Q150. Consider the former Presidents of India:
1. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan;
2. Dr. Zakir Hussain;
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy.
How many of them also served as Vice-President of India?
[UPSC CDS-I 2026, General Knowledge (12 April 2026)]
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: (C) Two
Explanation: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and Zakir Hussain both served as Vice-President before becoming President. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy did not hold the vice-presidency; he earlier served as Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Thus exactly two names meet the condition.
Q149. Arrange the following in order of precedence:
1. Chief Justice of India;
2. Governors within their respective States;
3. Former Presidents;
4. Deputy Prime Minister.
[UPSC CDS-I 2026, General Knowledge (12 April 2026)]
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 2, 4, 3
(D) 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: (B) 2, 3, 4, 1
Explanation: The official Table of Precedence ranks Governors within their own States ahead of former Presidents, followed by the Deputy Prime Minister and the Chief Justice of India. This table determines ceremonial precedence and does not define constitutional authority.
Q148. The President of India can be impeached for violation of the Constitution under which Article?
[SSC MTS 2025, held 6 February 2026 (Shift 1)]
(A) Article 60
(B) Article 61
(C) Article 63
(D) Article 55
Answer: (B) Article 61
Explanation: Article 61 prescribes the procedure for impeaching the President for violating the Constitution. Either House of Parliament may initiate the charge, subject to constitutional notice and majority requirements. Article 60 instead concerns the presidential oath or affirmation.
Q147. Under which Article was Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai appointed to perform the duties of Chief Justice of the Sikkim High Court in December 2025?
[RRB Group D, held 6 February 2026 (Shift 1)]
(A) Article 223
(B) Article 217
(C) Article 226
(D) Article 124
Answer: (A) Article 223
Explanation: Article 223 authorises the President to appoint an acting Chief Justice of a High Court when that office is vacant or its holder cannot perform duties. It differs from Article 217, which governs appointments of High Court judges generally.
Q146. The President is elected by an electoral college, whereas the Governor of a State is ______.
[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II, held 19 January 2026]
(A) Directly elected by the people
(B) Appointed by the President
(C) Nominated by the Supreme Court
(D) Chosen by the State Legislative Assembly
Answer: (B) Appointed by the President
Explanation: The President of India appoints State Governors under Article 155. A Governor is not chosen through a direct popular vote or a State Assembly election. Presidential elections, by contrast, involve elected legislators through a constitutionally specified electoral college.
Q145. What is the minimum age required to contest an election for the office of President of India?
[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II, held 19 January 2026]
(A) 35 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 40 years
Answer: (A) 35 years
Explanation: Article 58 requires a presidential candidate to have completed 35 years of age, hold Indian citizenship and be qualified for election to the Lok Sabha. Holding a disqualifying office of profit ordinarily prevents eligibility, subject to specified exceptions.
Q144. Consider the statements:
1. C. P. Radhakrishnan took charge as Vice-President on 12 September 2025.
2. Unlike the presidential electoral college, the vice-presidential electoral college includes nominated members of Parliament.
Which is correct?
[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II, held 19 January 2026]
(A) Both statements
(B) Statement 2 only
(C) Neither statement
(D) Statement 1 only
Answer: (A) Both statements
Explanation: The Vice-President is elected by members of both parliamentary Houses, including nominated members, under Article 66. The presidential electoral college excludes nominated MPs. C. P. Radhakrishnan assumed the vice-presidency on 12 September 2025, making both statements correct.
2025
Q143. Consider the following statements about the pardoning power of the President of India:
I. Its exercise can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise it without the advice of the Central Government.
Which is/are correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2025]
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (A) I only
Explanation: Presidential clemency under Article 72 is normally exercised on the Union Council of Ministers’ advice. Courts may review a decision on limited grounds such as mala fides, arbitrariness or irrelevant considerations; they do not ordinarily reassess the merits of the punishment.
Q142. Consider these statements about the Central Vigilance Commission:
1. Its Commissioner is appointed by the President.
2. The Union Home Minister sits on the recommending committee.
3. In specified circumstances, the leader of the largest opposition group in the Lok Sabha may sit on that committee.
How many are correct?
[UPSC CDS-I 2025, General Studies (13 April 2025)]
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: (D) Three
Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President on a recommendation from a committee led by the Prime Minister. The committee includes the Home Minister and the recognised opposition leader, or an eligible largest-opposition-group leader where the relevant office is vacant.
Q141. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can President’s Rule be proclaimed in a State?
[SSC CGL 2025, 26 September (Shift 1)]
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 371
Answer: (B) Article 356
Explanation: Article 356 enables the President to issue a proclamation when constitutional governance in a State cannot be carried on according to the Constitution. Such a proclamation is subject to parliamentary approval. Article 352 concerns national emergencies, not ordinary President’s Rule.