Q120. Which among the following are consequences of deforestation?
A. Land erosion
B. Landslides
C. Increase in wastelands
D. Higher cropland productivity
E. Overgrazing
[UGC NET Sociology – 10 Sep 2026 | 2026]
A. C, D and E only
B. A only
C. A, B and C only
D. A, D and E only
Answer: C. A, B and C only
Explanation: Forest roots reinforce slopes and their canopy intercepts heavy rain. Clearing vegetation accelerates soil erosion, can destabilise hillsides and may turn productive land into wasteland. Higher cropland productivity is not an inevitable effect of deforestation, and overgrazing is a separate pressure.
Q119. Which technology permits geographically targeted disaster alerts to reach mobile phones simultaneously without ordinary SMS or internet access?
[RRB Group D – 18 Aug 2026 | 2026]
A. Short Message Peer Protocol
B. Cell Broadcast System
C. Satellite Direct Frequency
D. Optical Fiber Multicasting
Answer: B. Cell Broadcast System
Explanation: Cell broadcast sends alerts to all compatible handsets connected to selected mobile-network cells. It helps authorities deliver area-specific warnings about cyclones, floods and other emergencies rapidly, even when ordinary messaging services are congested or mobile internet connectivity is unavailable.
Q118. Cyclone Montha, which affected India in October 2025, struck the coast of which state?
[RRB Group D – 11 Aug 2026 | 2026]
A. West Bengal
B. Odisha
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C. Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Cyclone Montha developed over the Bay of Bengal in the post-monsoon season and crossed the Andhra Pradesh coast. North Indian Ocean tropical cyclones can produce damaging winds, coastal inundation and torrential rainfall, making early evacuation and accurate landfall forecasts particularly important.
Q117. A 2026 pilot early-warning programme for glacial lake outburst floods was carried out in which Himalayan state?
[RRB Group D – 6 Aug 2026 | 2026]
A. Sikkim
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Uttarakhand
Answer: B. Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: Himachal Pradesh hosted sensor-based monitoring of vulnerable glacial lakes, including sites in Lahaul and Spiti. A glacial lake outburst flood can release water and debris with very little warning; downstream alarms and monitoring can therefore save lives.
Q116. What was the primary objective of the national project approved by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and NDMA in December 2025?
[RRB Group D – 5 Aug 2026 | 2026]
A. Buying firefighting drones for metropolitan areas
B. Strengthening community-based disaster risk reduction through Panchayati Raj Institutions
C. Constructing a new national cyclone warning centre
D. Building underground tsunami shelters in the Andaman Islands
Answer: B. Strengthening community-based disaster risk reduction through Panchayati Raj Institutions
Explanation: The project aimed to strengthen local preparedness using Panchayati Raj Institutions as community-level partners. Village bodies can identify vulnerable households, prepare evacuation plans and coordinate relief. Disaster resilience improves when early warnings translate into organised local action, not merely national advisories.
Q115. Which organisation coordinated disaster response and preparedness for cyclones on India’s eastern coast in April 2026?
[RRB Group D – 4 Aug 2026 | 2026]
A. National Disaster Management Authority
B. India Meteorological Department
C. National Institute of Disaster Management
D. State Disaster Response Forces
Answer: A. National Disaster Management Authority
Explanation: The NDMA provides national policy direction and coordinates preparedness efforts. The India Meteorological Department issues technical cyclone forecasts, while response forces and state authorities undertake operations. Distinguishing these responsibilities is essential when assessing India’s multi-agency disaster-management arrangements.
Q114. Which Manipur district was identified as the epicentral area of an earthquake in April 2026?
[RRB Group D – 3 Aug 2026 | 2026]
A. Kamjong
B. Senapati
C. Ukhrul
D. Churachandpur
Answer: A. Kamjong
Explanation: Kamjong in eastern Manipur was reported as the epicentral district. The northeastern states lie near an active tectonic region where crustal deformation generates frequent earthquakes. An epicentre is the surface location vertically above an earthquake’s focus beneath the ground.
Q113. Which global earthquake belt releases the greatest share of seismic energy?
[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent – 1 Jul 2026 | 2026]
A. Alpide belt
B. East African Rift
C. Circum-Pacific belt
D. Mid-Atlantic Ridge
Answer: C. Circum-Pacific belt
Explanation: The Circum-Pacific belt, also known as the Ring of Fire, surrounds the Pacific Ocean and includes numerous subduction zones. Strong earthquakes are concentrated there. India’s Himalayan seismicity mainly belongs to the Alpine-Himalayan belt, a different major plate-boundary system.
Q112. The sudden downward movement of soil or rock masses on a slope under gravity is called what?
[UGC NET Paper I – 29 Jun 2026 | 2026]
A. Erosion
B. Mining
C. Landslide
D. Earthquake
Answer: C. Landslide
Explanation: A landslide involves downslope movement of soil, debris or rock under gravity. Intense rainfall, earthquakes, weathering and human slope cutting can trigger it. The Himalayan states and parts of the Western Ghats are prominent Indian regions vulnerable to landslide hazards.
Q111. Tropical cyclones form mainly due to which conditions?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate – 17 Jun 2026 | 2026]
A. Low-pressure systems over warm ocean waters
B. High-pressure systems over land
C. Rising continental winds
D. Fast-moving cold fronts
Answer: A. Low-pressure systems over warm ocean waters
Explanation: Tropical cyclones need sufficiently warm seas, moisture, low-level convergence and favourable atmospheric circulation. Rising humid air condenses, releasing latent heat that strengthens a low-pressure vortex. The Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea both generate storms affecting the Indian coastline.
Q110. Under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, which statements about a disaster are correct?
1. It includes natural and human causes.
2. It must involve mass loss of life.
3. It can include property or environmental damage.
4. It exceeds local coping capacity.
[OPSC OCS Prelims – 7 Jun 2026 | 2026]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Indian law covers serious occurrences caused by natural forces, accidents or human actions. Significant property loss, environmental damage or human suffering may qualify even without mass fatalities. The defining feature is an event severe enough to exceed the affected community’s coping capacity.
Q109. The Damodar Valley Corporation was established for which purpose?
[SSC GD – 27 May 2026 | 2026]
A. Trade promotion
B. Steel production
C. Multipurpose river-valley development
D. Rural credit
Answer: C. Multipurpose river-valley development
Explanation: The Damodar Valley Corporation was created in 1948 for integrated basin development. Besides generating power and supporting irrigation, its reservoirs and river-management works were intended to reduce destructive flooding along the Damodar, historically called the Sorrow of Bengal.
Q108. Which Indian satellite helped monitor cyclones Phailin and Hudhud?
[SSC GD – 5 May 2026 | 2026]
A. INSAT-3D
B. Cartosat-1
C. GSAT-7
D. RISAT-2
Answer: A. INSAT-3D
Explanation: INSAT-3D, launched in 2013, carries meteorological imaging and sounding instruments. Its observations help forecasters estimate storm structure, cloud development and atmospheric conditions. Phailin in 2013 and Hudhud in 2014 demonstrated the importance of satellite-supported cyclone tracking.
Q107. Which expression represents disaster risk in a simplified hazard–vulnerability–exposure framework?
[UPSSSC Lekhpal Mains – 21 May 2026 | 2026]
A. (Hazard + Vulnerability + Exposure) × Coping Capacity
B. (Hazard × Vulnerability) ÷ (Exposure × Coping Capacity)
C. (Hazard × Vulnerability × Exposure) ÷ Coping Capacity
D. (Hazard × Vulnerability × Coping Capacity) ÷ Exposure
Answer: C. (Hazard × Vulnerability × Exposure) ÷ Coping Capacity
Explanation: Disaster risk rises when hazards affect more exposed and vulnerable people or assets. Greater coping capacity can reduce that risk. The expression is a teaching model, not a universal quantitative law, but it captures the logic of disaster-risk reduction.
Q106. The National Disaster Management Authority is constituted under which section of the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
[UPSSSC Lekhpal Mains – 21 May 2026 | 2026]
A. Section 10
B. Section 6
C. Section 3
D. Section 14
Answer: C. Section 3
Explanation: Section 3 provides for constituting the National Disaster Management Authority, chaired by India’s Prime Minister. Section 6 addresses the authority’s powers, while Section 14 provides for State Disaster Management Authorities. This structure underpins national and state-level disaster policy coordination.
Q105. Which organisation was established in Odisha in 1999 for state-level disaster management?
[OSSSC Forest Guard – 20 Apr 2026 | 2026]
A. Odisha State Disaster Management Authority
B. Odisha Rapid Relief Force
C. National Disaster Response Team
D. Odisha Emergency Regulation Commission
Answer: A. Odisha State Disaster Management Authority
Explanation: Odisha established a dedicated disaster-management body following the catastrophic 1999 super cyclone. Known as the Odisha State Disaster Management Authority, it helped institutionalise cyclone shelters, evacuation planning and community preparedness in one of India’s most cyclone-exposed coastal states.
Q104. Which Indian seismic zone indicates the highest earthquake damage risk?
[OSSSC Forest Guard – 17 Apr 2026 | 2026]
A. Zone II
B. Zone III
C. Zone I
D. Zone V
Answer: D. Zone V
Explanation: On the conventional Indian seismic zoning map, Zone V denotes the very-high-damage-risk category. Much of the northeast, Himalayan areas and the Rann of Kutch have high seismic hazard. Structural safety depends on site conditions and building design as well as zone.
Q103. Consider:
1. Meteorological drought occurs when rainfall falls below 75% of its long-period average.
2. Agricultural drought arises from severe moisture stress.
3. Soil-moisture drought is the same classification as meteorological drought.
Which are correct?
[CDS-I General Knowledge – 12 Apr 2026 | 2026]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Meteorological drought refers to a sustained deficit of rainfall; agricultural drought indicates inadequate moisture for crops. Though the two are connected, soil-moisture shortages need not match rainfall classifications exactly. Different forms of drought can appear at different times and spatial scales.
Q102. Which earthquake load combination is considered under the limit-state method for building design?
[SSC JE Civil Paper II – 7 Apr 2026 | 2026]
A. 1.5DL + 1.2LL + 1.0EL
B. 1.5DL + 1.2LL + 1.2EL
C. 1.2DL + 1.2LL + 1.2EL
D. 1.8DL + 1.2LL + 1.2EL
Answer: C. 1.2DL + 1.2LL + 1.2EL
Explanation: The specified earthquake-design load combination applies a factor of 1.2 to dead, live and earthquake loads together. Such combinations account for simultaneous actions on a structure. Earthquake-resistant construction is a vital way to reduce casualties during seismic events.
Q101. Kalang village, temporarily relocated during the 2025 landslide threat, lies in which Himachal Pradesh district?
[RRB NTPC Graduate – 22 Mar 2026 | 2026]
A. Mandi
B. Kangra
C. Kullu
D. Shimla
Answer: A. Mandi
Explanation: Kalang village is in Mandi district, where slope instability threatened homes following heavy monsoon rainfall. Moving families away from hazardous ground is a precautionary disaster-management action. Himalayan settlements face elevated landslide risk from steep terrain and disturbed slopes.
Q100. Which village near the Gangotri route was devastated by the 5 August 2025 Uttarakhand flash flood?
[RRB Group D – 4 Feb 2026 | 2026]
A. Dharali, Uttarkashi
B. Joshimath, Chamoli
C. Balta, Almora
D. Rudraprayag, Rudraprayag
Answer: A. Dharali, Uttarkashi
Explanation: Dharali in Uttarkashi district was struck by a destructive flood and debris torrent. In mountain catchments, intense rainfall and mobilised sediment can produce devastating flows. Narrow valleys and settlements close to channels are especially vulnerable to sudden inundation.
Q99. Which human activities particularly increase the risk of landslides?
[MP Police Sub-Inspector – 19 Jan 2026 | 2026]
A. Flood irrigation
B. Deforestation and unplanned construction
C. Terrace farming alone
D. Planting trees and seed balls
Answer: B. Deforestation and unplanned construction
Explanation: Tree roots help bind hillside soil, while unmanaged slope excavation can weaken rock and soil. Deforestation and poorly planned roads or buildings therefore increase failure risk. Drainage management and stabilisation measures are especially important in Himalayan and Western Ghats terrain.
Q98. Which Indian agency issues official cyclone forecasts and warnings?
[MP Police Sub-Inspector – 18 Jan 2026 | 2026]
A. Central Water Commission
B. National Remote Sensing Centre
C. National Disaster Management Authority
D. India Meteorological Department
Answer: D. India Meteorological Department
Explanation: The India Meteorological Department tracks cyclones through satellite data, weather radar and forecasting models. It issues warnings concerning likely paths, wind strength, rainfall and landfall. Disaster-management authorities then use the forecasts to organise evacuation and protective action.
Q97. Which earthquake statements are correct?
A. S-waves reach seismographs first.
B. The Richter magnitude scale was devised in 1935.
C. Richter magnitude represents earthquake size.
D. Earthquakes occur frequently at divergent and convergent plate boundaries.
[UGC NET Geography – 3 Jan 2026 | 2026]
A. B, C and D only
B. B and C only
C. A and C only
D. B and D only
Answer: A. B, C and D only
Explanation: Primary or P-waves travel fastest and normally arrive before S-waves. Charles Richter introduced his magnitude scale in 1935. Earthquake activity is common along interacting plate boundaries, although significant events may also occur within plates, as at Koyna or Kutch.
Q96. Put these disasters in chronological order:
A. Japan earthquake and tsunami
B. Haiti earthquake
C. Hurricane Katrina
D. South Asian tsunami.
[UGC NET Sociology – 2 Jan 2026 | 2026]
A. A, C, D, B
B. B, A, D, C
C. C, D, A, B
D. D, C, B, A
Answer: D. D, C, B, A
Explanation: The Indian Ocean tsunami struck on 26 December 2004, followed by Hurricane Katrina in 2005, Haiti’s earthquake in 2010 and Japan’s earthquake-tsunami in 2011. The 2004 event devastated parts of India’s eastern and island coastlines.
Q95. A deadly 26 August 2025 landslide occurred near which pilgrimage shrine in Reasi district?
[RRB Group D – 30 Dec 2025 | 2025]
A. Hemkund Sahib
B. Vaishno Devi
C. Amarnath Cave
D. Shankaracharya Temple
Answer: B. Vaishno Devi
Explanation: The landslide occurred near the Vaishno Devi pilgrimage route in Jammu and Kashmir. Mountain roads and pilgrimage paths are vulnerable to sudden slope failures, particularly during prolonged rainfall. Real-time warnings, route closures and slope monitoring are critical in such terrain.
Q94. Cyclone Montha crossed Andhra Pradesh’s coast in October 2025 between which locations?
[RRB Group D – 23 Dec 2025 | 2025]
A. Machilipatnam and Kalingapatnam
B. Chennai and Puducherry
C. Visakhapatnam and Gopalpur
D. Paradip and Digha
Answer: A. Machilipatnam and Kalingapatnam
Explanation: The India Meteorological Department reported landfall along the Andhra Pradesh coast between Machilipatnam and Kalingapatnam. Monitoring cyclone tracks helps coastal administrations decide where to evacuate people. Heavy rainfall and storm surges can extend risk beyond the immediate landfall point.
Q93. According to data cited by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in March 2025, what share of India’s area is vulnerable to earthquakes?
[RRB Group D – 11 Dec 2025 | 2025]
A. 30%
B. 59%
C. 89%
D. 40%
Answer: B. 59%
Explanation: About 59 percent of India’s land area is considered vulnerable to varying levels of earthquake hazard. The Himalayas, the northeast, Kutch and portions of the Indo-Gangetic plains are particularly exposed. Building codes and local microzonation improve preparedness.
Q92. Which state activated a 24-hour flood-control room when the Subarnarekha, Budhabalanga and Jalaka rivers swelled?
[RRB Group D – 10 Dec 2025 | 2025]
A. Assam
B. Odisha
C. Bihar
D. West Bengal
Answer: B. Odisha
Explanation: Odisha established round-the-clock monitoring as rivers in its northern districts rose. Flood control rooms consolidate rainfall, discharge and field reports for issuing warnings. The Subarnarekha and Budhabalanga systems can threaten settlements during intense monsoon rain.
Q91. India launched Operation Brahma in March 2025 mainly for which purpose?
[RRB Group D – 4 Dec 2025 | 2025]
A. War extradition
B. Military exercise
C. Earthquake relief
D. Tsunami relief
Answer: C. Earthquake relief
Explanation: Operation Brahma supported earthquake relief in neighbouring Myanmar. India sent humanitarian supplies, medical assistance and rescue resources after destructive seismic shaking. Such operations illustrate cross-border disaster response, where rapid deployment helps countries overwhelmed by damaged infrastructure and casualties.
Q90. How many earthquakes were reported in India during November 2024–February 2025, according to the cited March 2025 data?
[RRB Group D – 1 Dec 2025 | 2025]
A. 136
B. 197
C. 159
D. 213
Answer: C. 159
Explanation: The cited Ministry of Earth Sciences data recorded 159 earthquake events during the specified four-month period. Continuous seismic surveillance is important because many tremors are too small to be widely felt, yet recorded patterns help scientists assess regional tectonic activity.
Q89. In which city was the National Landslide Forecasting Centre inaugurated in July 2024?
[SSC CHSL – 29 Nov 2025 | 2025]
A. Patna
B. Kolkata
C. Bhopal
D. Raipur
Answer: B. Kolkata
Explanation: The National Landslide Forecasting Centre was inaugurated in Kolkata to strengthen landslide forecasting and alerts. Rainfall-triggered slope failures threaten Himalayan and Western Ghats settlements. Timely forecasts can support route closures, evacuation decisions and improved planning in susceptible districts.
Q88. Which tropical-cyclone statement is incorrect?
a. They form in tropical latitudes.
b. Diameters can be 300–1,500 km or more.
c. Winds may exceed 50–60 km/h.
d. They turn clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.
[MPSC Rajyaseva – 9 Nov 2025 | 2025]
A. Only a
B. Only b and c
C. Only d
D. Only b and d
Answer: C. Only d
Explanation: Northern Hemisphere cyclones rotate anticlockwise around a low-pressure centre because of the Coriolis effect. Cyclones over the Bay of Bengal therefore possess anticlockwise circulation. Their large circulation systems may span hundreds of kilometres and generate damaging winds and intense rainfall.
Q87. What triggered the destructive tsunami that struck Japan in 2011?
[DSSSB TGT Social Science – 8 Nov 2025 | 2025]
A. Submarine landslide alone
B. Eruption of Mount Fuji
C. Asteroid collision in Asia
D. Undersea earthquake near Tohoku
Answer: D. Undersea earthquake near Tohoku
Explanation: The magnitude-nine Tohoku earthquake ruptured a subduction zone offshore Japan, lifting the seabed and displacing seawater. The resulting tsunami devastated the coast. Comparable megathrust earthquakes also threaten the Indian Ocean, as demonstrated by the Sumatra earthquake of 2004.
Q86. Which is NOT a cause of a tsunami?
[DSSSB TGT Social Science – 8 Nov 2025 | 2025]
A. Earthquakes
B. Underwater landslides
C. The Moon’s gravitational pull
D. Volcanic eruptions
Answer: C. The Moon’s gravitational pull
Explanation: The Moon’s gravitational attraction primarily produces ocean tides, not tsunami waves. Tsunamis arise from sudden large-scale displacement of water, generally by submarine earthquakes, volcanic eruptions or underwater slope failures. They are therefore physically different from routine high tides.
Q85. How does satellite imagery help manage natural disasters in India?
[SSC CGL – 25 Sep 2025 | 2025]
A. It creates 3D games
B. It connects mobile towers
C. It tracks migratory birds
D. It supplies timely information on floods, cyclones and droughts
Answer: D. It supplies timely information on floods, cyclones and droughts
Explanation: Earth-observation satellites reveal cloud systems, inundated floodplains and changing surface conditions. Repeated images allow agencies to monitor hazard development, identify affected areas and plan relief. Satellite information complements field measurements and forecasts rather than replacing local observations.
Q84. Match landslides to years:
a. Karmi, Bageshwar
b. Malpa
c. Neelkanth
d. Devpuri, Gairsain;
years
1. 1990
2. 1998
3. 1983
4. 2007.
[UKSSSC Patwari – 21 Sep 2025 | 2025]
A. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
D. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
Answer: A. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Explanation: The pairings are Karmi–1983, Malpa–1998, Neelkanth–1990 and Devpuri–2007. Uttarakhand’s steep, fractured mountain terrain and heavy seasonal rainfall make landslides recurrent hazards. Historical inventories help identify unstable areas and prioritise protective works and relocation.
Q83. Which listed natural disaster is not primarily atmospheric?
[CDS-II General Knowledge – 14 Sep 2025 | 2025]
A. Drought
B. Hailstorm
C. Frost
D. Avalanche
Answer: D. Avalanche
Explanation: An avalanche is a rapid downslope movement of snow and ice under gravity, so it is a mass-movement hazard. Drought, hailstorms and frost involve atmospheric conditions. Avalanches can be triggered by snowfall, warming or disturbances on unstable mountain slopes.
Q82. Regarding the Richter scale, consider:
1. It measures earthquake intensity.
2. It indicates earthquake magnitude related to energy release.
Which are correct?
[CDS-II General Knowledge – 14 Sep 2025 | 2025]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation: Richter magnitude quantifies earthquake size using seismic-wave measurements, while intensity describes shaking effects at a particular place. The Modified Mercalli scale expresses intensity. A single earthquake has one magnitude estimate but can produce different intensities at different locations.
Q81. Regarding the National Institute of Disaster Management:
1. It was first constituted in 2006.
2. It assists national-level disaster-management policy formulation under the 2005 Act.
Which statements are correct?
[CDS-II General Knowledge – 14 Sep 2025 | 2025]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation: The institution evolved from an earlier disaster-management training centre and predates 2006. Under the Disaster Management Act it has roles in research, training, capacity building and policy support. Its work complements NDMA’s direction of national disaster policy.
Q80. In which year was NDMA first constituted under the Prime Minister by executive order?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate – 21 Aug 2025 | 2025]
A. 2005
B. 2010
C. 2007
D. 2008
Answer: A. 2005
Explanation: The National Disaster Management Authority was initially constituted by executive order in 2005 and later received statutory backing under the Disaster Management Act. Chaired by the Prime Minister, it guides policy for preventing, mitigating and responding to disasters across India.
Q79. Mining-related landslides and ground subsidence are commonly encountered in which states?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate – 19 Aug 2025 | 2025]
A. Assam and West Bengal
B. Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
C. Rajasthan and Haryana
D. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
Answer: D. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
Explanation: Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh contain important mineral-bearing regions where excavation, underground workings and waste dumping can destabilise land. Mining-related subsidence differs from ordinary rain-triggered hill landslides, although both can endanger roads, buildings and nearby settlements.
Q78. What is the most common trigger of a tsunami?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate – 18 Aug 2025 | 2025]
A. Heavy rainfall and flooding
B. Subsea earthquake
C. Only volcanic eruption
D. Cyclones and high tides
Answer: B. Subsea earthquake
Explanation: An undersea earthquake may suddenly lift or lower a broad section of seabed, displacing the water column above it. The long tsunami waves spread outward and grow in height near shallow coasts. The 2004 Indian Ocean event followed this mechanism.
Q77. Which body is responsible for disaster management at the national level in India?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate – 18 Aug 2025 | 2025]
A. SDRF
B. IRDA
C. NDMA
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: C. NDMA
Explanation: The National Disaster Management Authority coordinates the national framework for reducing disaster risk. State and district authorities implement preparedness and response locally, while specialised response forces conduct rescue operations. Other bodies listed have distinct responsibilities outside national disaster policy.
Q76. What is the principal objective of ISRO’s SCATSAT-1 satellite?
[SSC Stenographer – 8 Aug 2025 | 2025]
A. Monitoring earthquake zones
B. Measuring ozone depletion
C. Weather forecasting and cyclone prediction
D. Mapping forest cover
Answer: C. Weather forecasting and cyclone prediction
Explanation: SCATSAT-1 measures ocean-surface wind conditions using scatterometry. Such data help meteorologists analyse cyclonic circulation and improve forecasts over the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal. Wind observations are essential for assessing developing marine weather hazards.
Q75. Operation Brahma was launched by India in 2025 to support earthquake relief in which country?
[OSSC Junior Stenographer – 27 Jul 2025 | 2025]
A. Bangladesh
B. Nepal
C. Myanmar
D. Sri Lanka
Answer: C. Myanmar
Explanation: India launched Operation Brahma after a destructive earthquake in Myanmar, supplying relief equipment, medical assistance and search-and-rescue support. Although the disaster occurred outside India, the operation demonstrates Indian regional humanitarian assistance and emergency response capabilities.
Q74. Which instrument records seismic waves produced by an earthquake?
[SCL Assistant – 13 Jul 2025 | 2025]
A. Mercalli scale
B. Richter scale
C. Seismograph
D. Metric scale
Answer: C. Seismograph
Explanation: A seismograph detects and records ground vibrations caused by seismic waves. Its recording is called a seismogram. Richter and Mercalli are scales for describing different aspects of earthquakes, not instruments that physically detect motion at a station.
Q73. Arrange these Indian disasters earliest to latest:
A. Tamil Nadu tsunami
B. Bhuj earthquake
C. Odisha super cyclone
D. Koyna earthquake.
[UGC NET Geography – 29 Jun 2025 | 2025]
A. C, D, A, B
B. D, C, B, A
C. B, A, C, D
D. A, B, D, C
Answer: B. D, C, B, A
Explanation: The Koyna earthquake occurred in 1967, followed by Odisha’s super cyclone in 1999, the Bhuj earthquake in January 2001 and the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004. These events represent contrasting earthquake, cyclone and coastal inundation hazards.
Q72. Consider earthquake S-waves:
1. They produce crests and troughs in the material.
2. Their vibration is perpendicular to their direction of propagation.
Which are correct?
[CDS-I General Knowledge – 13 Apr 2025 | 2025]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: S-waves are transverse shear waves; particles oscillate perpendicular to the direction the wave travels. They may deform a solid up-down or side-to-side. Unlike compressional P-waves, S-waves cannot propagate through the Earth’s liquid outer core.
Q71. Which cyclone affected the Tamil Nadu coastal region during November–December 2024?
[MPPSC Prelims – 2025 | 2025]
A. Asna
B. Dana
C. Biparjoy
D. Fengal
Answer: D. Fengal
Explanation: Cyclone Fengal developed over the Bay of Bengal and affected Tamil Nadu and nearby Puducherry in late 2024. The storm produced heavy rainfall and flooding. It illustrates the danger of post-monsoon cyclones striking India’s southeastern coastline.
Q70. In which Kerala district did major landslides occur in July 2024?
[RRB Technician – 20 Dec 2024 | 2024]
A. Thrissur
B. Idukki
C. Malappuram
D. Wayanad
Answer: D. Wayanad
Explanation: Catastrophic landslides struck Wayanad, particularly around Mundakkai and Chooralmala, after exceptional monsoon rain. Steep slopes, saturated soils and dense settlements magnified the devastation. The event highlights landslide vulnerability in the Western Ghats beyond the Himalayan region.
Q69. Which country proposed the name Dana for the cyclone that affected India in 2024?
[RRB JE – 18 Dec 2024 | 2024]
A. Maldives
B. United Arab Emirates
C. Oman
D. Saudi Arabia
Answer: D. Saudi Arabia
Explanation: Saudi Arabia supplied the name Dana under the approved North Indian Ocean cyclone naming list. Naming provides a common identifier for weather bulletins and public alerts. The World Meteorological Organization facilitates regional coordination among countries contributing cyclone names.
Q68. Which drought statement is correct?
1. Meteorological drought is defined by effects on water supply.
2. Socioeconomic drought concerns the supply and demand of economic goods.
[OPSC OAS Prelims – 15 Dec 2024 | 2024]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation: Meteorological drought describes a prolonged rainfall deficit. Hydrological drought concerns depleted streams, reservoirs and groundwater; socioeconomic drought arises when water shortage disrupts economic activity and essential goods. Separating these types improves India’s drought monitoring and response.
Q67. Tropical cyclones affecting India originate over which combination of ocean regions?
[SSC Stenographer – 10 Dec 2024 | 2024]
A. Mediterranean Sea, Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean
B. Mediterranean Sea, Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean
C. Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and Atlantic Ocean
D. Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean
Answer: D. Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean
Explanation: The Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea are parts of the northern Indian Ocean and are important tropical-cyclone basins. Warm sea surfaces and suitable wind patterns allow cyclones to intensify. Mediterranean storms have a different, largely extratropical meteorological origin.
Q66. Which cyclone caused storms, flash floods and landslips in India’s northeastern states during 2024?
[RRB ALP – 25 Nov 2024 | 2024]
A. Remal
B. Yaas
C. Amphan
D. Fani
Answer: A. Remal
Explanation: Cyclone Remal moved inland after affecting the Bay of Bengal coastline and caused severe rain-related impacts in northeastern India. Tropical systems can continue producing landslides and river floods far from landfall, particularly when moist air encounters mountainous terrain.
Q65. What is a principal cause of tsunamis originating in the ocean?
[SSC MTS – 13 Nov 2024 | 2024]
A. Movement of tectonic plates beneath the ocean
B. Increasing ocean acidity
C. Excess dissolved carbon dioxide
D. Accumulated radioactive pollutants
Answer: A. Movement of tectonic plates beneath the ocean
Explanation: Sudden submarine fault displacement can lift or drop the ocean floor and force a huge volume of water to move. This creates long tsunami waves. Routine chemical changes in seawater do not provide the rapid physical displacement needed to generate such waves.
Q64. Which volcanic feature is associated with the most explosive, large-scale eruptions?
[SSC MTS – 12 Nov 2024 | 2024]
A. Caldera
B. Lopolith
C. Dyke
D. Flood-basalt province
Answer: A. Caldera
Explanation: Large caldera-forming eruptions may violently eject ash and gases as magma chambers empty and collapse. Dykes and lopoliths are intrusive structures, while flood basalts are generally associated with widespread effusive lava flows. India’s active Barren Island volcano is not a caldera supereruption.
Q63. Large ocean waves generated by submarine earthquakes or volcanic eruptions are called what?
[SSC MTS – 30 Oct 2024 | 2024]
A. Hurricanes
B. Tsunamis
C. Typhoons
D. Tornadoes
Answer: B. Tsunamis
Explanation: A tsunami is a series of long water waves triggered by sudden displacement of the ocean. In the deep sea waves may be relatively low, but they slow and grow near shore. India experienced destructive tsunami impacts in December 2004.
Q62. Most natural earthquakes occur in which layer of the Earth?
[SSC MTS – 23 Oct 2024 | 2024]
A. Lithosphere
B. Hydrosphere
C. Biosphere
D. Asthenosphere
Answer: A. Lithosphere
Explanation: Earthquakes generally involve sudden rupture of brittle rock within the lithosphere, comprising the crust and rigid upper mantle. The Indian Plate is still interacting with Eurasia, contributing to Himalayan earthquakes. Shaking radiates outward from the focus through seismic waves.
Q61. What is the region on Earth where particular earthquake waves cannot be recorded called?
[SSC MTS – 14 Oct 2024, Shift 2 | 2024]
A. Benthic zone
B. Hypocentre
C. Shadow zone
D. Epicentre
Answer: C. Shadow zone
Explanation: Seismic shadow zones result from the way waves interact with Earth’s internal layers. S-waves cannot pass through the liquid outer core; P-waves are strongly refracted there. Such observations helped establish the layered structure of Earth’s interior.
Q60. What is a quiet segment of an active fault that may still produce future earthquakes called?
[SSC MTS – 14 Oct 2024, Shift 1 | 2024]
A. Hypocentre
B. Seismic gap
C. Epicentre
D. Seismic wave
Answer: B. Seismic gap
Explanation: A seismic gap is a portion of an active fault with relatively little recent rupture despite a history of earthquake activity. Scientists study such gaps as part of seismic hazard assessment, though the timing of an eventual earthquake cannot be reliably predicted.
Q59. What is the record produced by an earthquake-recording instrument called?
[SSC CGL – 25 Sep 2024 | 2024]
A. Seismograph
B. Seismogram
C. Seismology
D. Seismic wave
Answer: B. Seismogram
Explanation: A seismograph is the recording instrument, whereas a seismogram is the trace showing measured ground motion over time. Seismologists analyse arrival times and amplitudes on these records to estimate earthquake location, depth and magnitude and to study internal structure.
Q58. Tropical cyclones in Australia are conventionally called what?
[SSC CGL – 17 Sep 2024 | 2024]
A. Hurricanes
B. Willy-willies
C. Cyclones
D. Typhoons
Answer: B. Willy-willies
Explanation: The traditional geographical term willy-willies is associated with Australian cyclonic storms. Similar organised tropical storms have different regional names. India uses the term cyclone for intense rotating systems that develop over its adjoining warm ocean basins.
Q57. What name is used for tropical cyclones originating over the South China Sea?
[WBPSC Miscellaneous – 15 Sep 2024 | 2024]
A. Willy-willy
B. Hurricane
C. Typhoon
D. Tornado
Answer: C. Typhoon
Explanation: The northwest Pacific and South China Sea use the name typhoon for tropical cyclones. The same basic storm mechanism is called a hurricane in the Atlantic and a cyclone over the northern Indian Ocean. Nomenclature changes by region, not fundamental physics.
Q56. Match cyclone names with regions:
A. Hurricane B. Willy-willy C. Baguio D. Typhoon;
1. China 2. Philippines 3. Australia 4. USA.
[NDA-II General Ability – 1 Sep 2024 | 2024]
A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
B. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
D. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
Answer: A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Explanation: Different regions apply different local names to tropical cyclones. Hurricanes affect the Atlantic-facing Americas, willy-willies are associated with Australia, baguio with the Philippines and typhoons with East Asia. All may produce heavy rain, strong winds and storm surges.
Q55. Which international body provides global guidance on disaster risk reduction?
[UP Police Constable – 24 Aug 2024 | 2024]
A. UNDRR
B. UNESCO
C. WTO
D. WHO
Answer: A. UNDRR
Explanation: The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction supports implementation of the Sendai Framework and coordination of international risk-reduction efforts. It encourages prevention, resilience, early warning and reduced exposure to hazards. National agencies such as India’s NDMA translate broad principles into policies.
Q54. Consider:
1. Earthquakes occur when accumulated stress overcomes friction along a fault.
2. A smaller earthquake can be labelled a foreshock only after a larger event follows.
Which statements are correct?
[SSC CPO – 29 Jun 2024 | 2024]
A. Both incorrect
B. Only 1 correct
C. Only 2 correct
D. Both correct
Answer: D. Both correct
Explanation: Fault rupture releases stored elastic energy as seismic waves. A smaller quake is retrospectively called a foreshock only if followed by a larger nearby earthquake. Without that later event, it cannot be distinguished reliably from ordinary seismic activity beforehand.
Q53. Which instrument is used to record earthquake-generated ground motion?
[SSC JE Mechanical – 7 Jun 2024 | 2024]
A. Barometer
B. Seismograph
C. Pyrometer
D. Calorimeter
Answer: B. Seismograph
Explanation: Seismographs measure movements produced by seismic waves. A barometer measures atmospheric pressure; pyrometers measure high temperatures; calorimeters measure heat. Seismic instruments operate across India through national observatory networks and support earthquake location and magnitude determination.
Q52. Which measures mitigate landslides?
A. Avoid building in high-risk areas
B. Remove protective vegetation
C. Construct retaining walls
D. Avoid drainage systems.
[SSC JE Civil – 6 Jun 2024 | 2024]
A. B and D only
B. B, C and D
C. A and B
D. A and C
Answer: D. A and C
Explanation: Keeping new settlements away from unstable slopes reduces exposure, while suitable retaining walls support vulnerable cuts. Removing trees weakens natural reinforcement, and failure to provide drainage allows water pressure to build, increasing the likelihood of slope collapse.
Q51. Which part of Gujarat falls in a very-high-damage-risk seismic region?
[RPSC Assistant Professor Geography – 18 May 2024 | 2024]
A. Eastern Gujarat
B. Saurashtra
C. Southern Gujarat
D. Rann of Kutch
Answer: D. Rann of Kutch
Explanation: The Rann of Kutch is seismically active and lies in a high-damage-risk area. The devastating 2001 Bhuj earthquake occurred in this tectonically stressed region. Strong construction standards and emergency planning are essential in earthquake-exposed parts of Gujarat.
Q50. Which statements about tropical cyclones are correct?
1. They form in most tropical oceans except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific.
2. North Atlantic cyclones are typhoons.
3. Indian Ocean storms are called cyclones.
[NDA-I General Ability – 21 Apr 2024 | 2024]
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: North Atlantic storms are called hurricanes, not typhoons. Tropical cyclones form over sufficiently warm tropical seas, while persistent hostile wind patterns discourage them in parts of the South Atlantic. The Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea use the regional name cyclone.
Q49. Which natural calamity results from scarce or irregular rainfall over a prolonged period?
[Bihar Sakshamta Pariksha – 2 Mar 2024 | 2024]
A. Cyclone
B. Earthquake
C. Drought
D. Tsunami
Answer: C. Drought
Explanation: Drought develops when precipitation remains inadequate relative to expected conditions and water demand. Its impacts can spread from crop moisture stress to falling groundwater and economic hardship. Rainwater harvesting and demand management can reduce drought vulnerability in semi-arid India.
Q48. For Cyclone Michaung (2023), judge:
I. Myanmar proposed its name.
II. It was the sixth named storm of the 2023 North Indian Ocean cyclone season and fourth in the Bay of Bengal.
[IB ACIO – 18 Jan 2024 | 2024]
A. Only II
B. Both I and II
C. Only I
D. Neither I nor II
Answer: B. Both I and II
Explanation: Myanmar contributed the name Michaung. The Bay of Bengal storm affected Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh in December 2023, causing intense rainfall and inundation. Cyclone names and seasonal numbering support communication and historical tracking of severe weather systems.
Q47. When did the tsunami occur that some Andaman Island communities anticipated after observing unusual animal behaviour?
[HTET Primary Teacher – 2024 | 2024]
A. January 2004
B. December 2004
C. December 2010
D. January 2010
Answer: B. December 2004
Explanation: The Indian Ocean tsunami arrived on 26 December 2004 after a major earthquake offshore northern Sumatra. It struck the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and India’s eastern coastline. Community knowledge may complement preparedness, but scientific tsunami warning systems remain essential.
Q46. Which cyclone struck India’s western coast during 2021?
[MPPSC Prelims – 2024 | 2024]
A. Amphan
B. Tauktae
C. Michaung
D. Fani
Answer: B. Tauktae
Explanation: Cyclone Tauktae intensified over the Arabian Sea in May 2021 and affected western coastal states, including Gujarat. Amphan and Fani affected the Bay of Bengal region in earlier years, while Michaung was a later Bay of Bengal storm.
Q45. Which Japanese term means harbour waves?
[EMRS Hostel Warden – 17 Dec 2023 | 2023]
A. Hurricane
B. Tsunami
C. Typhoon
D. Cyclone
Answer: B. Tsunami
Explanation: Tsunami combines the Japanese words tsu, meaning harbour, and nami, meaning wave. It describes long sea waves generated by sudden water displacement, not ordinary tides. India’s coastal disaster planning was substantially strengthened after the destructive tsunami of 2004.
Q44. Which is Dicken’s formula for estimating peak flood runoff Qp from catchment area A?
[SSC JE Civil – 4 Dec 2023 | 2023]
A. Qp = C × A^(2/3)
B. Qp = C × A^(1/2)
C. Qp = C × A^(3/4)
D. Qp = C × A^(3/5)
Answer: C. Qp = C × A^(3/4)
Explanation: Dicken’s empirical flood formula estimates peak discharge using drainage-basin area raised to the power three-fourths. Its coefficient varies with regional conditions. This traditional hydrological method has been applied to catchments in northern India, though modern estimation also uses measured rainfall and flow.
Q43. Which statement about earthquakes is incorrect?
[Delhi Police Constable – 1 Dec 2023 | 2023]
A. An earthquake is shaking of the Earth
B. An earthquake results from released energy
C. An earthquake is a natural event
D. Earthquake waves spread in only one direction
Answer: D. Earthquake waves spread in only one direction
Explanation: Seismic energy radiates outward from an earthquake source in multiple directions. Earthquake waves pass through Earth’s interior and travel along its surface. The wave paths and amplitudes depend on rock properties, geometry and the position of the recording station.
Q42. Which earthquake waves are typically the most destructive near the surface?
[Delhi Police Constable – 28 Nov 2023 | 2023]
A. Body waves
B. S-waves
C. Surface waves
D. P-waves
Answer: C. Surface waves
Explanation: Surface waves travel along the Earth’s exterior and often have large amplitudes and long shaking durations. Love waves create horizontal movement; Rayleigh waves produce rolling motion. These effects can severely damage poorly designed buildings during a strong earthquake.
Q41. What is the most common type of earthquake worldwide?
[Delhi Police Constable – 15 Nov 2023 | 2023]
A. Volcanic earthquake
B. Seismic earthquake
C. Reservoir earthquake
D. Tectonic earthquake
Answer: D. Tectonic earthquake
Explanation: Tectonic earthquakes arise when accumulated stress causes sudden sliding along geological faults. Plate boundaries are particularly active, including the Himalayan collision zone. Volcanic, mine-collapse and reservoir-associated earthquakes exist but account for a much smaller share of major events.
Q40. Earthquakes arising from stresses and rock failure near underground mine workings are known as what?
[Delhi Police Constable – 14 Nov 2023 | 2023]
A. Collapse earthquakes
B. Explosion earthquakes
C. Volcanic earthquakes
D. Tectonic earthquakes
Answer: A. Collapse earthquakes
Explanation: Collapse earthquakes are relatively local seismic events associated with failure of underground workings or cavities. Mining can destabilise rock masses and cause ground vibrations or subsidence. They are distinct from large tectonic earthquakes produced by regional fault rupture.
Q39. Which event does NOT normally produce a tsunami?
[Bihar STET Geography – 15 Sep 2023 | 2023]
A. Tropical cyclone
B. Volcanic eruption
C. Undersea earthquake
D. Submarine landslide
Answer: A. Tropical cyclone
Explanation: Cyclones produce storm surges through powerful winds and low pressure, whereas tsunamis usually require a sudden displacement of seawater. Submarine earthquakes, landslides and volcanic activity can produce tsunami waves. Though both flood coasts, their mechanisms and warning systems differ.
Q38. Sudden shaking of the Earth’s surface caused by disturbances within the crust is known as what?
[MP Police Constable – 23 Aug 2023, Shift 1 | 2023]
A. Lightning
B. Earthquake
C. Cyclone
D. Thunderstorm
Answer: B. Earthquake
Explanation: An earthquake occurs when stored energy is abruptly released, generally along a fault, sending seismic waves through the ground. The point of rupture is the focus, and the epicentre lies directly above it on the surface. Strong events threaten buildings and infrastructure.
Q37. Which scale is used to express earthquake magnitude?
[MP Police Constable – 23 Aug 2023, Shift 2 | 2023]
A. Polygraph
B. Barometer
C. Richter scale
D. Thermometer
Answer: C. Richter scale
Explanation: The Richter scale was introduced in 1935 to express earthquake magnitude from recorded seismic-wave amplitudes. Magnitude differs from local shaking intensity. Modern seismologists commonly use moment magnitude, especially for large earthquakes, because it better represents the earthquake’s total size.
Q36. Which instrument records seismic waves generated by earthquakes?
[MP Police Constable – 23 Aug 2023, Shift 2 | 2023]
A. Seismograph
B. Geometer
C. Seismoscale
D. Richter meter
Answer: A. Seismograph
Explanation: Seismographs detect and record ground vibrations. The resulting seismograms allow estimates of the origin time, epicentre and magnitude of an earthquake. Magnitude scales are mathematical reporting systems, while instruments provide the actual observations needed for analysis.
Q35. March 2023 landslides in highland regions were reported in which state or Union Territory?
[Maharashtra Talathi – 20 Aug 2023 | 2023]
A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Ladakh
D. Assam
Answer: B. Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation: The question referred to landslides in Jammu and Kashmir, including the Ramban area along the Jammu–Srinagar highway. Steep cut slopes, fractured rocks and rainfall contribute to road blockage risk. Transport routes need slope surveillance and protective engineering.
Q34. The flood-prone Damodar River, historically called the Sorrow of Bengal, flows through how many states?
[MP Police Constable – 16 Aug 2023 | 2023]
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B. Two
Explanation: The Damodar runs through Jharkhand and West Bengal. Historically severe floods along its valley earned it the name Sorrow of Bengal. The Damodar Valley Corporation developed multipurpose dams and reservoirs to combine flood moderation with irrigation and power generation.
Q33. An earthquake occurring within a tectonic plate, away from its boundary, is termed what?
[APSC Junior Engineer Civil – 13 Aug 2023 | 2023]
A. Internal earthquake
B. External earthquake
C. Intraplate earthquake
D. Interplate earthquake
Answer: C. Intraplate earthquake
Explanation: Intraplate earthquakes occur inside a plate rather than along its outer boundary. The 2001 Bhuj earthquake is an Indian example of damaging seismicity within the plate. Ancient faults can reactivate as stresses are transmitted across large tectonic plates.
Q32. Which instrument is used to measure ground vibrations for estimating earthquake magnitude?
[APSC Junior Engineer Civil – 13 Aug 2023 | 2023]
A. Seismograph
B. Speedometer
C. Ammeter
D. Richter scale
Answer: A. Seismograph
Explanation: A seismograph measures seismic motion and provides records used to calculate magnitude. A Richter scale is not a physical measuring device; it describes a magnitude value. Strong-motion instruments are also employed in engineering to assess earthquake effects on buildings.
Q31. A vent in Earth’s crust through which molten materials erupt is called what?
[MP Police Constable – 13 Aug 2023 | 2023]
A. Volcano
B. Earthquake
C. Tsunami
D. Catastrophe
Answer: A. Volcano
Explanation: A volcano allows magma, gases and fragments to reach the surface. Eruptions can produce lava, ashfall and hazardous gases. India has an active volcanic centre at Barren Island in the Andaman Sea, although large volcanic disasters are uncommon on the mainland.
Q30. The comparatively calm centre of a tropical cyclone is called its what?
[SSC CGL – 24 Jul 2023 | 2023]
A. Base
B. Focal point
C. Eye
D. Trigger point
Answer: C. Eye
Explanation: The eye is the centre of a mature intense cyclone, where winds may be lighter and skies temporarily clearer. The surrounding eyewall contains some of the fiercest winds and rainfall. Coastal residents should not mistake passage of the eye for the storm’s end.
Q29. Which cyclone did NOT strike India during 2021–2022?
[SSC CGL – 20 Jul 2023 | 2023]
A. Yaas
B. Julia
C. Tauktae
D. Gulab
Answer: B. Julia
Explanation: Yaas, Tauktae and Gulab were North Indian Ocean cyclonic storms of 2021. Julia, by contrast, was a storm named in the Atlantic basin in 2022. Naming lists and storm basins help distinguish Indian weather events from unrelated tropical systems.
Q28. Which of these is not classified as a geological hazard?
[TSPSC Group 1 Prelims – 11 Jun 2023 | 2023]
A. Tropical cyclone
B. Volcanic eruption
C. Mine fire
D. Tsunami
Answer: A. Tropical cyclone
Explanation: A tropical cyclone is an atmospheric low-pressure storm driven by heat and moisture over oceans. Volcanic eruptions and submarine earthquake-generated tsunamis involve geological processes. Correct hazard classification determines which scientific forecasting and preparedness systems are appropriate.
Q27. Giant sea waves caused by sudden seabed movement, submarine earthquakes or volcanic eruptions are called what?
[MP Forest Guard – 3 Jun 2023 | 2023]
A. Tsunamis
B. Cyclones
C. Landslides
D. Oceanic activities
Answer: A. Tsunamis
Explanation: Tsunamis arise from sudden displacement of large bodies of water, often by undersea seismic movement. They can cross entire ocean basins and flood coastal settlements after travelling hundreds or thousands of kilometres. Coastal early-warning systems monitor seismic events and ocean levels.
Q26. Judge these earthquake statements:
1. Hypocentre is a surface point.
2. Earthquake-wave speed may be higher in denser material.
3. P-waves are the fastest arrivals.
[NDA-I General Ability – 16 Apr 2023 | 2023]
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 only
Answer: B. 2 and 3
Explanation: The hypocentre is the earthquake focus beneath the surface; the epicentre is directly above it. P-waves generally arrive first because they travel fastest through the crust. Seismic velocities vary with elastic properties and density of the rocks traversed.
Q25. Which is not primarily a geological disaster?
[MP Patwari – 28 Mar 2023 | 2023]
A. Volcano
B. Earthquake
C. Sea surge
D. Tsunami
Answer: C. Sea surge
Explanation: A sea surge, particularly a cyclone storm surge, is driven by powerful winds and low atmospheric pressure. Volcanoes and earthquakes arise from geological processes, and many tsunamis arise from submarine seismic activity. The mechanisms and forecasting procedures therefore differ.
Q24. What is the typical range of wavelengths of tsunami waves?
[Maharashtra SET Geography – 26 Mar 2023 | 2023]
A. A few kilometres to several hundred kilometres
B. A few metres to one kilometre
C. Tens to hundreds of metres
D. One to ten metres
Answer: A. A few kilometres to several hundred kilometres
Explanation: Tsunami waves possess exceptionally long wavelengths, ranging from kilometres to hundreds of kilometres in deep water. This allows them to travel rapidly across oceans with relatively small surface heights before shoaling dramatically along a vulnerable shoreline.
Q23. What is the literal meaning of the Japanese word tsunami?
[UGC NET Paper I – 6 Mar 2023 | 2023]
A. Oceanic wave
B. Harbour wave
C. Coastal wave
D. Oceanic earthquake
Answer: B. Harbour wave
Explanation: The Japanese words tsu and nami mean harbour and wave respectively. The term does not imply that such waves start in ports. Tsunamis generally begin when large volumes of ocean water are abruptly displaced by geological disturbances.
Q22. Which may be an early visible sign that a tsunami is approaching a coast?
[CTET Social Science – 29 Jan 2023 | 2023]
A. Water approaching gradually
B. Sudden withdrawal of coastal water
C. A large wave already striking the shore
D. A huge wave receding after landfall
Answer: B. Sudden withdrawal of coastal water
Explanation: An unusually rapid sea retreat can precede a tsunami when the trough of the wave arrives first. This sign does not occur in every tsunami. After strong coastal earthquake shaking, immediate movement to higher ground is safer than waiting for visible warning signs.
Q21. Which statements about the Bhuj earthquake are correct?
A. It devastated Bhuj, Gujarat.
B. More than 20,000 people died.
C. It occurred on Independence Day 2001.
D. Smriti Van was inaugurated in August 2022.
[TSPSC Group 1 Prelims – 2023 | 2023]
A. A, B and C only
B. A, B and D only
C. A and B only
D. B and D only
Answer: B. A, B and D only
Explanation: The Bhuj earthquake struck on Republic Day, 26 January 2001, not Independence Day. It caused devastating casualties and damage in Kutch. The Smriti Van memorial opened in 2022 to honour victims and encourage earthquake awareness and preparedness.
Q20. A storm surge belongs primarily to which category of natural disasters?
[ICAR Technician – 2 Mar 2022, Shift 2 | 2022]
A. Land-related
B. Water-related
C. Atmospheric
D. Biological
Answer: B. Water-related
Explanation: A storm surge is an abnormal rise of sea level driven mainly by strong cyclone winds and low atmospheric pressure. It is classified as a water-related coastal hazard because seawater floods low-lying areas, often compounding cyclone damage during high tide.
Q19. For which disaster are retaining walls and improvements to surface drainage common risk-reduction measures?
[ICAR Technician – 28 Feb 2022, Shift 3 | 2022]
A. Landslide
B. Avalanche
C. Flood
D. Cloudburst
Answer: A. Landslide
Explanation: Retaining structures support unstable slopes and drainage channels reduce the buildup of pore-water pressure. Both measures are routinely applied in landslide-prone terrain. Their effectiveness depends on sound geotechnical design and regular maintenance, especially during intense monsoon rain.
Q18. What is measured by the Saffir–Simpson scale?
[ICAR Technician – 28 Feb 2022, Shift 2 | 2022]
A. Volcanic activity
B. Hurricane intensity
C. Tsunami height
D. Drought severity
Answer: B. Hurricane intensity
Explanation: The Saffir–Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale classifies tropical cyclones into five intensity categories based on sustained wind speed. India generally uses the India Meteorological Department’s own cyclone-intensity classification, but the international scale illustrates how stronger winds imply greater damage potential.
Q17. Cyclone Tauktae developed in which sea?
[UP RO/ARO Prelims – 2021 | 2021]
A. Bay of Bengal
B. Indian Ocean, unspecified basin
C. Caspian Sea
D. Arabian Sea
Answer: D. Arabian Sea
Explanation: Tauktae formed over the Arabian Sea in May 2021 and intensified before striking the Gujarat coast. The case shows that although Bay of Bengal cyclones frequently affect eastern India, the Arabian Sea also produces destructive tropical cyclones.
Q16. Which statement about tsunamis is NOT correct?
[DSSSB TGT Social Studies Female – 9 Oct 2021 | 2021]
A. Tsunamis can travel into estuaries and rivers
B. All low-lying coasts may be exposed
C. Maximum speed of a tsunami over a coastal plain is always 20 km/h
D. Tsunamis may occur at any hour
Answer: C. Maximum speed of a tsunami over a coastal plain is always 20 km/h
Explanation: A tsunami has no universal maximum speed of 20 km/h over a coastal plain. Its inland movement depends on topography, wave energy and water depth. Tsunami waves may also surge into river channels and strike coasts at any time.
Q15. Who chairs the National Disaster Management Authority of India?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge – 7 Feb 2021 | 2021]
A. Prime Minister
B. Union Home Minister
C. President
D. Union Health Minister
Answer: A. Prime Minister
Explanation: The National Disaster Management Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. The Union Home Ministry coordinates many operational aspects of disaster response, but that does not make the Home Minister the chairperson of NDMA.
Q14. Which processes can generate tsunamis?
1. Earthquake-related vertical water displacement
2. Earthquake-related horizontal displacement
3. Submarine volcanic eruptions
4. Rapid seabed mass movement
[MPSC State Services Mains, GS-I – 2019 | 2019]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Sudden large-scale movement of seawater can result from earthquakes, submarine landslides or volcanic disturbances. Vertical seabed deformation is especially effective, but sufficiently large horizontal displacement may also disturb water indirectly through sloping seafloor or submarine instability.
Q13. Match natural hazards to vulnerable Indian regions:
A. Floods
B. Earthquakes
C. Droughts
D. Tsunamis;
i. Himalayan zone
ii. Uttar Pradesh–Bihar plains
iii. West and central India
iv. Southern coast
[MPPSC Prelims – 2019 | 2019]
A. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
B. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
C. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
D. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
Answer: A. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
Explanation: The Himalayan belt is seismically active; the middle Gangetic plains experience frequent river floods; western and central areas have recurrent drought exposure; and India’s southern coasts experienced the destructive 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami. Hazard patterns vary within each broad region.
Q12. Which of the following is the most landslide-prone region of India?
[Himachal Pradesh PCS Prelims – 2019 | 2019]
A. Ganga plain
B. South Indian plateau
C. Himalayas and northeastern hills
D. Thar Desert
Answer: C. Himalayas and northeastern hills
Explanation: The Himalayas and northeastern hill states combine young, fractured geology, steep slopes, seismic activity and intense rainfall. Road cutting and deforestation may compound the danger. Western Ghats districts also experience serious landslides, particularly during very heavy monsoon rainfall.
Q11. Which of the following is NOT a direct physical cause of flooding?
[APPSC Group-II Screening – 2019 | 2019]
A. Melting snow and ice
B. Loss of natural vegetation
C. Failure of dams
D. Biological disaster
Answer: D. Biological disaster
Explanation: Rapid snowmelt, vegetation loss and dam failures can all raise discharge or worsen inundation. A biological disaster, such as an epidemic, does not itself supply or release floodwater. Distinguishing drivers of hazards supports the selection of appropriate prevention measures.
Q10. Which statements are correct?
1. Natural disasters can cause especially severe damage in developing countries.
2. The Bhopal gas tragedy was human-made.
3. India is disaster-free.
4. Mangroves can lessen cyclone impacts.
[UPPCS Civil Services Prelims – 2018 | 2018]
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Development gaps, vulnerable housing and limited services can increase disaster losses. Bhopal was an industrial disaster, not a natural event. India faces multiple hazards, while healthy mangrove belts can reduce coastal erosion, wave energy and some storm-surge impacts.
Q9. What was Ockhi, reported widely during November–December 2017?
[UPPSC Government Inter College – 2017 | 2017]
A. A cyclonic storm affecting India’s coasts
B. An award-winning film
C. A venue of the Asian Archery Championship
D. A location near the Doklam standoff
Answer: A. A cyclonic storm affecting India’s coasts
Explanation: Ockhi was a severe tropical cyclone that developed near the southern Indian peninsula and affected Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Lakshadweep in late 2017. Fishermen at sea were particularly vulnerable, highlighting the value of maritime forecasts and last-mile alerts.
Q8. Approximately what fraction of India’s geographical area was identified as flood-prone in traditional national disaster-management assessments?
[TSPSC Group I/II – 2017 | 2017]
A. 36 percent
B. 24 percent
C. 18 percent
D. 12 percent
Answer: D. 12 percent
Explanation: Older flood-hazard assessments commonly cited approximately 12 percent of India’s geographical area as flood-prone. The value is an estimate tied to a particular assessment method, not a fixed constant; updated hazard datasets and climate conditions can alter estimates.
Q7. Which coastal area was struck by Cyclone Hudhud in October 2014?
[MPPSC Prelims – 2016 | 2016]
A. Andhra Pradesh coast
B. Kerala coast
C. Chennai coast
D. West Bengal coast
Answer: A. Andhra Pradesh coast
Explanation: Hudhud crossed the Andhra Pradesh coast near Visakhapatnam in October 2014, bringing destructive winds, very heavy rain and substantial property losses. Coastal forecasting and evacuation reduced exposure, while fallen trees and damaged power lines disrupted basic services.
Q6. Which coast of India was among the worst affected by the Indian Ocean tsunami of 26 December 2004?
[UP RO/ARO Mains – 2014 | 2014]
A. Malabar coast
B. Konkan coast
C. Coromandel coast
D. Northern Circars coast
Answer: C. Coromandel coast
Explanation: The 2004 tsunami produced devastating coastal flooding in Tamil Nadu, especially along the Coromandel coast, as well as the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and other affected shores. Its source was a great submarine earthquake near Sumatra.
Q5. How many official seismic hazard zones are recognised in the standard Indian four-zone classification?
[UP Lower Subordinate Services Prelims – 2013 | 2013]
A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Seven
Answer: C. Four
Explanation: India’s seismic zoning map identifies Zones II, III, IV and V. Zone V denotes the highest hazard and Zone II the lowest. The older Zone I category is not part of the commonly cited four-zone scheme used in this examination.
Q4. Which region is NOT considered part of India’s high-seismic-intensity belt?
[Uttarakhand PCS Prelims – 2010 | 2010]
A. Uttarakhand
B. Karnataka Plateau
C. Kutch
D. Himachal Pradesh
Answer: B. Karnataka Plateau
Explanation: The Karnataka Plateau lies predominantly within the comparatively stable Peninsular shield, although damaging intraplate earthquakes remain possible. Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh sit within the active Himalayan collision belt, while Kutch has experienced major earthquakes despite its peninsular location.
Q3. Assertion (A): India’s east coast is more prone to tropical cyclones than its west coast.
Reason (R): India’s east coast lies in the belt influenced by northeast trade winds.
[UPPCS Prelims – 2003 | 2003]
A. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
B. Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Answer: B. Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
Explanation: The Bay of Bengal and the prevailing tracks of storms make India’s eastern coastline more cyclone-exposed. Northeasterly winds can influence the region, but their existence alone does not explain the east–west contrast in cyclone frequency and landfall patterns.
Q2. In 2001, a five-year excise-duty concession was announced for industries established in which disaster-affected area?
[UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2002 | 2002]
A. Cyclone-prone coastal Andhra Pradesh
B. Border districts of northeastern states
C. Earthquake-ravaged Kutch district
D. Newly formed Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
Answer: C. Earthquake-ravaged Kutch district
Explanation: The Republic Day 2001 earthquake devastated Kutch in Gujarat. Excise-duty incentives for qualifying industries were intended to stimulate investment, restore employment and aid regional recovery. Such economic rehabilitation measures complement physical reconstruction after major disasters.
Q1. Assertion (A): Surface winds spiral inward towards the centre of a cyclone.
Reason (R): Air descends in the centre of the cyclone.
[UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2002 | 2002]
A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Answer: C. A is true, but R is false
Explanation: Surface convergence towards a cyclonic low makes the assertion true. The classic explanation of cyclone circulation involves rising air around the low-pressure core; therefore the stated general reason is not accepted as its cause. Subsidence may occur within a mature cyclone’s eye.