80. Which of the following is included among India’s sunrise sectors?
[UPSC CDS-I, General Knowledge — 2026]
(A) Manufacturing sector
(B) Food-processing sector
(C) Textile sector
(D) Services sector
Answer: (B) Food-processing sector
Explanation: Food processing is considered a sunrise sector because demand for processed food, value addition, cold chains and export opportunities are expanding. It connects farm producers with manufacturing and logistics while generating employment and reducing losses of perishable agricultural products.
79. With reference to the Industrial Revolution, consider:
1. Power-driven machines replaced much handicraft production.
2. Industrial nations relied on other countries for raw materials.
3. Factory machinery enabled large-scale production.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CDS-I, General Knowledge — 2026]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Mechanisation displaced many traditional hand-production methods, while factories made mass production possible. Industrial powers increasingly imported cotton, minerals and other raw materials from overseas markets. Consequently, all three statements correctly describe important economic changes associated with industrialisation.
78. Regarding the National Rail Plan and Kavach, consider:
I. The National Rail Plan targets a future-ready railway system by 2028.
II. Kavach was developed jointly with Germany.
III. Kavach uses track-mounted RFID tags.
Which statements are incorrect?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2025]
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer: (A) I and II only
Explanation: The National Rail Plan envisages a future-ready network by 2030, rather than 2028. Kavach is an indigenously developed automatic train-protection system, although it uses internationally familiar safety technologies. RFID tags are indeed deployed alongside tracks, making only statements I and II incorrect.
77. Consider:
I. State governments cannot frame rules for concessions concerning minor minerals.
II. The Central Government can notify minerals as minor minerals.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2025]
(A) Both correct, II explains I
(B) Both correct, II does not explain I
(C) I correct, II incorrect
(D) I incorrect, II correct
Answer: (D) I incorrect, II correct
Explanation: Under the Mines and Minerals framework, states have rule-making authority over the grant of minor-mineral concessions. The Central Government can determine which minerals are classified as minor minerals through notification. Therefore the first proposition is false, while the second is true.
76. Consider:
I. Brazil produces more ethanol than the United States.
II. Corn is the main US ethanol feedstock, while Brazil chiefly uses sugarcane.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2025]
(A) Both correct, II explains I
(B) Both correct, II does not explain I
(C) I correct, II incorrect
(D) I incorrect, II correct
Answer: (D) I incorrect, II correct
Explanation: The United States has produced more fuel ethanol than Brazil in recent years, making the first assertion incorrect. US plants principally process maize, whereas Brazil relies heavily on sugarcane. Feedstock differences reflect each country’s agricultural production structure and energy policies.
75. Match each organisation with its Union ministry:
1. National Automotive Board–Commerce and Industry;
2. Coir Board–Heavy Industries;
3. National Centre for Trade Information–MSME.
How many pairs are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2025]
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
Answer: (D) None
Explanation: The National Automotive Board relates to Heavy Industries, and the Coir Board operates under the Ministry of MSME. The National Centre for Trade Information relates to the commerce administration, not the MSME ministry. Thus every ministry pairing given in the question is incorrect.
74. How many of the following are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board:
crude-oil production;
petroleum refining/storage/distribution;
marketing and sale of petroleum products;
natural-gas production?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2025]
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: The PNGRB principally regulates specified midstream and downstream petroleum and gas activities, including transportation, distribution and marketing. Exploration and extraction of crude oil and natural gas belong to the upstream domain. Consequently, two listed activity categories fall under its regulatory remit.
73. A steel plant established with Soviet collaboration in 1964, obtaining water and hydropower through the Damodar Valley system, is which plant?
[UPSC NDA-I, General Ability — 2025]
(A) Bhilai Steel Plant
(B) Bokaro Steel Plant
(C) Rourkela Steel Plant
(D) Durgapur Steel Plant
Answer: (B) Bokaro Steel Plant
Explanation: Bokaro was developed in Jharkhand with Soviet technical assistance and is connected with the Damodar valley’s industrial-resource network. Rourkela had West German assistance, Durgapur British assistance and Bhilai Soviet assistance but a different location, distinguishing Bokaro from the alternatives.
72. Which pair is correctly classified as heavy industry?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 13 September 2025 Shift 2 — 2025]
(A) Sewing machines and paint brushes
(B) Shipbuilding and automobiles
(C) Electric bulbs and fuse wires
(D) Watches and paint brushes
Answer: (B) Shipbuilding and automobiles
Explanation: Heavy industries use substantial fixed capital, machinery, energy and raw materials to manufacture large or capital-intensive products. Shipbuilding and automobile manufacturing fit this description. Watches, brushes and electrical consumables typically fall into relatively lighter manufacturing categories with smaller product scale.
71. Assertion: The 1956 Industrial Policy divided industries into Schedules A, B and C.
Reason: The schedules distinguished areas of state, mixed and private-sector participation.
Which option is correct?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 16 September 2025 Shift 1 — 2025]
(A) Both true, and Reason explains Assertion
(B) Both true, but Reason does not explain Assertion
(C) Assertion true, Reason false
(D) Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: (A) Both true, and Reason explains Assertion
Explanation: The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 distinguished activities reserved for the state, those allowing private participation alongside state leadership, and the remaining private-sector industries. These differing ownership and developmental responsibilities explain why the policy introduced three industrial schedules.
70. Which activities remained subject to industrial licensing after the 1991 liberalisation?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 24 September 2025 Shift 2 — 2025]
(A) Defence and telecommunications
(B) Alcohol, cigarettes and explosives
(C) Textiles and fertilisers
(D) Agriculture and education
Answer: (B) Alcohol, cigarettes and explosives
Explanation: The 1991 industrial policy abolished compulsory licensing for most industries but retained it for selected sensitive activities. Alcoholic beverages, tobacco products and explosives are examples associated with continued licensing requirements. The exception reflected safety, public health and strategic regulatory concerns.
69. Consider:
I. Chennai is known as the Detroit of India.
II. This nickname arises from Chennai’s leadership in petrochemical manufacturing.
Which statement is correct?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 23 September 2025 Shift 2 — 2025]
(A) Both correct, II explains I
(B) Both correct, II does not explain I
(C) I correct, II incorrect
(D) I incorrect, II correct
Answer: (C) I correct, II incorrect
Explanation: Chennai earned the Detroit comparison because of its concentration of automobile assembly and component manufacturers. The expression does not primarily refer to petrochemical production. Its vehicle manufacturing cluster benefits from suppliers, skilled workers, logistics and transport connections.
68. Which state produced the most iron ore in India in 2023–24?
[CGPSC Prelims, 9 February 2025 — 2025]
(A) Odisha
(B) Karnataka
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Jharkhand
Answer: (A) Odisha
Explanation: Odisha led India’s iron-ore production in the specified financial year. Mineral-rich districts such as Keonjhar and Sundargarh support extensive mines and related logistics. Iron ore supplies the steel sector, linking mineral production with heavy industry, construction and infrastructure.
67. Under Indian CSR rules, consider:
1. Expenditure directly benefiting a company’s employees or normal business does not qualify as CSR.
2. No minimum CSR expenditure is prescribed.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2024]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: Eligible companies must comply with the statutory CSR spending framework, generally linked to two per cent of average net profits over three preceding financial years. Spending serving employees alone or ordinary commercial operations is excluded from qualifying CSR. Hence only the first statement holds.
66. A steel plant gets coal from Jharia, iron ore from Sundargarh and Keonjhar, electricity from Hirakud and water from the Koel–Sankh river system. Identify it.
[UPSC NDA, General Ability, 21 April 2024 — 2024]
(A) Bhilai Steel Plant
(B) Durgapur Steel Plant
(C) Rourkela Steel Plant
(D) Bokaro Steel Plant
Answer: (C) Rourkela Steel Plant
Explanation: The resource and river clues point to Rourkela in Odisha. Its location connects iron-ore sources, coal supplies, hydropower and the Koel–Sankh river system. The steelworks arose with West German technical collaboration and became an important public-sector integrated plant.
65. Which is a public-sector industrial enterprise?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 13 September 2024 Shift 2 — 2024]
(A) BHEL
(B) Reliance
(C) Tata
(D) Adani
Answer: (A) BHEL
Explanation: Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited is a government-controlled engineering and manufacturing enterprise. It supplies power-generation equipment and products for important industrial and infrastructure uses. Reliance, Tata and Adani are associated with privately controlled corporate groups, so they do not satisfy the question’s ownership classification.
64. Which is a private-sector industrial enterprise in India?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 17 September 2024 Shift 1 — 2024]
(A) Steel Authority of India Limited
(B) Tata Iron and Steel Company
(C) Oil India Limited
(D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Answer: (B) Tata Iron and Steel Company
Explanation: Tata Steel, formerly Tata Iron and Steel Company, is a privately controlled enterprise. SAIL, Oil India and BHEL are public-sector companies with government ownership. This question tests industrial ownership rather than the type of commodity a particular firm manufactures.
63. Which was NOT associated with the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 1 July 2024 Shift 3 — 2024]
(A) Industrial licensing for private enterprises
(B) Three industrial categories
(C) Basis of the Third Five-Year Plan
(D) Promotion of regional equality
Answer: (C) Basis of the Third Five-Year Plan
Explanation: The 1956 resolution shaped industrial development during the Second Five-Year Plan and reflected the Mahalanobis emphasis on basic and heavy industry. It divided industries into three schedules and retained licensing mechanisms. It was not specifically the basis of the Third Plan.
62. Into how many broad classes did the 1948 Industrial Policy Resolution divide large-scale industries?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 2 July 2024 Shift 2 — 2024]
(A) Five
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Four
Answer: (D) Four
Explanation: India’s first post-Independence industrial policy was issued in 1948. It separated industries into four broad categories according to strategic significance and the intended roles of public and private ownership. This arrangement preceded the three-schedule framework later adopted in 1956.
61. Which is NOT among India’s eight core industries?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 8 July 2024 Shift 1 — 2024]
(A) Jute
(B) Crude oil
(C) Electricity
(D) Fertilisers
Answer: (A) Jute
Explanation: The eight core industries are coal, crude oil, natural gas, petroleum refinery products, fertilizers, steel, cement and electricity. Jute manufacturing is economically important, especially in eastern India, but it is not included in this particular index of infrastructure-linked industries.
60. Which committee investigated industrial licensing policy?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 8 July 2024 Shift 4 — 2024]
(A) Hazari Committee
(B) Dutt Committee
(C) Sen Committee
(D) Gadgil Committee
Answer: (B) Dutt Committee
Explanation: The Industrial Licensing Policy Inquiry Committee, commonly called the Dutt Committee, studied the functioning of industrial licensing and concentration of economic power. Its work highlighted shortcomings in the licensing regime, helping shape later debates about competition and industrial controls.
59. In which state is Hindustan Cables’ Rupnarainpur manufacturing facility located?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 5 July 2024 Shift 2 — 2024]
(A) West Bengal
(B) Haryana
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Assam
Answer: (A) West Bengal
Explanation: Rupnarainpur lies in Paschim Bardhaman district of West Bengal, near the Asansol industrial belt. Hindustan Cables operated a telecommunications cable manufacturing unit there. This location illustrates the historical development of engineering and manufacturing activity around the coal-rich region.
58. The Hugli industrial region lies in which state?
[SSC MTS, 14 November 2024 Shift 3 — 2024]
(A) Telangana
(B) Karnataka
(C) Gujarat
(D) West Bengal
Answer: (D) West Bengal
Explanation: The Hugli industrial belt follows the Hooghly river around Kolkata in West Bengal. Port facilities, waterways, railways, workers and nearby coal historically supported jute mills, engineering units and other factories. This makes it a major long-established Indian industrial region.
57. Which is NOT a central component of the 1991 New Industrial Policy?
[SSC MTS, 15 October 2024 Shift 3 — 2024]
(A) Liberalisation
(B) Privatisation
(C) Globalisation
(D) Urbanisation
Answer: (D) Urbanisation
Explanation: The reform programme is usually described through liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation. Industrial licensing was reduced, private enterprise gained scope and India became more open to international investment and trade. Urbanisation may accompany industrial growth but was not a named reform pillar.
56. India Infrastructure Project Development Fund:
1. It was established in 2017.
2. It receives Central Government funds.
3. It is under the Department of Economic Affairs.
Which statement is incorrect?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 11 September 2024 Shift 1 — 2024]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
Answer: (B) 1 only
Explanation: The India Infrastructure Project Development Fund originated in 2007 to support preparation of public-private partnership infrastructure projects. Funding comes from the Union Government and the Department of Economic Affairs administers the scheme. Thus the claimed 2017 establishment date is wrong.
55. In what year was India’s first Industrial Policy Resolution announced?
[WBCS 2023 Mains, held 18 August 2024 — 2024]
(A) 1948
(B) 1956
(C) 1960
(D) 1962
Answer: (A) 1948
Explanation: The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 was the first comprehensive industrial-policy statement after Independence. It outlined a mixed-economy approach, assigning important roles to the public and private sectors. The 1956 resolution substantially revised this structure during the Second Five-Year Plan.
54. At which Indian location are aircraft engines manufactured?
[WBCS 2023 Mains, held 18 August 2024 — 2024]
(A) Koraput
(B) Kolkata
(C) Visakhapatnam
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Koraput
Explanation: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited’s engine division at Koraput in Odisha manufactures, overhauls and supports aircraft engines. This defence-industrial facility has roots in the 1960s and contributes to India’s aviation manufacturing capabilities, technical maintenance and defence production ecosystem.
53. For the National Intellectual Property Rights Policy, consider:
1. It affirms India’s commitment to TRIPS and the Doha Development Agenda.
2. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal industrial-policy body concerned with intellectual-property administration.
Which is correct?
[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024, General Studies-I — 2024]
(A) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 only
(D) Both 1 and 2
Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The National IPR Policy reaffirmed commitments to the TRIPS Agreement and the Doha Development Agenda. The then Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, subsequently renamed DPIIT, served as the nodal department coordinating intellectual-property policy. Both statements were treated as correct.
52. How many of the following constitute intangible investments:
brand recognition,
inventory,
intellectual property and
a customer mailing list?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2023]
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
Answer: (C) Only three
Explanation: Brand recognition, intellectual property and customer lists represent non-physical business assets or advantages. Inventory consists of tangible goods held for production or sale. Accordingly three of the four examples are intangible, making physical inventory the exception.
51. Consider:
I. India’s share of world goods exports is 3.2 per cent.
II. Domestic and foreign firms in India have used the Production-Linked Incentive scheme.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2023]
(A) Both true, II explains I
(B) Both true, II does not explain I
(C) I true, II false
(D) I false, II true
Answer: (D) I false, II true
Explanation: India’s merchandise-export share at the time was substantially below 3.2 per cent, invalidating the first statement. The Production-Linked Incentive programme encouraged eligible manufacturers to expand output and investment, attracting participation from Indian as well as overseas-owned companies.
50. Consider:
1. Under the MSMED Act, medium enterprises have plant investment of ₹15–25 crore.
2. All bank loans to MSMEs qualify as priority-sector lending.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2023]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: The investment band cited for medium enterprises is not the applicable MSME definition. RBI priority-sector directions classify eligible loans to micro, small and medium enterprises under the priority-sector framework. Read the answer in its 2023 examination context because enterprise thresholds have since changed.
49. Which modern industries operated in colonial India: cotton, jute and iron-and-steel?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 24 July 2023 Shift 1 — 2023]
(A) All three
(B) Cotton and jute only
(C) Cotton only
(D) Iron-and-steel only
Answer: (A) All three
Explanation: Modern cotton and jute mills developed in British India, while integrated iron-and-steel production also emerged before Independence. These industries used factory technology and modern capital organisation to varying degrees. The existence of all three makes the combined option correct.
48. How many industries were in Schedule A under the 1956 Industrial Policy Resolution?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 18 July 2023 Shift 1 — 2023]
(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 10
(D) 12
Answer: (B) 17
Explanation: Schedule A of the 1956 Industrial Policy Resolution identified 17 industries envisaged under exclusive state responsibility. The resolution also defined Schedule B, in which state enterprise would progressively dominate, and Schedule C, containing remaining industries primarily open to private enterprise.
47. Which is NOT an agro-based industry?
[SSC MTS, 19 May 2023 Shift 3 — 2023]
(A) Vegetable oils
(B) Iron and steel
(C) Cotton textiles
(D) Leather
Answer: (B) Iron and steel
Explanation: Agro-based industries process raw materials obtained from agriculture or animal husbandry. Vegetable oils use oilseeds, cotton mills use cotton and leather production uses hides. Iron-and-steel factories principally process mineral resources, so they belong to a mineral-based industrial category.
46. What organisation did Indian industrialists establish in 1927 to represent commercial interests?
[SSC MTS, 12 September 2023 Shift 3 — 2023]
(A) Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress
(B) Organisation of Industries of India
(C) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry
(D) Confederation of Indian Industries
Answer: (C) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry
Explanation: FICCI was established in 1927 as a representative body for Indian trade and industry. Business leaders, including G. D. Birla and Purshottamdas Thakurdas, supported its formation. It became a prominent forum for commercial advocacy and industrial policy dialogue.
45. Which claim about Rajasthan’s Mukhya Mantri Laghu Udyog Protsahan Yojana is incorrect?
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2023 — 2023]
(A) 4% subsidy on loans up to ₹15 crore
(B) 5% subsidy on loans up to ₹10 crore
(C) 6% subsidy on loans up to ₹5 crore
(D) 8% subsidy on loans up to ₹25 lakh
Answer: (A) 4% subsidy on loans up to ₹15 crore
Explanation: The Rajasthan scheme provided tiered interest subsidies for qualifying small-enterprise loans, including eight per cent up to ₹25 lakh, six per cent up to ₹5 crore and five per cent up to ₹10 crore. The cited four-per-cent ₹15-crore tier was not provided.
44. Which statement about an Indian steel plant is incorrect?
[UPSC NDA-II, General Ability — 2023]
(A) Bokaro lies in the Damodar river basin
(B) Jamshedpur is at the Damodar–Barakar confluence
(C) Salem Steel Plant is in Tamil Nadu
(D) Bhilai receives water from the Tandula reservoir
Answer: (B) Jamshedpur is at the Damodar–Barakar confluence
Explanation: Jamshedpur lies near the meeting of the Subarnarekha and Kharkai rivers, not the Damodar and Barakar. The other statements correctly associate steel-industry locations with their geographic settings. Rivers and reservoirs were crucial factors in siting integrated steelworks.
43. Which location was identified as a major centre of India’s paper industry?
[WBCS Executive Prelims 2023 — 2023]
(A) Ballarpur
(B) Salkia
(C) Nepanagar
(D) Nagpur
Answer: (A) Ballarpur
Explanation: Ballarpur in Maharashtra is associated with large-scale paper manufacturing and Ballarpur Industries. Paper mills depend on fibre inputs, power, water and transport. The city developed an important place in India’s paper-production geography, distinguishing it from the alternatives.
42. Consider foreign-owned marketplace e-commerce firms in India:
1. They may sell their own goods on their marketplaces.
2. Their ownership or control of large sellers is restricted.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2022]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: India’s FDI policy distinguishes a marketplace platform from an inventory-led retail model. Foreign investment in marketplace e-commerce is permitted subject to conditions, including seller-related restrictions, but the platform cannot simply operate as an unrestricted owner-seller. Therefore only the second statement stands.
41. For the 1956 Industrial Policy, assess:
I. Schedule A was reserved for state ownership.
II. Schedule B consisted exclusively of small industries.
III. Schedule C covered the remaining industries.
Which are true?
[RRB Group D, 26 August 2022 Shift 1 — 2022]
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) All three
Answer: (B) I and III only
Explanation: Schedule A identified industries assigned to the state, while Schedule C contained the remaining industries. Schedule B was not a collection of small-scale enterprises; it covered sectors where the state would increasingly lead alongside permissible private participation. Thus I and III are correct.
40. In what year was the Steel Authority of India Limited incorporated?
[RRB Group D, 28 September 2022 Shift 1 — 2022]
(A) 1956
(B) 1981
(C) 1973
(D) 1963
Answer: (C) 1973
Explanation: SAIL was incorporated in January 1973 and developed into a major government-owned integrated steel producer. Its group of steel plants supplies construction, rail, machinery and manufacturing needs. The date relates to the corporate entity, not to the initial commissioning of each plant.
39. In which year was the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act enacted?
[RRB Group D, 9 September 2022 Shift 1 — 2022]
(A) 1951
(B) 1950
(C) 1949
(D) 1948
Answer: (A) 1951
Explanation: The Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 supplied the legislative framework for regulating specified industrial undertakings, including licensing and development controls. It followed the 1948 Industrial Policy Resolution and preceded the more expansive state-led orientation of the 1956 industrial policy.
38. Which Indian region has the highest concentration of iron-and-steel industries?
[RRB Group D, 30 August 2022 Shift 1 — 2022]
(A) Baghelkhand Plateau
(B) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(C) Malwa Plateau
(D) Bundelkhand Plateau
Answer: (B) Chota Nagpur Plateau
Explanation: The Chota Nagpur Plateau region offers proximity to iron ore, coal, limestone, water and transport routes. These natural and infrastructure advantages helped create major steel centres around Jamshedpur and Bokaro and other industrial settlements in eastern India.
37. When was Tata Iron and Steel Company incorporated?
[RRB Group D, 19 September 2022 Shift 2 — 2022]
(A) 1907
(B) 1906
(C) 1905
(D) 1908
Answer: (A) 1907
Explanation: TISCO was incorporated in 1907 and laid the foundation for large-scale integrated steel production at Jamshedpur. Now known as Tata Steel, it became a landmark private industrial enterprise. Iron ore, coal, water and rail connectivity contributed to its location.
36. Which industrial-policy document reflected the Mahalanobis growth model?
[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022 — 2021]
(A) Industrial Policy Resolution 1956
(B) Industrial Policy Statement 1973
(C) Industrial Policy Statement 1977
(D) None
Answer: (A) Industrial Policy Resolution 1956
Explanation: The Mahalanobis strategy emphasised investment in capital goods and heavy industries as the basis of long-term industrial capacity. The 1956 Industrial Policy Resolution complemented this Second Five-Year Plan approach by assigning the state a commanding role in major industries.
35. Which is NOT one of India’s eight core industries?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 19 January 2021 Shift 1 — 2021]
(A) Cement
(B) Crude oil
(C) Sugar
(D) Fertilisers
Answer: (C) Sugar
Explanation: Sugar processing is an important agro-based industry but does not enter the official eight-core-industries index. Cement, crude oil and fertilizer production are among its components. Other constituents include coal, natural gas, refinery products, steel and electricity.
34. Which body was established to deal with financially sick industrial enterprises?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 11 March 2021 Shift 2 — 2021]
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Housing Development Finance Corporation
(C) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
(D) Industrial Development Bank of India
Answer: (C) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
Explanation: The Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction operated under the Sick Industrial Companies framework to examine industrial sickness and potential revival. Its earlier institutional role must be understood historically: insolvency reforms subsequently replaced that structure with newer company-resolution mechanisms.
33. Which is regarded as India’s first major large-scale integrated iron-and-steel plant?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 18 January 2021 Shift 2 — 2021]
(A) Bhilai
(B) Bokaro
(C) Rourkela
(D) TISCO
Answer: (D) TISCO
Explanation: Tata Iron and Steel Company, established at Jamshedpur in 1907, was a pioneer of modern integrated steel production in India. The other listed major public-sector steelworks developed decades later after Independence as part of state-led industrialisation.
32. Which steel plant is NOT situated immediately beside a river among these options?
[UPPSC RO/ARO General Studies, 5 December 2021 — 2021]
(A) Bhilai
(B) Bokaro
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Bhadravati
Answer: (A) Bhilai
Explanation: Bokaro, Jamshedpur and Bhadravati are closely associated with river locations, including the Damodar, Subarnarekha–Kharkai and Bhadra systems. Bhilai’s water infrastructure is linked instead to the Tandula reservoir. This contrast distinguishes its site from the other alternatives.
31. What is West Texas Intermediate (WTI)?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2020]
(A) A crude-oil grade
(B) A bullion standard
(C) A rare-earth mineral
(D) A uranium grade
Answer: (A) A crude-oil grade
Explanation: WTI is a light, sweet crude-oil grade used as an international price benchmark. Its relatively low sulphur content makes it attractive for refining. WTI prices influence energy markets and industrial input costs, alongside benchmarks such as Brent crude.
30. Concerning WTO TRIMs, consider:
1. Certain import quantitative restrictions on foreign investors are prohibited.
2. TRIMs covers goods and services.
3. TRIMs does not directly regulate entry of foreign investment.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2020]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The Trade-Related Investment Measures agreement deals with trade-distorting investment measures affecting goods. It restricts measures inconsistent with GATT principles, including certain import-balancing restrictions. It does not regulate investment entry generally, and services are covered by a separate WTO framework.
29. Consider:
1. India’s coal sector was nationalised under Indira Gandhi.
2. Coal blocks are allocated by lottery.
3. India no longer needs imported coal.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2019]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: Coking and non-coking coal nationalisation took place in the early 1970s under Indira Gandhi. Coal blocks are not ordinarily allotted by lottery, and imports continued because of demand and coal-quality requirements. Only the historical nationalisation assertion is correct.
28. Regarding functions of India’s public sector, consider:
I. Supplying public utilities.
II. Building economic and social overhead capital.
III. Encouraging balanced regional growth.
IV. Pursuing egalitarian objectives.
Which are correct?
[UPPSC Civil Services Prelims 2019 — 2019]
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) I, III and IV
Answer: (C) I, II, III and IV
Explanation: Public enterprises have historically provided essential utilities, built major economic and social infrastructure and supported balanced regional development. The public sector was also expected to advance social equity and broad developmental goals. Consequently, all four functions were included in the examination key.
27. Nepanagar is associated with which industry?
[MPPSC General Studies 2018 — 2018]
(A) Fertiliser
(B) Newsprint paper
(C) Sugar
(D) Woollen textiles
Answer: (B) Newsprint paper
Explanation: Nepanagar in Madhya Pradesh became known for the Nepa paper mill and newsprint manufacture. Pulp, paper-making machinery, water and transport are major requirements of the industry. The industrial township is located in today’s Burhanpur district.
26. What is the purpose of the UDAY scheme?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2016]
(A) Aid renewable-energy start-ups
(B) Electrify every home by 2018
(C) Replace all coal plants with renewables
(D) Financial turnaround of power-distribution companies
Answer: (D) Financial turnaround of power-distribution companies
Explanation: Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana was launched to improve the financial and operational position of electricity distribution companies. It involved debt restructuring and steps to reduce losses, thereby strengthening the distribution link connecting power generation with consumers and businesses.
25. District Mineral Foundations were formed primarily for which purpose:
1. Promote mineral exploration.
2. Protect people affected by mining.
3. License mineral exploration?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2016]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: District Mineral Foundations support the welfare and development of communities and areas affected by mining operations. Their work may finance local services and infrastructure. Mineral exploration and the grant of mining licences fall under different administrative and legal processes.
24. Which is NOT among India’s eight core industries?
[CGPSC Prelims General Studies 2016 — 2016]
(A) Coal
(B) Fertilisers
(C) Electricity
(D) Chemicals
(E) Cement
Answer: (D) Chemicals
Explanation: Chemicals as a broad category is not independently included among the eight core industries. The official grouping comprises coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement and electricity. The distinction is important when interpreting industrial growth indices.
23. A textile–MSME technology centre was proposed through a ministerial agreement at which city?
[WBCS Prelims 2016 — 2016]
(A) Jaipur
(B) Pune
(C) Kanpur
(D) Lucknow
Answer: (C) Kanpur
Explanation: The planned technology centre at Kanpur was intended to enhance technical capability, training and productivity for textile-linked enterprises. Such centres help MSMEs obtain modern tools, testing and skilled manpower, improving competitiveness without each small firm investing in full facilities.
22. Concerning IREDA, consider:
1. It is a government public limited company.
2. It is an RBI-registered non-banking financial company.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2015]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency is a government enterprise providing financial support to renewable-energy projects. It is organised as a public limited company and registered as an NBFC. These characteristics enable specialised project finance for energy infrastructure and clean-power investment.
21. Match Rourkela, Bhilai, Durgapur and Visakhapatnam steel plants to their states. Which combination is correct?
[RPSC Senior Teacher Grade-II, Social Science — 2015]
(A) Rourkela–Chhattisgarh, Bhilai–Odisha, Durgapur–West Bengal, Vizag–Andhra Pradesh
(B) Rourkela–Odisha, Bhilai–Chhattisgarh, Durgapur–West Bengal, Vizag–Andhra Pradesh
(C) Rourkela–West Bengal, Bhilai–Odisha, Durgapur–Chhattisgarh, Vizag–Andhra Pradesh
(D) Rourkela–Andhra Pradesh, Bhilai–West Bengal, Durgapur–Odisha, Vizag–Chhattisgarh
Answer: (B) Rourkela–Odisha, Bhilai–Chhattisgarh, Durgapur–West Bengal, Vizag–Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Rourkela is in Odisha, Bhilai in Chhattisgarh, Durgapur in West Bengal and Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh. Each location became an industrial centre with substantial steel-producing capacity. Geographic matching also reveals how industry spread across different resource belts.
20. Which model guided India’s Second Five-Year Plan?
[MPPSC General Studies 2015 — 2015]
(A) Solow model
(B) Domar model
(C) Robinson model
(D) Mahalanobis model
Answer: (D) Mahalanobis model
Explanation: The Second Plan followed P. C. Mahalanobis’s emphasis on capital-goods and heavy industries. The strategy prioritised building capacity for long-term domestic production over immediate consumer-goods expansion. It strongly influenced public-sector investment and the 1956 industrial policy.
19. Which group of steel plants was established after Independence?
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2013 — 2013]
(A) Jamshedpur, Durgapur, Bhilai
(B) Bhilai, Durgapur, Bhadravati
(C) Bhilai, Durgapur, Rourkela
(D) Kulti–Burnpur, Visakhapatnam, Salem
Answer: (C) Bhilai, Durgapur, Rourkela
Explanation: Bhilai, Durgapur and Rourkela were major public-sector integrated steel projects developed after India became independent. Jamshedpur and Bhadravati originated earlier. Their establishment demonstrates the Second Plan period’s emphasis on heavy industrial capacity and foreign technical collaboration.
18. Which industrial initiatives were proposed to support manufacturing:
National Investment and Manufacturing Zones;
single-window clearances;
Technology Acquisition and Development Fund?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2012]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Manufacturing policies encouraged large planned investment zones, simpler clearances and technology upgrading. National Investment and Manufacturing Zones addressed industrial land and facilities; single-window mechanisms reduced procedural delays; and technology-development support helped firms modernise production. All three were associated with manufacturing promotion.
17. Which of these were among the eight core industries: cement; fertilisers; natural gas; refinery products; textiles?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2012]
(A) Cement and textiles only
(B) Fertilisers, natural gas and refinery products only
(C) Cement, fertilisers, natural gas and refinery products
(D) All five
Answer: (C) Cement, fertilisers, natural gas and refinery products
Explanation: Cement, fertilizers, natural gas and petroleum refinery products are core-industry components, alongside coal, crude oil, steel and electricity. Textiles are a major manufacturing segment but do not belong to the eight-core index. The index’s total IIP weight changes with base-year revisions.
16. Why did India import coal despite domestic reserves:
1. To deliberately conserve all domestic coal.
2. Insufficient domestic supply for thermal power plants.
3. Steelmakers’ need for coking coal.
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2012]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: India imports coal partly because domestic supply cannot always meet thermal-power requirements and because steel producers need suitable coking coal. There was no general policy of keeping Indian coal reserves unused for the future. Quantity and grade both matter.
15. Which is NOT a feature of a limited liability partnership?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2010]
(A) It must have fewer than twenty partners
(B) Partners may directly manage it
(C) Internal rules can be agreed by partners
(D) It has perpetual succession
Answer: (A) It must have fewer than twenty partners
Explanation: An LLP is a distinct legal entity with perpetual succession and flexible internal agreements among partners. Unlike the statement suggested, there is no universal limit requiring fewer than twenty partners. LLPs combine limited liability with operational flexibility suited to many professional and commercial firms.
14. What did the erstwhile Forward Markets Commission regulate?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2010]
(A) Currency futures
(B) Commodity futures
(C) Equity futures
(D) All commodity and financial futures
Answer: (B) Commodity futures
Explanation: The Forward Markets Commission historically supervised commodity futures trading. It did not serve as the general regulator of currency or equity derivatives. The institution was subsequently merged with SEBI in 2015, so the response concerns the examination’s earlier regulatory setting.
13. Under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, which were objectives:
infrastructure development;
attracting overseas investment;
exclusively promoting services exports?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2010]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Special Economic Zones aim to attract investment, develop infrastructure and promote exports of goods as well as services. Therefore infrastructure and foreign investment are objectives, but the assertion that only service exports are promoted is incorrect. The Act became operational in 2006.
12. Consider:
1. MMTC was a major Indian international trading enterprise.
2. Neelachal Ispat Nigam was established with MMTC and the Odisha government.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2009]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: MMTC was a prominent public-sector international trading enterprise, handling metals and other commodities. Neelachal Ispat Nigam was developed through participation including MMTC and Odisha-based public bodies. Both statements describe industrial and trade arrangements relevant at the question’s examination date.
11. Which statement about public-sector steel plants is incorrect?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2005]
(A) Rourkela was established with Soviet collaboration
(B) Salem is an important stainless-steel producer
(C) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt was associated with SAIL
(D) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is linked to Rashtriya Ispat Nigam
Answer: (A) Rourkela was established with Soviet collaboration
Explanation: Rourkela Steel Plant was established with West German technical collaboration rather than Soviet assistance. Bhilai and Bokaro were Soviet-assisted projects. Salem specialises in stainless steel, while Visakhapatnam is associated with Rashtriya Ispat Nigam. The question tests historical institutional associations.
10. Which committee recommended removal of reserved products for small-scale industry?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2003]
(A) Abid Hussain Committee
(B) Narasimham Committee
(C) Nayak Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
Answer: (A) Abid Hussain Committee
Explanation: The Abid Hussain Committee recommended dismantling product reservation for small-scale industries to improve competitiveness and modernisation. The policy discussion reflected concern that long-standing reservations might restrict technological progress and scale. Other named committees focused on different financial or economic reforms.
9. In 2000–01, which industry recorded the highest growth among these four?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2003]
(A) Cement
(B) Coal
(C) Electricity
(D) Steel
Answer: (D) Steel
Explanation: For the historical period specified, steel showed the highest growth among the listed sectors in the source question. Growth rates vary by financial year and measurement window. Such questions require interpreting contemporaneous industrial-production statistics, rather than substituting current figures.
8. Consider statements:
MMTC was India’s largest non-oil importer;
PEC was directly under the Ministry of Industry;
ECGC enforced compulsory export-quality inspections.
Which were correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2002]
(A) First only
(B) First and second
(C) Second and third
(D) Third only
Answer: (A) First only
Explanation: The historical key accepted the MMTC statement. PEC was associated with the commerce administration, while ECGC provided export-credit insurance rather than compulsory quality inspection. The question distinguishes trading, project-export and export-risk institutions in India’s international commerce framework.
7. HINDALCO’s aluminium unit at Renukut was sited chiefly because of which factor?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2002]
(A) Nearness to raw materials
(B) Abundant electric power
(C) Excellent transport alone
(D) Proximity to consumers
Answer: (B) Abundant electric power
Explanation: Aluminium smelting consumes enormous quantities of electricity, making reliable power particularly important. The Renukut location benefited from power supplied through the Rihand region. Industrial-location decisions often reflect energy requirements as well as raw materials, labour, infrastructure and transport.
6. Which factors determined the nature and size of industry in an older UPSC question:
capital invested,
business turnover,
labour force and power consumption?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 2001]
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: Capital employed, sales turnover and energy use were treated as important indicators of industrial scale and character. Employment alone need not reveal size because capital-intensive factories may operate with few workers. The question emphasised multiple economic measures of industrial activity.
5. Why did small-scale industries receive preferential treatment:
1. Jobs per unit of capital.
2. Regional dispersal.
3. Stronger exports than large firms.
4. Jobs for lower-skilled workers.
Which combination was keyed?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 1999]
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (B) 1 and 2
Explanation: The examination emphasised two broad policy arguments: small firms could generate substantial employment relative to capital invested and disperse economic activity beyond major industrial centres. Small-industry preferences were meant to foster decentralised industrialisation as well as employment opportunities.
4. Match industrial activities with centres:
pearl fishing,
automobiles,
shipbuilding,
engineering goods;
Tuticorin,
Pune,
Mormugao,
Pinjore.
Which order is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 1999]
(A) Tuticorin, Pune, Mormugao, Pinjore
(B) Tuticorin, Pune, Pinjore, Mormugao
(C) Pune, Tuticorin, Mormugao, Pinjore
(D) Pune, Tuticorin, Pinjore, Mormugao
Answer: (A) Tuticorin, Pune, Mormugao, Pinjore
Explanation: Tuticorin was historically associated with pearl fishing, Pune with automobile manufacturing, Mormugao with shipbuilding activity, and Pinjore with engineering goods. The question tests knowledge of Indian industrial geography and the resources, skills or institutions associated with each centre.
3. In the 1990s, which explanation for declining central industrial planning was NOT true?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 1999]
(A) More private and foreign industrial investment
(B) Markets reduced detailed state planning
(C) Planning placed more emphasis on human resources
(D) India abandoned industrial development in favour of rural development
Answer: (D) India abandoned industrial development in favour of rural development
Explanation: Liberalisation altered how industries were financed and organised, reducing direct central control over many investment decisions. Nonetheless industrial development remained a major economic goal. India’s policy did not abandon manufacturing merely because other priorities, including rural and human development, gained attention.
2. What was the objective of the National Renewal Fund?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 1999]
(A) Protect workers affected by technology change and closure of sick units
(B) Develop only the core sector
(C) Build roads and irrigation alone
(D) Provide general literacy and drinking water
Answer: (A) Protect workers affected by technology change and closure of sick units
Explanation: The National Renewal Fund, established in the early reform period, sought to assist workers affected by industrial restructuring and closure. Its support included retraining and social protection. The fund therefore addressed adjustment costs of industrial reform rather than financing general infrastructure projects.
1. Match export commodities with their historical principal destinations:
iron ore, leather goods, tea, cotton fabrics;
Japan, Russia, United Kingdom, United States.
Which sequence is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims — 1997]
(A) Canada, Russia, United States, Japan
(B) Japan, Russia, United Kingdom, United States
(C) Russia, Canada, United Kingdom, Japan
(D) Japan, United Kingdom, Russia, United States
Answer: (B) Japan, Russia, United Kingdom, United States
Explanation: This historical trade-matching item paired iron ore with Japan, leather goods with Russia, tea with the United Kingdom and cotton fabrics with the United States. Export destinations change with market conditions, so these associations relate specifically to the older examination.80 dated exam questions. Question wording standardised or condensed for presentation; explanations are newly written. Entries reflect their original examination context.