tenure is two years.

Q62. With reference to NIA, which two statements are incorrect:
(i) it is a central investigating agency;
(ii) it works under the Ministry of External Affairs;
(iii) it was founded in 2006;
(iv) it investigates specified offences

[OPSC Odisha Administrative Service, 2022]

(A) Statements (ii) and (iii)

(B) Statements (iii) and (iv)

(D) Statements (i) and (iii)

Answer: (A) Statements (ii) and (iii)

Explanation: NIA is a central counter-terrorism investigative organisation under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs and was created by the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008. Its statutory remit includes specified scheduled offences; statements (ii) and (iii) are therefore incorrect.

Q61. Who serves as Chairperson of a State Disaster Management Authority?

[JKSSB Sub-Inspector, 16 Dec 2022]

(A) Chief Secretary of State

(B) Director General of Coast Guard

(D) State Home Minister

Answer: (C) Chief Minister

Explanation: Under Section 14 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 the Chief Minister chairs the State Disaster Management Authority ex officio. The authority is responsible for state disaster management policy, coordination and oversight of related plans.

Q60. Who is the chairperson of the State Disaster Management Authority?

[OSSC Block Social Security Officer, 5 Nov 2022]

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Governor

(D) Chief Secretary

Answer: (A) Chief Minister

Explanation: The Disaster Management Act specifies the Chief Minister as ex-officio chair of the State Disaster Management Authority. It also provides a State Executive Committee headed by the Chief Secretary to assist in implementing disaster management decisions.

Q59. On which date was NITI Aayog established?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor Commerce, 2022]

(A) 1 January 2015

(B) 1 April 2015

(D) 1 July 2016

Answer: (A) 1 January 2015

Explanation: NITI Aayog was established through a Union Cabinet resolution on 1 January 2015. Its creation signalled a shift from the Planning Commission’s centralised Five-Year Plan model towards strategy, monitoring, innovation and stronger consultation with states.

Q58. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

[RRB Group D, 17 Aug 2022]

(A) Comptroller and Auditor General

(B) Election Commission of India

(D) Union Public Service Commission

Answer: (C) NITI Aayog

Explanation: The offices of the CAG and Election Commission, together with the UPSC, are created under the Constitution. NITI Aayog instead originated through an executive resolution and operates as a Union Government policy think tank.

Q57. In which month and year was NITI Aayog established?

[Delhi Police Head Constable, 14 Oct 2022]

(A) May 2014

(B) April 2017

(D) January 2015

Answer: (D) January 2015

Explanation: The National Institution for Transforming India, commonly called NITI Aayog, was constituted on 1 January 2015. It replaced the Planning Commission and was designed to encourage participatory development and cooperative federalism.

Q56. NITI Aayog is primarily described as which kind of institution?

[UGC NET, 14 Oct 2022]

(A) Statutory body

(B) Autonomous body

(D) Executive body

Answer: (C) Advisory body

Explanation: NITI Aayog functions chiefly as the Union Government’s policy advisory think tank. Although created by executive decision, its principal work involves offering strategic recommendations and assessments rather than exercising statutory regulation or constitutional authority.

Q55. In which year did NITI Aayog replace the Planning Commission?

[RSMSSB Lab Assistant, 30 Jun 2022]

(A) 2014

(B) 2015

(D) 2017

Answer: (B) 2015

Explanation: NITI Aayog came into existence in 2015 after the Planning Commission was discontinued. Its governing structure provides representation and consultation mechanisms for states and Union Territories while supporting national policy analysis and monitoring.

Q54. Which report was issued by NITI Aayog to assess multidimensional poverty across India?

[UGC NET Political Science, 11 Oct 2022]

(A) National Multidimensional Poverty Index

(B) Economic Survey

(D) National Sample Survey

Answer: (A) National Multidimensional Poverty Index

Explanation: The National Multidimensional Poverty Index measures deprivation in dimensions such as health, education and living standards. NITI Aayog developed its Indian adaptation of the global MPI framework to guide targeted policy intervention and evaluation.

Q53. Which committee recommended creation of the Central Vigilance Commission?

[UGC NET Political Science, 11 Oct 2022]

(A) Gorwala Committee

(B) Santhanam Committee

(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

Answer: (B) Santhanam Committee

Explanation: The Committee on Prevention of Corruption led by K. Santhanam recommended an independent vigilance mechanism. The Union Government established the CVC in 1964, subsequently giving the organisation statutory authority under the CVC Act, 2003.

Q52. The Planning Commission constituted the Suresh Tendulkar Committee in 2005 for what purpose?

[DSSSB Junior Secretariat Assistant, 7 Apr 2022]

(A) Administrative reforms

(B) Poverty estimation

(D) Education policy formulation

Answer: (B) Poverty estimation

Explanation: The Tendulkar expert group reviewed the methodology used to identify people below the poverty line. Its work proposed changes to consumption-expenditure calculations and informed official estimates of poverty in India for 2011–12.

Q51. For how many years does the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission hold office under the amended law?

[SSC Selection Post Graduation, 3 Aug 2022]

(A) Three years

(B) Five years

(D) Four years

Answer: (A) Three years

Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 reduced the ordinary term of NHRC Chairpersons and members from five to three years, with an upper age limit of 70 years and eligibility for reappointment.

Q50. When was the National Human Rights Commission of India established?

[RRB NTPC, 16 Jan 2021]

(A) 1950

(B) 1993

(D) 1947

Answer: (B) 1993

Explanation: The NHRC was constituted on 12 October 1993 pursuant to the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Its mandate includes investigating rights violations, recommending remedial measures and advising authorities on improved human rights safeguards.

Q49. Who heads the National Disaster Management Authority?

[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 7 Feb 2021]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Union Home Minister

(D) Union Health Minister

Answer: (A) Prime Minister

Explanation: Section 3 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 makes the Prime Minister ex-officio Chairperson of NDMA. The authority lays down national disaster management policies and guidelines for prevention, mitigation, preparedness and coordinated emergency response.

Q48. Who coined the term ‘Lokpal’ in the Indian context?

[HSSC Sub-Inspector, 26 Sep 2021]

(A) K. Radhakrishnan

(B) Morarji Desai

(D) L. M. Singhvi

Answer: (D) L. M. Singhvi

Explanation: Parliamentarian Laxmi Mall Singhvi is widely credited with suggesting the Hindi term Lokpal for an ombudsman institution. India’s Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 eventually established the national anti-corruption ombudsman framework.

Q47. In which year was the Central Vigilance Commission established?

[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 27 Nov 2021]

(A) 1968

(B) 1964

(D) 1983

Answer: (B) 1964

Explanation: The CVC was established in 1964 following recommendations made by the Santhanam Committee on corruption prevention. It was initially an executive body and acquired statutory status under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

Q46. In which year was the National Disaster Management Authority first established?

[JPSC State Service Preliminary, 19 Sep 2021]

(A) 2008

(B) 2011

(D) 2006

Explanation: NDMA was first constituted by an executive order in 2005, while the Disaster Management Act, 2005 supplied its statutory foundation. It is chaired by the Prime Minister and frames national guidance for disaster risk management.

Q45. Who was appointed the first Chairperson of the Lokpal of India?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 4 Aug 2021]

(A) Dilip B. Bhosale

(B) Pradip Kumar Mohanty

(D) Ajay Kumar Tripathi

Answer: (C) Pinaki Chandra Ghose

Explanation: Former Supreme Court judge Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose became the first Lokpal Chairperson in March 2019. The appointment operationalised the ombudsman established by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 after several years of delay.

Q44. When was the National Development Council formed?

[Indian Coast Guard Navik, 22 Mar 2021]

(A) 26 January 1950

(B) 2 October 1950

(D) 6 August 1952

Answer: (D) 6 August 1952

Explanation: The National Development Council was constituted on 6 August 1952. It was an executive institution chaired by the Prime Minister, bringing state Chief Ministers and Union ministers into national planning deliberations.

Q43. In which year was the Central Information Commission constituted?

[SSC Stenographer, 12 Nov 2021]

(A) 2004

(B) 2006

(D) 2007

Explanation: The Central Information Commission was constituted in 2005 under Section 12 of the Right to Information Act. It acts as a statutory appellate and complaint authority for matters concerning public authorities under the Union Government.

Q42. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 17 Nov 2021]

(A) State Finance Commission

(B) State Public Service Commission

(D) State Election Commission

Answer: (C) State Information Commission

Explanation: The State Information Commission is constituted under the Right to Information Act, 2005 rather than the Constitution. The other three bodies are recognised through constitutional provisions relating to public services, state elections and local-government finance.

Q41. Who is not a member of the committee recommending appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 6 Aug 2021]

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

Answer: (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation: Section 12 of the RTI Act prescribes an appointment selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, Lok Sabha Leader of the Opposition and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The Speaker is not a member.

Q40. Who appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner of India?

[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 15 Nov 2021]

(A) Union Home Minister

(B) President of India

(D) Vice-President of India

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: The President appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister, including the Home Minister and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha.

Q39. Who became Central Vigilance Commissioner in April 2020?

[SSC CHSL Tier I, 12 Apr 2021]

(A) Sharad Kumar

(B) Suresh N. Patel

(D) Rajnish Kumar

Answer: (C) Sanjay Kothari

Explanation: Sanjay Kothari was sworn in as Central Vigilance Commissioner in April 2020. The CVC oversees vigilance administration in the Union Government and exercises specified supervisory functions over anti-corruption investigations.

Q38. The National Investigation Agency was constituted under which legislation?

[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 21 Nov 2021]

(A) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967

(B) National Investigation Agency Act, 2008

(D) Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946

Answer: (B) National Investigation Agency Act, 2008

Explanation: The NIA Act, 2008 created a dedicated national investigative agency for offences listed in its Schedule. The UAPA is among the laws covering terrorist offences that the agency may investigate, but does not establish the NIA itself.

[SSC GD Constable, 9 Dec 2021]

(A) Odisha

(B) Punjab

(D) Haryana

Answer: (C) Maharashtra

Explanation: Maharashtra withdrew general consent to the CBI in October 2020, requiring specific permission for many investigations in the state unless another lawful basis existed. The consent framework arises from Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.

Q36. In which year was the Disaster Management Act enacted?

[Delhi Forest Guard, 3 Mar 2021]

(A) 2001

(B) 2003

(D) 2005

Answer: (D) 2005

Explanation: Parliament enacted the Disaster Management Act in 2005 to create legal arrangements for prevention, preparedness, response and recovery. The Act provides institutions at national, state and district levels, including NDMA, SDMA and DDMA.

Q35. Which among the following is a statutory body?

[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 25 Nov 2021]

(A) Finance Commission

(B) National Disaster Management Authority

(D) NITI Aayog

Answer: (B) National Disaster Management Authority

Explanation: NDMA has a legislative foundation in the Disaster Management Act, 2005. The Finance Commission and Election Commission are constitutional bodies, whereas NITI Aayog was created by executive resolution without a separate enabling statute.

Q34. Besides its Chairperson, what is the maximum number of other members allowed on a District Disaster Management Authority under the 2005 Act?

[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 2 Dec 2021]

(A) Nine

(B) Four

(D) Five

Answer: (C) Seven

Explanation: Section 25 of the Disaster Management Act provides for a Chairperson and not more than seven other members of the District Disaster Management Authority. The District Magistrate, Collector or Deputy Commissioner ordinarily serves as its Chairperson.

Q33. On which date was NITI Aayog established?

[RRB NTPC, 13 Jan 2021]

(A) 1 February 2015

(B) 2 March 2015

(D) 2 April 2015

Answer: (C) 1 January 2015

Explanation: The Government of India established NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015, superseding the Planning Commission. It serves as a central policy think tank and a forum for collaboration between the Union and state governments.

Q32. The National Human Rights Commission was created under which Act?

[Rajasthan Police Sub-Inspector, 13 Sep 2021]

(A) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1991

(B) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1992

(D) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1995

Answer: (C) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

Explanation: NHRC was created pursuant to the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The Act sets out its composition, investigative role and powers to recommend action, while also enabling state commissions and Human Rights Courts.

Q31. Which officeholder was excluded from the jurisdiction of the Rajasthan Lokayukta under the applicable state law?

[Rajasthan Patwari, 23 Oct 2021]

(A) Minister

(B) Chief Minister

(D) District head

Answer: (B) Chief Minister

Explanation: For this examination’s relevant legal framework, Rajasthan’s Lokayukta legislation excluded the Chief Minister from its purview. Powers and exemptions of state Lokayuktas vary significantly because they are established under separate state statutes.

Q30. Which symbol on the Lokpal logo represents vigilance?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 2020]

(A) Indian tricolour

(B) Ashoka Chakra

(D) Two hands

Answer: (B) Ashoka Chakra

Explanation: The Lokpal logo uses the Ashoka Chakra as one of its elements to evoke vigilance and integrity. Its broader symbolism relates to protection of citizens and the anti-corruption institution’s public-accountability mission.

Q29. What is the literal meaning of the expression ‘Lokpal’?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 2020]

(A) Caretaker of the people

(B) Execution of public services

(D) Motivating civilians

Answer: (A) Caretaker of the people

Explanation: The Hindi expression combines ‘Lok’, meaning people, and ‘Pal’, meaning protector or caretaker. The Lokpal serves as a statutory ombudsman for specified complaints of corruption involving public functionaries at the Union level.

Q28. Which of these institutions does not find its establishment directly in the Constitution?

[SSC Junior Engineer, 28 Oct 2020]

(A) National Human Rights Commission

(B) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(D) Union Public Service Commission

Answer: (A) National Human Rights Commission

Explanation: The National Human Rights Commission was established under a parliamentary statute, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The other institutions mentioned have direct constitutional foundations in Articles 338A, 280 and 315 respectively.

Q27. Of the following, which is a constitutional body:
(i) NHRC;
(ii) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes;
(iii) NIA;
(iv) NDMA?

[CGPSC State Service Preliminary, 2020]

(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)

(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) Only (iii)

Answer: (C) Only (ii)

Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is expressly established by Article 338A of the Constitution. NHRC, NIA and NDMA derive their existence from parliamentary statutes rather than constitutional articles, making only statement (ii) correct.

Q26. Which office was held subject to the Right to Information Act following the Supreme Court’s 2019 decision?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 2020]

(A) Central Bureau of Investigation

(B) National Investigation Agency

(D) Prime Minister’s Office

Answer: (C) Office of the Chief Justice of India

Explanation: In 2019, the Supreme Court held that the Chief Justice of India’s office falls within the RTI framework, while emphasising appropriate balancing of transparency, judicial independence and privacy through the exemptions provided by law.

Q25. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

[SSC Junior Engineer Civil, 25 Sep 2019]

(A) Finance Commission

(B) Election Commission of India

(D) Union Public Service Commission

Answer: (C) National Human Rights Commission

Explanation: The Constitution establishes the Finance Commission, Election Commission and Union Public Service Commission. NHRC instead operates under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 and has statutory powers to inquire into violations and recommend remedial action.

Q24. Who was Director of the CBI in September 2019?

[RRB Junior Engineer, 19 Sep 2019]

(A) Alok Verma

(B) Rishi Kumar Shukla

(D) Rakesh Asthana

Answer: (B) Rishi Kumar Shukla

Explanation: Rishi Kumar Shukla served as CBI Director from February 2019. The CBI is the central investigating agency whose police powers mainly derive from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, subject to specified consent requirements.

Q23. From which law does the CBI principally derive its investigative police powers?

[RPF Constable, 20 Jan 2019]

(A) A separate CBI Act

(B) The Constitution

(D) Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003

Answer: (C) Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946

Explanation: The CBI was established by executive resolution in 1963, but its investigative powers are linked to the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. This law regulates its jurisdiction and normally requires state consent for exercises of powers within a state.

Q22. In which year was the National Development Council established?

[RRB Junior Engineer, 24 May 2019]

(A) 1940

(B) 1965

(D) 1952

Answer: (D) 1952

Explanation: The National Development Council was formed on 6 August 1952. It was a non-constitutional advisory forum intended to coordinate the Union and states on national economic planning and endorse the Five-Year Plans of the Planning Commission.

Q21. The Disaster Management Act was enacted in which year?

[MP Teacher Eligibility Test, 10 Feb 2019]

(A) 2010

(B) 2005

(D) 2012

Answer: (B) 2005

Explanation: The Disaster Management Act, 2005 set up the statutory framework for disaster risk reduction, management and response. It established NDMA, state and district authorities and supporting executive institutions for coordinated action.

Q20. In which year was the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission constituted?

[RPSC Second Grade Teacher, 19 Feb 2019]

(A) 1998

(B) 1999

(D) 2001

Answer: (B) 1999

Explanation: The Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission was constituted in 1999 under the Protection of Human Rights Act. State commissions examine human rights complaints, review protective safeguards and issue recommendations to the appropriate state authorities.

Q19. Which statement about the National Human Rights Commission is correct?

[SSC GD Constable, 14 Feb 2019]

(A) It has ten full-time judicial members

(B) Its recommendations are ordinarily advisory

(D) Its Chairperson must be a sitting Supreme Court judge

Answer: (B) Its recommendations are ordinarily advisory

Explanation: NHRC typically makes recommendations rather than issuing judicially enforceable verdicts. Authorities are expected to respond to recommendations within the statutory framework, but the commission does not exercise the same binding adjudicatory power as a court.

Q18. Which commission recommended institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India?

[RPSC Second Grade Social Science, 29 Oct 2018]

(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

(D) Sarkaria Commission

Answer: (A) First Administrative Reforms Commission

Explanation: The First Administrative Reforms Commission, established in 1966, recommended ombudsman bodies at Union and state levels to investigate grievances against public officials. The Lokpal legislation was eventually enacted by Parliament in 2013.

Q17. The concept of the ombudsman originally emerged in which country?

[SSC Junior Engineer Electrical, 29 Jan 2018]

(A) United States

(B) China

(D) United Kingdom

Answer: (C) Sweden

Explanation: The modern parliamentary ombudsman institution originated in Sweden in 1809. India later adapted the idea through the Lokpal at national level and state Lokayuktas to scrutinise specified complaints against public functionaries.

Q16. Consider statements on the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission:
(A) It was constituted on 18 January 1999.
(B) It began functioning in March 2000.
(C) It had a chairperson and three members under the 2006 amendment.
(D) A former chairperson was a retired Supreme Court judge.

Which are correct?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary, 2018]

(A) (A), (B) and (C)

(B) (A), (B) and (D)

(D) (B) and (C)

Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (D)

Explanation: Rajasthan constituted its State Human Rights Commission on 18 January 1999, and the body began functioning in March 2000. Its prescribed composition did not match statement C; the exam recognised statements A, B and D as correct.

Q15. Which activities fall within the NHRC’s statutory functions:
(1) inquiries into violations;
(2) visits to custodial institutions;
(3) reviewing safeguards;
(4) promoting research

[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 4 Feb 2018]

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2, 3 and 4

(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights Act authorises NHRC to investigate rights complaints, inspect custodial facilities, review legal safeguards and undertake research and awareness initiatives. All four activities are included within its recognised statutory functions.

Q14. The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by which body?

[UPSC NDA General Ability Test, 10 Sep 2017]

(A) Law Commission

(B) Santhanam Committee

(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

Answer: (D) Administrative Reforms Commission

Explanation: The First Administrative Reforms Commission recommended an ombudsman at the Union level during the 1960s. It envisaged a Lokpal to inquire into grievances involving public officials, laying groundwork for the national law enacted in 2013.

Q13. Which committee recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission?

[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandant, 23 Jul 2017]

(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(B) Gorwala Committee

(D) Santhanam Committee

Answer: (D) Santhanam Committee

Explanation: The Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the CVC, which was established by government resolution in 1964. Its independence and powers were later given a statutory footing in the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

Q12. Which objective featured in NITI Aayog’s National Nutrition Strategy?

[SSC Scientific Assistant, 22 Nov 2017]

(A) Rog Mukt Bharat

(B) Kuposhan Mukt Bharat

(D) Shashakt Bharat

Answer: (B) Kuposhan Mukt Bharat

Explanation: NITI Aayog’s National Nutrition Strategy proposed a ‘Kuposhan Mukt Bharat’, or malnutrition-free India. The strategy stressed convergence among nutrition, health, sanitation and social-protection programmes, with emphasis on outcomes for women and children.

Q11. Who was appointed Director-General of the NIA in 2017?

[MP Patwari, 13 Dec 2017]

(A) Ashok Lavasa

(B) Rajiv Mehrishi

(D) Sunil Arora

Answer: (C) Y. C. Modi

Explanation: Y. C. Modi took over as Director-General of the National Investigation Agency in 2017. The NIA is the statutory federal agency responsible for investigating designated offences, especially those affecting terrorism and national security.

Q10. What is the term of a Central Vigilance Commissioner, subject to the prescribed maximum age?

[UPSSSC Lower Subordinate Services, 26 Jun 2016]

(A) Five years or 62 years

(B) Five years or 65 years

(D) Four years or 65 years

Answer: (D) Four years or 65 years

Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 provides a four-year term or service until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The rule is intended to regulate tenure of both the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners.

Q9. On which date did the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 come into effect?

[MPPSC State Service Preliminary, 2016]

(A) 28 September 1993

(B) 25 October 1993

(D) 31 December 1993

Answer: (A) 28 September 1993

Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 was deemed to have come into force on 28 September 1993. The enactment supplies the legal foundation for NHRC, State Human Rights Commissions and designated Human Rights Courts.

Q8. What was the purpose of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

[MPPSC State Service Preliminary, 2015]

(A) Better protection of human rights

(B) Constitution of a National Human Rights Commission

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: The Act provides for improved protection of human rights by constituting a national commission, enabling state commissions and establishing the framework for Human Rights Courts. All of the listed objectives are covered by its statutory design.

Q7. Which officeholder does not fall within the Lokpal’s investigative jurisdiction?

[UPRVUNL Assistant Engineer, 2014]

(A) Members of Parliament

(B) Union Ministers

(D) Prime Minister of India

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 includes the Prime Minister subject to safeguards, Union Ministers and members of Parliament within prescribed jurisdiction. It does not confer jurisdiction over the President of India in the same manner.

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2013]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The NDC was a separate executive forum rather than a subordinate organ of the Planning Commission. Economic and social planning is Entry 20 of the Concurrent List, while Article 243G enables state laws assigning development planning functions to Panchayats.

Q5. The Lokpal institution in India most closely follows which international idea?

[MPSC State Service Preliminary, 2013]

(A) India’s parliamentary ombudsman

(B) Ombudsman institution of Scandinavia

(D) French council system

Answer: (B) Ombudsman institution of Scandinavia

Explanation: The ombudsman originated in Sweden and spread to other Scandinavian countries before informing India’s Lokpal and Lokayukta model. These bodies aim to improve public accountability by examining specified grievances and corruption allegations against officials.

Q4. What does CBI stand for?

[Chhattisgarh Police Sub-Inspector, 2012]

(A) Central Bureau of Intelligence

(B) Central Bureau of Investigation

(D) Central Bureau of Infrastructure

Answer: (B) Central Bureau of Investigation

Explanation: CBI means Central Bureau of Investigation. The agency came into being in 1963 by executive resolution, inheriting investigative powers under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 and handling selected corruption, economic and serious crime cases.

Q3. In which month and year was India’s Planning Commission established?

[TNUSRB Sub-Inspector, 4 Jul 2010]

(A) March 1948

(B) March 1950

(D) March 1955

Answer: (B) March 1950

Explanation: The Planning Commission was constituted by a government resolution on 15 March 1950. Chaired by the Prime Minister, it formulated Five-Year Plans and advised on national development priorities until its replacement by NITI Aayog in 2015.

Q2. Under the original human rights commission law, who could be appointed Chairperson of the NHRC?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2004]

(A) Any serving Supreme Court judge

(B) Any serving High Court judge

(D) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court

Answer: (C) Only a retired Chief Justice of India

Explanation: Under the law applicable in the 2004 examination, the NHRC Chairperson had to have been Chief Justice of India. The 2019 amendment subsequently broadened eligibility to include former judges of the Supreme Court, making the original answer historically specific.

Q1. Five-Year Plans in India were finally approved by which body?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2002]

(A) Union Cabinet

(B) President on the advice of Prime Minister

(D) National Development Council

Answer: (D) National Development Council

Explanation: The Planning Commission prepared the Five-Year Plans, but their final endorsement was given by the National Development Council, comprising Union and state leadership. The NDC functioned as a national forum for coordination of development priorities in the pre-NITI Aayog period.

Q170. In which year was the Central Vigilance Commission set up on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee?

Q169. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in which year?

Q168. The Central Vigilance Commission is categorised as what type of body?

Q167. In which year was the Lokpal Bill first introduced in the Lok Sabha?

Q166. Which of the following is a core function of NITI Aayog?

Q165. The tenure of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India is _____.

Q164. As of May 2025, who was the Chief Information Commissioner of India?

Q163. Under which Act was the Central Information Commission established as a statutory body?

Q162. When was the Right to Information Act passed?

Q161. Under which section of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 is the National Disaster Management Authority constituted?

Q160. Who is the chairperson of the National Executive Committee under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?

Q159. Under the Disaster Management Act, which statements correctly describe a disaster: 1. Natural or human causes; 2. Large-scale death is essential; 3. Property or environmental damage; 4. Exceeds community coping capacity

Q158. In which year was the Planning Commission, later replaced by NITI Aayog, established?

Q157. Which index measures poverty using multiple dimensions such as education, health and living standards?

Q156. The erstwhile Planning Commission is now known as which institution?

Q155. NITI Aayog replaced which older organisation in 2015?

Q154. Which organisation launched BHARATPOL to enhance international law-enforcement information sharing in January 2025?

Q153. Who launched the CBI-developed BHARATPOL portal on 7 January 2025?

Q152. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

Q151. Where was the first Lokpal Day commemoration held in 2025?

Q150. The Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission became functional in which year?

Q149. When was the Human Rights Commission established in Bihar?

Q148. What technology enables simultaneous geographically targeted emergency alerts without relying on ordinary SMS delivery?

Q147. Which State Disaster Management Authority received the institutional Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar 2026?

Q146. Which disaster management authority was established in Odisha in 1999?

Q145. The CBI’s 2026 action against a transnational cyber-trafficking network concerned victims trafficked mainly to which region?

Q144. In NITI Aayog, what does NITI stand for?

Q143. Which organisation launched the Fiscal Health Index for India in 2025?

Q142. Which Act gave statutory status to the Central Vigilance Commission?

Q141. Who was the Central Vigilance Commissioner as of February 2025?

Q140. In which year was India’s National Human Rights Commission established?

Q139. Who was the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India in 2025?

Q138. When was the Protection of Human Rights Act passed in India?

Q137. Which Act provides for the creation of a State Information Commission?

Q136. In May 2025, for how long was CBI Director Praveen Sood’s tenure extended?

Q135. Which senior 1986-batch IPS officer received an extension as CBI Director in May 2025?

Q134. When was the Central Bureau of Investigation established in India?

Q133. BHARATPOL, an international police-cooperation portal, was developed by which agency: 1. CBI, 2. RAW, 3. IB, 4. ED?

Q132. Which organisation launched BHARATPOL to enhance coordination with INTERPOL in January 2025?

Q131. Which commission or body was formed in 1964?

Q130. In which year was the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act passed?

Q129. Who was the Chairperson of the Lokpal of India as of April 2025?

Q128. Which commission originally suggested establishing the institution of Lokpal?

Q127. What new motto did the Lokpal adopt in June 2025?

Q126. When did the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 come into force?

Q125. Lokpal and Lokayuktas primarily aim to promote what?

Q124. Under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Deputy Lokayukta Act, 1978, which subject is not itself among the categories of misconduct investigated by the Lokayukta?

Q123. Who is NOT part of the Lokpal selection committee?

Q122. When did the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act come into force in India?

Q121. Who was appointed Chairperson of the Lokpal in February 2024?

Q120. Arrange by establishment: 1. NHRC, 2. CVC, 3. NIA, 4. NCW, 5. CIC.

Q119. Which term is NOT included in the statutory definition of disaster in the Disaster Management Act, 2005?

Q118. In which year was NDMA initially constituted under the Prime Minister by executive order?

Q117. Who chaired the Planning Commission’s 2005 expert group reviewing poverty-estimation methodology?

Q116. What is the main function of NITI Aayog?

Q115. NITI Aayog is most closely associated with which field?

Q114. Which institution was replaced by NITI Aayog?

Q113. When was NITI Aayog set up in India?

Q112. In which year was the National Human Rights Commission established?

Q111. In which year was the National Human Rights Commission of India established?

Q110. When was the National Human Rights Commission constituted in India?

Q109. Where is the headquarters of the National Human Rights Commission located?

Q108. Which section of the Protection of Human Rights Act defines human rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity?

Q107. What is the maximum number of Information Commissioners besides the Chief Information Commissioner?

Q106. Who was the Central Vigilance Commissioner as of October 2023?

Q105. Who was sworn in as Central Vigilance Commissioner on 29 May 2023?

Q104. Who was the Central Vigilance Commissioner as of November 2023?

Q103. Who assumed the position of Central Vigilance Commissioner in May 2023?

Q102. In May 2023, who was sworn in as the Central Vigilance Commissioner?

Q101. What was the theme of Vigilance Awareness Week 2022?

Q100. Who became Central Vigilance Commissioner in May 2023?

Q99. Who was appointed Director of the CBI in May 2023?

Q98. In May 2023, Praveen Sood was appointed Director of which organisation?

Q97. Which Lokpal selection committee members are correct: 1. CJI, 2. Rajya Sabha Chairman, 3. Lok Sabha Speaker, 4. Lok Sabha opposition leader?

Q96. In which country was the ombudsman institution first established?

Q95. Who was appointed Chairperson of the Lokpal in February 2024?

Q94. Who was appointed Chairperson of the Lokpal in February 2024?

Q93. Which are non-constitutional bodies: 1. Tribunals, 2. NIA, 3. CCI, 4. Law Commission, 5. NCST, 6. CAG?

Q92. Which agency investigates terrorism and related offences in India?

Q91. What is the full form of NIA?

Q159. Under the Disaster Management Act, which statements correctly describe a disaster:
1. Natural or human causes;
2. Large-scale death is essential;
3. Property or environmental damage;
4. Exceeds community coping capacity

Q97. Which Lokpal selection committee members are correct:
1. CJI,
2. Rajya Sabha Chairman,
3. Lok Sabha Speaker,
4. Lok Sabha opposition leader?

Q93. Which are non-constitutional bodies:
1. Tribunals,
2. NIA,
3. CCI,
4. Law Commission,
5. NCST,
6. CAG?

Q62. With reference to NIA, which two statements are incorrect:
(i) it is a central investigating agency;
(ii) it works under the Ministry of External Affairs;
(iii) it was founded in 2006;
(iv) it investigates specified offences

Q27. Of the following, which is a constitutional body:
(i) NHRC;
(ii) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes;
(iii) NIA;
(iv) NDMA?