140. Under Rainfed Area Development of NMSA, which objective is included? Consider:
1. Encouraging monoculture;
2. Increasing irrigated rice area;
3. Improving productivity and reducing climatic risks through integrated farming systems.
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D. 3 only
Explanation: Rainfed Area Development encourages diversified integrated farming systems, combining crops with allied enterprises. It is intended to manage climate risk in rainfed districts, not increase monoculture or expand irrigated rice cultivation.
139. The Rural Prosperity and Resilience programme announced in Union Budget 2025–26 was intended to tackle what difficulty?
[RRB Group D 2026]
A. Rural school dropout
B. Underemployment in agriculture
C. Sports infrastructure only
D. Local administrative appointments
Answer: B. Underemployment in agriculture
Explanation: The proposed multi-sectoral rural initiative emphasised livelihood opportunities and productivity, particularly addressing underemployment in agriculture. This is different from schemes devoted exclusively to school enrollment, sports facilities or administrative staffing.
138. Which scheme is NOT intended for development of the agricultural sector:
PM-Kisan Maandhan Yojana,
Modified Interest Subvention Scheme,
PM SVANidhi, or
National Food Security and Nutrition Mission?
[UPSC CDS-I (General Knowledge) 2026]
A. PM-Kisan Maandhan Yojana
B. Modified Interest Subvention Scheme
C. PM SVANidhi
D. National Food Security and Nutrition Mission
Answer: C. PM SVANidhi
Explanation: PM SVANidhi finances working capital for urban street vendors under a Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs programme. The other listed programmes relate directly to farmers, agricultural credit or food security and nutrition within the agricultural sector.
137. Which is correct about ethanol production in Brazil and the USA?
Statement I: Brazil produces more ethanol than the USA.
Statement II: Brazil mainly uses sugarcane whereas the USA mainly uses corn.
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
A. Both correct; II explains I
B. Both correct; II does not explain I
C. I correct, II incorrect
D. I incorrect, II correct
Answer: D. I incorrect, II correct
Explanation: The USA is the leading ethanol producer, so Statement I is false. Brazil mainly processes sugarcane and the USA mainly uses maize. The contrasting raw materials do not reverse the countries’ production rankings.
136. For turmeric in India in 2022–23, consider:
1. India led production and exports;
2. More than thirty varieties were cultivated;
3. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu were major producing states.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: India accounted for a dominant share of global turmeric production and exports. More than thirty varieties occur across the country, with important production in the named states. The question tests crop geography alongside agricultural trade.
135. About the Rashtriya Gokul Mission, consider:
1. It benefits small farmers and landless families owning indigenous animals;
2. It supports scientific conservation and development of native cattle and buffalo breeds.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither
Answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Rashtriya Gokul Mission works on conserving and improving indigenous bovine breeds. Many low-yielding animals are owned by small cultivators and landless families. Breeding improvements can enhance milk productivity and livelihoods.
134. Regarding income taxation, consider:
1. Poultry farming and wool-rearing income in rural areas is automatically exempt as agricultural income;
2. Rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of capital asset under specified income-tax provisions.
Choose the correct statement relationship.
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
A. Both correct; II explains I
B. Both correct; II does not explain I
C. I correct, II incorrect
D. I incorrect, II correct
Answer: D. I incorrect, II correct
Explanation: Agricultural income has a specific statutory meaning: poultry and wool income are generally not automatically exempt. Qualifying rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of capital asset for capital gains purposes.
133. How many of the following were introduced into India by the Portuguese during the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries: papaya, pineapple and guava?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C. All three
Explanation: Papaya, pineapple and guava came to India through post-Columbian trade links, with Portuguese traders facilitating introductions. All three subsequently became familiar horticultural crops in different Indian climatic zones.
132. How many pairs correctly describe the plant habit:
cassava—woody shrub;
ginger—herb with pseudostem;
Malabar spinach—herbaceous climber;
mint—annual shrub;
papaya—woody shrub?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. All five
Answer: B. Only three
Explanation: Cassava is a woody shrub, ginger has a pseudostem and Malabar spinach climbs as a herb. Mint is usually perennial, not an annual shrub; papaya is a giant herb rather than a true woody shrub.
131. What was a central equity goal of agrarian land reforms after independence?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. Import substitution
B. Industrial-credit expansion
C. Abolition of intermediaries and land ceilings
D. Strengthening zamindari
Answer: C. Abolition of intermediaries and land ceilings
Explanation: Land reforms targeted unequal ownership and exploitative intermediaries. Zamindari abolition connected cultivators more directly with the state, while ceiling laws aimed to make surplus holdings available for redistribution to eligible landless households.
130. During which Five-Year Plan was the Green Revolution introduced in India?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. First Plan
B. Second Plan
C. Third Plan
D. Fifth Plan
Answer: C. Third Plan
Explanation: The high-yielding-seed programme began in the mid-1960s, towards the end of the Third Five-Year Plan. Irrigation, chemical fertilisers and improved wheat and rice varieties were its prominent technological components.
129. Which sector was adversely affected by reduced fertiliser subsidies after the 1991 reforms?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. Industry
B. Banking
C. Agriculture
D. Transport
Answer: C. Agriculture
Explanation: Farmers are direct purchasers of fertiliser inputs. When subsidy reductions increase their price, cultivation costs can rise, particularly for small farmers with limited working capital. The direct sectoral impact is therefore agriculture.
128. What is the principal agricultural objective of PM-KUSUM?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. Universal free farm electricity
B. More chemical fertiliser use
C. Solar pumps and decentralised solar generation
D. Rural-grid-only expansion
Answer: C. Solar pumps and decentralised solar generation
Explanation: PM-KUSUM promotes standalone solar irrigation pumps, solarisation of existing pumps and small grid-connected solar power projects. These measures diversify farmers’ energy supply and can support additional income through electricity generation.
127. The National Beekeeping and Honey Mission is implemented by which Union Ministry?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Ministry of Rural Development
C. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
D. Ministry of Health
Answer: C. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Explanation: The National Beekeeping and Honey Mission operates through the agriculture administration and National Bee Board. It helps modernise apiculture, improve honey processing and enhance pollination services for horticultural and field crops.
126. Under Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana, what monthly pension is assured after age 60 to eligible small and marginal farmers?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. ₹1,000
B. ₹2,000
C. ₹3,000
D. ₹5,000
Answer: C. ₹3,000
Explanation: PM-KMY is a voluntary contributory pension programme for eligible small and marginal cultivators. Qualified subscribers receive an assured minimum pension of ₹3,000 monthly after reaching sixty years of age.
125. What is the main purpose of the Soil Health Card Scheme?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. Improving seed germination alone
B. Issuing organic certification
C. Assessing soil nutrient status
D. Stopping land acquisition
Answer: C. Assessing soil nutrient status
Explanation: Soil Health Cards report soil properties and nutrient levels, including major and selected micronutrients. The accompanying fertiliser recommendations promote balanced application rather than indiscriminate nutrient use, potentially improving input efficiency and soil productivity.
124. Which programme promotes crop diversification through cluster-based agricultural planning?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. PM-AASHA
B. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
C. Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation
D. Agriculture Infrastructure Fund
Answer: B. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
Explanation: Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana supports state-led, area-specific agricultural strategies, including diversification. PM-AASHA primarily concerns price support, while farm mechanisation and infrastructure financing have different principal objectives.
123. The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund provides support primarily for what purpose?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. Consumer food subsidies
B. Post-harvest and community farm infrastructure
C. Waiving all farm loans
D. Fixing retail fertiliser prices
Answer: B. Post-harvest and community farm infrastructure
Explanation: The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund finances eligible post-harvest management and community farming assets, such as storage, sorting and processing infrastructure. The emphasis is investment in productive facilities, not routine procurement or cash-transfer expenditure.
122. What is the age eligibility for entry into the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. 18–40 years
B. 18–60 years
C. 25–55 years
D. 40–65 years
Answer: A. 18–40 years
Explanation: Enrollment in the contributory pension scheme is normally for eligible small and marginal farmers aged eighteen to forty. Pension payments begin upon reaching sixty, subject to the scheme’s membership and contribution conditions.
121. Concerning fertiliser manufacture in India, which are accurate:
1. India is self-sufficient in potash fertilisers;
2. Urea is the most commonly produced nitrogenous fertiliser;
3. Fertiliser production expanded after the Green Revolution;
4. Gujarat and Kerala make only minor contributions?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: India depends largely on imported potash and cannot be called self-sufficient in that nutrient. Urea is the dominant nitrogenous fertiliser, and Indian fertiliser manufacture expanded with Green Revolution demand. The claimed insignificance of Gujarat and Kerala is also incorrect.
120. Which programme directly rewards tree planting and environmental restoration through green credits?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2025]
A. Soil Health Card
B. Green Credit Programme
C. PM-AASHA
D. PMFBY
Answer: B. Green Credit Programme
Explanation: The Green Credit Programme is an environmental incentive framework for specified voluntary activities. Plantation and ecological restoration are among its central elements; it is not itself a crop-insurance or agricultural procurement policy.
119. Why did NABARD and ICAR enter a collaborative agreement in 2025?
[RRB Group D 2025]
A. Urban heat mapping
B. Climate-resilient farming
C. Emergency policing
D. Commercial banking web design
Answer: B. Climate-resilient farming
Explanation: The partnership sought to combine agricultural research and rural financial or development institutions to strengthen climate-resilient agriculture. Adaptation is particularly important for farmers facing uncertain rainfall, extreme temperatures and changing pest pressures.
118. Put Rajasthan’s gross fixed capital formation sectors in descending order by share: construction, manufacturing, agriculture and mining.
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2025]
A. Manufacturing, Mining, Agriculture, Construction
B. Construction, Agriculture, Manufacturing, Mining
C. Construction, Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining
D. Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining, Construction
Answer: C. Construction, Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining
Explanation: The Rajasthan Economic Review sectoral data place construction first in capital formation, followed by manufacturing and agricultural activities; mining is lower among the four. Gross fixed capital formation records investment in long-lived productive assets rather than current output.
117. Which portal was described as integrating several agriculture schemes across Union ministries in 2025?
[RRB Group D 2025]
A. Krishi Nivesh
B. FarmOne
C. Kisan Setu
D. AgriConnect
Answer: A. Krishi Nivesh
Explanation: Krishi Nivesh was presented as a one-stop interface for agriculture-related investment and scheme information. A consolidated portal can make programmes easier for prospective investors, farmers and rural enterprises to locate.
116. Which crop was associated with British colonial plantation expansion among peasants of Assam?
[SSC CHSL 2025]
A. Cotton
B. Tea
C. Wheat
D. Rice
Answer: B. Tea
Explanation: Tea became a central plantation crop in Assam under colonial rule. Commercial plantation development reorganised land use and labour to serve external demand, leaving a lasting imprint on the regional agricultural economy.
115. Which is a typical kharif crop among rice, wheat, watermelon and mustard?
[SSC CHSL 2025]
A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Watermelon
D. Mustard
Answer: A. Rice
Explanation: Rice is commonly sown with the southwest monsoon and harvested later in the rainy-season agricultural cycle. Wheat and mustard are major rabi crops, while watermelon is often associated with the summer zaid season.
114. India is a member of the International Grains Council; is Council membership mandatory for importing or exporting rice and wheat? Select the correct combination.
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024]
A. India member only
B. Mandatory membership only
C. Both statements true
D. Neither statement true
Answer: A. India member only
Explanation: India participates in the International Grains Council, which provides grain-market information and cooperation. Council membership is not a legal prerequisite for a country to buy or sell wheat or rice internationally.
113. Under the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, which are correct:
1. Fully centrally funded;
2. Cadastral maps digitised;
3. Records of Rights transliteration into constitutionally recognised Indian languages initiated?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: D. All three
Explanation: The modernisation programme uses central funding to computerise land records, digitise cadastral maps and improve access to Records of Rights. Multilingual transliteration can make records easier for citizens across language boundaries.
112. What economically justifies subsidies for agricultural production?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. Benefits only machinery companies
B. Rewards primarily wealthy farmers
C. Represents service-sector spending
D. Promotes technology adoption and lowers cultivation costs
Answer: D. Promotes technology adoption and lowers cultivation costs
Explanation: Support for inputs such as seeds, power and fertiliser can reduce costs faced by cultivators. It also encourages adopting improved agricultural technology, though poorly designed subsidies may create distortions and environmental costs.
111. In the State List of the Seventh Schedule, which subjects concerning agricultural land fall within State jurisdiction:
1. Tax on agricultural income;
2. Duties on succession to agricultural land;
3. Estate duty on agricultural land?
[UPSC CDS (General Knowledge) 2024]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule allocates taxes on agricultural income, succession duties involving agricultural land and estate duty involving such land to State legislative powers. Constitutional division of taxation distinguishes agricultural land from several non-agricultural taxation fields.
110. Which state underwent the strongest transformation during the first Green Revolution?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. Kerala
B. Odisha
C. Punjab
D. West Bengal
Answer: C. Punjab
Explanation: The initial Green Revolution was concentrated where canal or groundwater irrigation, procurement arrangements and input availability were strong. Punjab, with Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, saw especially rapid increases in wheat and rice productivity.
109. To mark the success of the Green Revolution, which commemorative item was released in 1968?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. A Wheat Revolution postage stamp
B. Free foodgrain coupons
C. Vegetable vouchers
D. A compulsory farm-wage order
Answer: A. A Wheat Revolution postage stamp
Explanation: A special Wheat Revolution stamp was issued in 1968 to commemorate rapid gains in wheat production. The agricultural transformation reflected improved seed varieties, irrigation, extension and fertiliser availability.
108. What was the main objective of the Second Green Revolution?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. Food security only in western India
B. Holistic development of agriculture
C. Maximising pesticide application
D. Returning entirely to traditional inputs
Answer: B. Holistic development of agriculture
Explanation: Discussion of a second Green Revolution stresses sustainability, diversified crops and inclusion of less-developed rainfed regions. It seeks broad-based productivity and resilience rather than repeating an input-intensive approach alone.
107. Which statements describe the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture:
1. Higher productivity;
2. Sustainability;
3. Organic farming promotion?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: NMSA aims for productive, climate-resilient and sustainable farming. Soil health and organic production practices fit the mission’s approach, alongside measures for efficient water use and risk management.
106. Under PM Fasal Bima Yojana, what is the maximum ordinary farmer premium for notified kharif food and oilseed crops?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 5%
Answer: B. 2%
Explanation: For notified kharif food and oilseed crops, the standard farmer premium is capped at two percent of the sum insured. Premium caps for rabi crops and commercial or horticultural crops differ.
105. How much annual financial assistance is ordinarily provided under PM-KISAN?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. ₹2,000
B. ₹4,000
C. ₹6,000
D. ₹12,000
Answer: C. ₹6,000
Explanation: PM-KISAN provides eligible landholding farmer families income support of ₹6,000 a year in three instalments. The programme is a direct benefit transfer and is distinct from procurement at minimum support prices.
104. Which government portal offers farmers information about agriculture and associated services?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. Agricultural Portal
B. Farmers’ Portal
C. Cultivation Portal
D. Cropland Portal
Answer: B. Farmers’ Portal
Explanation: Farmers’ Portal is intended as a consolidated source of agricultural information, including crop practices and government programmes. Access to relevant advisories can reduce farmers’ information gaps when planning production decisions.
103. How did the contribution of agriculture to GDP compare with agricultural employment after independence?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. Both shares fell equally sharply
B. Employment share fell sharply but GDP share did not
C. Both shares increased sharply
D. GDP share fell much more than agriculture’s workforce share
Answer: D. GDP share fell much more than agriculture’s workforce share
Explanation: Agriculture’s output share declined greatly as industry and services expanded. Dependence on farm employment remained comparatively high, reflecting slower movement of workers out of low-productivity agricultural activities.
102. What was cereal production in 1978–79 after Green Revolution technology raised it from 72.4 million tonnes in 1965–66?
[SSC CGL Tier I 2024]
A. 150.8 million tonnes
B. 165.9 million tonnes
C. 131.9 million tonnes
D. 141.2 million tonnes
Answer: C. 131.9 million tonnes
Explanation: The cited production series records an increase from 72.4 to 131.9 million tonnes. High-yielding seeds and accompanying irrigation and fertiliser use played a major role in the expansion.
101. In Indian agriculture, what does the term Penda refer to?
[SSC MTS 2024]
A. A cropping season
B. Tea cultivation
C. Slash-and-burn cultivation
D. Plantation monoculture
Answer: C. Slash-and-burn cultivation
Explanation: Penda denotes a regional form of shifting cultivation involving cutting vegetation and burning residues before sowing. Its name varies across regions, while the basic land-preparation technique has similarities to jhum.
100. Rabi crops usually sown around October–November are harvested in which months?
[SSC MTS 2024]
A. June–July
B. March–April
C. January–February
D. May–June
Answer: B. March–April
Explanation: Rabi crops develop during the cooler winter season and are generally harvested in spring. Wheat, barley, chickpea and mustard are familiar rabi examples, contrasting with the monsoon-dependent kharif calendar.
99. Which crops are normally sown when the monsoon begins?
[SSC CHSL 2024]
A. Zaid crops
B. Rabi crops
C. Kharif crops
D. Annual plantation crops
Answer: C. Kharif crops
Explanation: Kharif cultivation broadly follows the southwest monsoon. Farmers generally sow crops such as rice, maize and cotton with seasonal rains and harvest them around or after monsoon withdrawal.
98. Which description best fits the Small Farmer Large Field concept?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2023]
A. Refugee land resettlement
B. Coordinated operations by groups of marginal farmers
C. Compulsory corporate takeover of farms
D. Corporate contract farming only
Answer: B. Coordinated operations by groups of marginal farmers
Explanation: Small Farmer Large Field pools selected farm operations rather than necessarily pooling ownership. Coordinated planting, machinery and harvesting can achieve scale efficiencies while individual landholders retain control of their plots.
97. Consider niger seed:
1. MSP is provided;
2. It is grown in kharif;
3. Its oil is used in cooking by some tribal communities.
How many statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2023]
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C. All three
Explanation: Niger is an oilseed crop cultivated in the kharif season, and it belongs to the MSP schedule. Some local and tribal food traditions use niger oil, giving the crop subsistence as well as market importance.
96. Compare Indian and Chinese agriculture:
1. India has more arable land;
2. India has a higher share of irrigated land;
3. India has higher average per-hectare productivity.
How many are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2023]
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A. Only one
Explanation: India has extensive arable land, but China generally records a greater irrigated proportion and higher average land productivity for several major crop comparisons. Hence the first of the listed statements is correct.
95. Which sequence correctly places typical crop-production operations?
[MPPSC State Services Prelims 2023]
A. Soil preparation, irrigation, sowing, harvesting
B. Soil preparation, sowing, irrigation, harvesting
C. Sowing, harvesting, irrigation, soil preparation
D. Soil preparation, irrigation, harvesting, sowing
Answer: B. Soil preparation, sowing, irrigation, harvesting
Explanation: Fields are prepared before seeds are sown; appropriate irrigation follows according to crop needs, and harvesting occurs at maturity. Specific fertilisation or weeding operations may take place between these major stages.
94. Match crops with states having leading production: ragi, bajra, jowar and urad with Karnataka, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh respectively. Which mapping is correct?
[CGPSC Prelims General Studies 2023]
A. Ragi—Karnataka; bajra—Maharashtra; jowar—Rajasthan; urad—Madhya Pradesh
B. Ragi—Karnataka; bajra—Rajasthan; jowar—Maharashtra; urad—Madhya Pradesh
C. Ragi—Rajasthan; bajra—Madhya Pradesh; jowar—Maharashtra; urad—Karnataka
D. Ragi—Karnataka; bajra—Madhya Pradesh; jowar—Rajasthan; urad—Maharashtra
Answer: B. Ragi—Karnataka; bajra—Rajasthan; jowar—Maharashtra; urad—Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Karnataka is notable for ragi; Rajasthan is a major bajra state; Maharashtra is particularly associated with jowar; and Madhya Pradesh is important for urad. The question pairs a major cereal or pulse with its state production concentration.
93. Which Tea Board statements are correct:
1. It is statutory;
2. Under Agriculture Ministry;
3. Head office Bengaluru;
4. Overseas offices Dubai and Moscow?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022]
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D. 1 and 4
Explanation: The Tea Board was constituted under the Tea Act, 1953. It functions under the commerce administration, and its head office is in Kolkata. The stated overseas offices make statement four correct.
92. What outcomes follow System of Rice Intensification with alternate wetting and drying:
1. Lower seed requirement;
2. Less methane;
3. Lower pumping electricity?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: SRI uses fewer, younger seedlings and improved spacing. Intermittent wetting reduces continuous anaerobic conditions and methane formation; lower pumping requirements can also save power in irrigated fields.
91. Among Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh and Tripura, how many are tea-growing states?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022]
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. All four
Answer: D. All four
Explanation: India’s tea cultivation extends beyond Assam and northern West Bengal. The listed states include established or smaller tea-producing regions, such as Kangra in Himachal Pradesh and growing areas in Tripura.
90. Which occupation predominated in India on the eve of independence?
[RRB Group D 2022]
A. Education
B. Services
C. Agriculture
D. Industry
Answer: C. Agriculture
Explanation: Colonial India was overwhelmingly agrarian. Much of the population depended directly or indirectly on cultivation, often with low productivity and exposure to rainfall uncertainty, while non-farm employment opportunities remained comparatively limited.
89. Match the personalities and themes:
M. S. Swaminathan,
L. K. Jha,
Verghese Kurien,
Morarji Desai
with
Green Revolution,
administrative reform,
milk production and
social control of banks.
[UPPCS 2022]
A. Swaminathan—administration; Jha—milk; Kurien—green; Desai—banks
B. Swaminathan—milk; Jha—green; Kurien—administration; Desai—banks
C. Swaminathan—green; Jha—administrative reform; Kurien—milk; Desai—bank social control
D. Swaminathan—banks; Jha—milk; Kurien—administration; Desai—green
Answer: C. Swaminathan—green; Jha—administrative reform; Kurien—milk; Desai—bank social control
Explanation: Swaminathan is strongly associated with the Green Revolution and Kurien with dairy cooperatives and the White Revolution. L. K. Jha and Morarji Desai connect with administrative and banking-policy developments respectively.
88. For Climate-Smart Agriculture, which are correct:
1. Climate-Smart Village approach involved CCAFS;
2. CCAFS belonged to CGIAR, headquartered in France;
3. ICRISAT is connected with international agricultural research?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2021]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Climate-smart village projects test adaptive agricultural technologies. CCAFS operated within international agricultural research partnerships, while ICRISAT works on dryland crops and resilience. The question examines the institutional network supporting this approach.
87. Which broad feature distinguishes permaculture from conventional chemical farming?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2021]
A. Reliance on only monoculture
B. Ecological diversity and natural cycles
C. Greater dependence on chemical inputs
D. Permanent absence of livestock
Answer: B. Ecological diversity and natural cycles
Explanation: Permaculture designs farms as interdependent ecological systems using soil cover, diversity and nutrient recycling. Conventional chemical farming more commonly relies on purchased fertilisers and pesticides as important components of production.
86. Which of these crops is least water-efficient: sugarcane, sunflower, pearl millet and red gram?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2021]
A. Sugarcane
B. Sunflower
C. Pearl millet
D. Red gram
Answer: A. Sugarcane
Explanation: Sugarcane has a comparatively high seasonal water demand and is often cultivated under irrigation. Pearl millet and red gram are better adapted to dry conditions and frequently perform in rainfed regions.
85. Regarding palm oil, consider:
1. Oil palm is native to Southeast Asia;
2. Palm oil is used in cosmetics;
3. Palm oil can produce biodiesel.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2021]
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All three
Answer: B. 2 and 3
Explanation: Oil palm originated in West Africa even though Southeast Asia dominates commercial plantations. Palm oil is used in processed products, personal-care materials and biodiesel, making statements two and three accurate.
84. Which sector withdraws and consumes the greatest share of water in India?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021]
A. Domestic use
B. Hotels
C. Manufacturing
D. Agriculture
Answer: D. Agriculture
Explanation: Agriculture dominates India’s freshwater withdrawals because irrigated cultivation requires substantial water, especially for crops such as rice and sugarcane. Efficient irrigation and suitable crop selection can help reduce pressure on water supplies.
83. e-NAM, introduced in April 2016, is what kind of initiative?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021]
A. Only a domestic company registry
B. An electronic agricultural marketing platform
C. A business-name registration system
D. A general e-commerce portal
Answer: B. An electronic agricultural marketing platform
Explanation: The National Agriculture Market connects participating agricultural markets through an online trading and price-discovery platform. It aims to improve transparency and market access, including for farmers and agricultural traders.
82. Which committee was concerned with agriculture policies and programmes?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021]
A. Charan Singh Committee
B. Ramamurthy Committee
C. Bhanu Pratap Singh Committee
D. Yashpal Committee
Answer: C. Bhanu Pratap Singh Committee
Explanation: The Bhanu Pratap Singh Committee is associated with agricultural policy and reform discussions. The question tests a committee’s subject area rather than a crop fact or farm technology.
81. In which state is slash-and-burn cultivation called Bewar?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021]
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Jharkhand
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
Answer: C. Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Bewar, also called Dahiya in some contexts, refers to shifting or slash-and-burn cultivation in Madhya Pradesh. Regional names such as jhum and podu occur in other parts of India.
80. Which soil is most widespread and intensively used for agriculture in India?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021]
A. Alluvial soil
B. Red soil
C. Desert soil
D. Black soil
Answer: A. Alluvial soil
Explanation: Alluvial soils are extensive in the Indo-Gangetic plains and major river valleys. Their fertility and accessibility to irrigation make them especially important for rice, wheat, sugarcane and various other crops.
79. For what field is the Borlaug Award associated?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021]
A. Sports
B. Cinema
C. Clinical medicine
D. Agriculture and environment
Answer: D. Agriculture and environment
Explanation: Norman Borlaug is associated with improvements in wheat breeding and agricultural productivity. Recognition carrying his name relates to contributions in agriculture, food security and related environmental work.
78. Which institution first used CRISPR-Cas9 to edit the banana genome in a question asked in this railway examination?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021]
A. IASRI New Delhi
B. National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute Mohali
C. IIVR Varanasi
D. IARI New Delhi
Answer: B. National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute Mohali
Explanation: The reported banana genome-editing research is attributed to the National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute in Mohali. CRISPR-Cas9 permits targeted modification of plant DNA, making it relevant to future crop improvement.
77. Which land use is a major human-driven cause of deforestation?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I 2021]
A. Drought
B. Cyclones
C. Volcanoes
D. Agriculture
Answer: D. Agriculture
Explanation: Converting forest into crop fields or grazing land is a major driver of deforestation. Agricultural expansion affects habitats and carbon storage, although natural events and other human land uses also contribute.
76. Which is NOT a general feature of Indian agriculture?
[UPSC NDA 2021]
A. Subsistence cultivation
B. Population pressure on farmland
C. Monsoon dependence
D. Predominance of cash crops
Answer: D. Predominance of cash crops
Explanation: Indian agriculture has long involved subsistence cultivation, dense agricultural employment and rainfall vulnerability. Commercial crops are economically important, but it is inaccurate to say cash crops predominate throughout the entire agricultural system.
75. For which field is agricultural scientist M. S. Swaminathan best known?
[WBCS Mains 2021]
A. Agriculture
B. Medicine
C. Film direction
D. Astrophysics
Answer: A. Agriculture
Explanation: M. S. Swaminathan contributed to crop genetics, agricultural research and the introduction of high-yielding crop varieties in India. His work is particularly associated with increasing foodgrain productivity during the Green Revolution.
74. Which constitute public investment in agriculture:
1. MSP fixation;
2. Computerisation of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies;
3. Social capital;
4. Free electricity;
5. Farm loan waiver;
6. Government cold stores?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1, 2 and 5 only
B. 2, 3 and 6 only
C. 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 4 and 6 only
Answer: B. 2, 3 and 6 only
Explanation: Investment creates enduring productive capacity. Credit-society computerisation, social capital and cold stores improve agricultural systems. MSP announcements, free electricity and loan waivers are support measures but are not equivalent to public capital investment.
73. Which factors can influence rice prices in India:
1. MSP;
2. Government trading;
3. Government stockpiling;
4. Consumer subsidies?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four
Answer: D. All four
Explanation: MSP affects procurement incentives; trading and buffer stocks change market supply. Consumer subsidies influence effective consumer prices and demand. Taken together, all four policies can affect rice price formation.
72. Under Kisan Credit Card, which short-term credit uses are admissible:
1. Maintenance of farm assets;
2. Tractors;
3. Household consumption;
4. Post-harvest expenses;
5. House construction and village cold storage?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1, 2 and 5 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. All five
Answer: B. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: KCC includes seasonal production finance, working capital, post-harvest expenses and limited household consumption needs. Tractors and cold-store construction involve longer-term capital investment, not the specified short-term credit category.
71. About Minimum Support Price, consider:
1. Procurement is unlimited for every cereal, pulse and oilseed in every state;
2. Market prices can never exceed announced MSP.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: D. Neither
Explanation: Not every crop is procured universally or without quantity constraints. MSP is an announced support mechanism, not a ceiling that prevents market prices from moving above it. Therefore both statements fail.
70. Regarding chemical fertilisers:
1. All retail prices are entirely market-driven;
2. Ammonia for urea can come from natural gas;
3. Fertiliser sulphur can come from petroleum refining.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. All three
Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Urea pricing is administered, making the universal market-price claim wrong. Natural gas supplies feedstock for ammonia production, while sulphur recovered from petroleum refining is used in phosphatic fertiliser manufacturing.
69. With reference to pulses, consider:
1. Black gram grows in kharif and rabi;
2. Green gram contributes nearly half of pulses;
3. Rabi pulse output fell over three decades.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. All three
Answer: A. 1 only
Explanation: Black gram can be cultivated in both seasons. Chickpea, rather than green gram, supplies a large share of total pulse production, and rabi pulse output has not followed the decline alleged in the question.
68. Sugarcane cultivation:
1. Nursery bud-chip planting saves seed;
2. Single-budded setts germinate better than multibudded setts when directly planted;
3. Single-budded setts tolerate bad weather better;
4. Tissue-culture settlings are possible.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C. 1 and 4 only
Explanation: Raising bud chips in a nursery can economise on seed cane, and tissue-culture propagation is possible. Larger multibud setts generally establish and survive better than fragile single buds when planted directly.
67. What are benefits of fertigation:
1. Irrigation-water alkalinity can be adjusted;
2. Insoluble rock phosphate can be applied efficiently;
3. Nutrient availability improves;
4. Leaching can decline?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Fertigation supplies soluble fertiliser with irrigation water, permitting precise placement and potentially lower nutrient losses. Rock phosphate is poorly water soluble and is unsuitable for ordinary fertigation systems.
66. Which advantages can zero tillage provide:
1. Sowing wheat without burning prior residues;
2. Direct seeding of paddy without a transplant nursery;
3. Soil carbon sequestration?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. All three
Answer: D. All three
Explanation: Zero tillage avoids repeated ploughing and permits residue retention and direct sowing under suitable conditions. Lower soil disturbance can improve soil organic carbon conservation while reducing preparation time and fuel use.
65. Which materials qualify as biofuel feedstocks under the National Policy on Biofuels:
1. Cassava;
2. Damaged wheat;
3. Groundnut seed;
4. Horse gram;
5. Rotten potatoes;
6. Sugar beet?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
B. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. All six
Answer: A. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
Explanation: The policy permits several sugar- and starch-rich materials, including cassava, damaged food grains, rotten potatoes and sugar beet. Groundnut and horse gram are not included in the specified ethanol-feedstock combination.
64. Which practices qualify as eco-friendly farming in the specified question:
1. Crop diversification;
2. Legume intensification;
3. Tensiometer use;
4. Vertical farming?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2020]
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 only
C. 4 only
D. All four
Answer: D. All four
Explanation: Diversification and legumes support agroecological balance. Tensiometers guide more efficient irrigation scheduling, while vertical production can conserve land and water under suitable systems. Each option offers an environmental efficiency pathway.
63. Which statement accurately describes land reforms in independent India?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2019]
A. Ceiling rules targeted only family holdings
B. A major objective was land for the landless
C. They made cash crops compulsory
D. Ceilings allowed no exemptions
Answer: B. A major objective was land for the landless
Explanation: Land reforms sought a fairer agrarian structure through abolition of intermediaries, tenancy reform and ceilings. Redistribution to landless cultivators was an important social objective, although implementation varied between states.
62. Which commodity accounted for the largest value among India’s agricultural imports during the five years before the 2019 preliminary examination?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2019]
A. Pulses
B. Edible oils
C. Fresh fruits
D. Raw cotton
Answer: B. Edible oils
Explanation: Edible oils represented a particularly large import bill because domestic oilseed and vegetable-oil production did not meet consumption demand. Palm oil and other imported edible oils were significant components of agricultural trade.
61. Which country was the largest rice exporter in the five years preceding the 2019 preliminary examination?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2019]
A. India
B. Thailand
C. Vietnam
D. Myanmar
Answer: A. India
Explanation: India was the world’s leading rice exporter across the relevant period, supplying substantial quantities of basmati and non-basmati varieties. Export volumes nevertheless fluctuate with crop production, domestic policy and international demand.
60. For FCI, economic cost of foodgrains equals MSP and any bonus plus which additional costs?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2019]
A. Transport only
B. Interest only
C. Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
D. Godown rent only
Answer: C. Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
Explanation: Procurement cost includes more than the amount transferred to farmers. Handling, statutory charges, movement and distribution create further costs. These additional expenditures are integral to measuring the food corporation’s economic cost.
59. Consider kharif cropping area in India:
1. Rice occupied the largest area;
2. Jowar area exceeded all oilseeds;
3. Cotton area exceeded sugarcane;
4. Sugarcane area steadily declined.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2019]
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All four
Answer: A. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Rice occupies extensive kharif acreage, and cotton generally covers much more area than sugarcane. Jowar does not exceed total oilseeds acreage, while sugarcane area has not followed a steady uninterrupted decline.
58. Which are major trends in Indian farming:
1. Commercialisation;
2. Diversification;
3. Universal corporatisation?
[RPSC Senior Teacher 2019]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Greater market orientation and diversification into higher-value crops or allied enterprises are visible trends. Corporate organisation exists in some segments but cannot be described as universal corporatisation across Indian farming.
57. Among the following, which approach constitutes conservation agriculture:
1. Avoiding all monoculture;
2. Minimum tillage;
3. Avoiding plantation crops;
4. Residue cover;
5. Crop rotation?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3, 4 and 5
C. 2, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer: C. 2, 4 and 5
Explanation: Conservation agriculture rests on reduced soil disturbance, surface crop cover and crop rotation or diversification. It does not universally prohibit a particular commercial crop category, so statements two, four and five identify its core principles.
56. Which crops among areca nut, barley, coffee, finger millet, groundnut, sesamum and turmeric have officially announced MSP?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
A. Areca, barley, coffee, turmeric
B. Barley, finger millet, groundnut, sesamum
C. Areca, coffee, finger millet, groundnut, sesamum
D. All seven
Answer: B. Barley, finger millet, groundnut, sesamum
Explanation: MSP is announced for a defined crop list including barley, ragi, groundnut and sesamum. Coffee, areca nut and turmeric are not part of the announced MSP basket.
55. Under NPOP organic certification, which statements are correct:
1. It is administered by Rural Development Ministry;
2. APEDA acts as implementation secretariat;
3. Sikkim became the first fully organic state?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: APEDA helps administer the National Programme for Organic Production under the commerce framework, not the Rural Development Ministry. Sikkim is recognised as India’s first fully organic state, making statements two and three correct.
54. Which are correct about edible-oil imports:
1. Imported edible oil quantities exceeded domestic production in the relevant period;
2. No customs duty was charged on any imported edible oil?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: A. 1 only
Explanation: India depended substantially on imports of edible oils. The assertion that every imported edible oil was universally duty-free is incorrect because customs duties are a policy instrument for this market.
53. Which agricultural-household survey statements are correct:
1. Rajasthan had the highest rural share of agricultural households;
2. More than 60% of all were OBC households;
3. Over 60% in Kerala earned most income outside agriculture?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The NSS situation assessment results supported the Rajasthan and Kerala observations. The claimed OBC proportion did not match the relevant data. Farm households often combine agricultural earnings with other livelihood sources.
52. India’s Green Revolution spread through district-level implementation of which schemes?
[WBCS Prelims 2018]
A. Intensive Agricultural District Programme only
B. Intensive Agricultural Area Programme only
C. Both IADP and IAAP
D. Neither programme
Answer: C. Both IADP and IAAP
Explanation: The Intensive Agricultural District Programme and Intensive Agricultural Area Programme were important area-focused approaches in the pre-Green-Revolution and Green Revolution period. They helped concentrate research, credit, modern inputs and extension where quick yield improvements were feasible.
51. Which genetically modified mustard statement was correct:
1. Genes give general pest resistance;
2. Genes enable hybridisation;
3. It was jointly developed by IARI and Punjab Agricultural University?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation: The barnase-barstar system used in GM mustard is principally designed to facilitate hybrid seed production. It was not developed as a general insect-resistance trait, and the claimed institutional pairing was incorrect.
50. What relationship do ILO Conventions 138 and 182 have?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2018]
A. Child labour
B. Climate-smart agriculture
C. World food prices
D. Workplace gender parity only
Answer: A. Child labour
Explanation: Convention 138 concerns minimum age for employment and Convention 182 addresses the worst forms of child labour. Labour standards can have particular significance in agriculture, where informal and family-based work is common.
49. Which was NOT one of India’s immediate post-independence strategies for raising foodgrain production?
[UPSC CDS (General Knowledge) 2018]
A. Intensifying cropping on existing cultivated land
B. Bringing cultivable fallow land under cultivation
C. Use of high-yielding variety seeds
D. Shifting area from cash crops to food crops
Answer: C. Use of high-yielding variety seeds
Explanation: Immediately after independence the emphasis was on extending cultivated area, using existing land more intensively and shifting towards food crops. The major high-yielding seed programme arrived later, during the Green Revolution beginning in the mid-1960s.
48. Which activity belongs to the primary sector of the economy?
[RRB Group D 2018]
A. Banking
B. Education
C. Healthcare
D. Agriculture
Answer: D. Agriculture
Explanation: The primary sector derives output directly from natural resources, encompassing cultivation and related extractive activities. Banking, education and healthcare belong mainly to services, rather than primary production.
47. What are advantages of National Agriculture Market (e-NAM):
1. A pan-India electronic trading portal;
2. Broader market access and quality-linked price discovery?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2017]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither
Answer: C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation: e-NAM links participating regulated markets and facilitates transparent trading and price discovery. It provides agricultural producers and buyers improved access to market information, although physical logistics still matter.
46. The Soil Health Card Scheme seeks:
1. Expanding irrigated area;
2. Determining farmers’ bank loans;
3. Checking overuse of fertilisers.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2017]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: B. 3 only
Explanation: The scheme tests soil and supplies nutrient-management guidance. Better informed application of fertilisers is its objective; irrigation expansion and bank credit sanction are not its essential functions.
45. Which statements about agricultural soils are true:
1. Organic matter markedly lowers water retention;
2. Soil is outside sulphur cycling;
3. Long-term irrigation can cause salinisation?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2017]
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3
D. All three
Answer: B. 3 only
Explanation: Organic matter usually improves soil structure and moisture retention, and soils participate in sulphur cycling. Inadequate drainage under continued irrigation may accumulate soluble salts, harming productivity.
44. From which financial year was the Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation implemented in Chhattisgarh?
[CGPSC Civil Service Prelims 2017]
A. 2012–13
B. 2013–14
C. 2014–15
D. 2015–16
Answer: C. 2014–15
Explanation: The Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation commenced in 2014–15. It supports equipment access, including machinery banks and custom-hiring facilities, particularly for small cultivators who cannot efficiently purchase expensive machinery for their individual fragmented holdings.
43. In WTO discussions of farm support, what do amber box, blue box and green box refer to?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2016]
A. Atmospheric pollutant categories
B. Agricultural domestic-support measures
C. Seed certification grades
D. Food storage grades
Answer: B. Agricultural domestic-support measures
Explanation: The coloured boxes categorise domestic support under WTO agriculture rules. Amber-box measures are potentially trade-distorting, blue-box support meets specified production-limiting conditions, and green-box support is subject to minimal-distortion criteria.
42. About Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana:
1. Every crop in every season carries a uniform 2% farmer premium;
2. Specified post-harvest cyclone and unseasonal rain losses are covered.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2016]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation: PMFBY differentiates premium caps by crop season and category, so a universal two-percent rate is wrong. The scheme includes specified post-harvest losses from notified localised risks such as cyclone and unseasonal rainfall.
41. Why has India promoted neem-coated urea?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2016]
A. It directly fixes atmospheric nitrogen
B. The coating slows urea dissolution and nitrogen loss
C. It removes all nitrous oxide emissions
D. It substitutes for herbicides
Answer: B. The coating slows urea dissolution and nitrogen loss
Explanation: Neem coating slows the conversion and release of nitrogen from urea, improving nutrient-use efficiency. This may reduce losses and discourage diversion of subsidised urea away from farming.
40. Which claims about Intensive Millets Promotion are correct:
1. Demonstration of production and post-harvest technologies;
2. Focus on poor and marginal farmers;
3. Free micro-irrigation input kits to shift every commercial-crop farmer to millets?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2016]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The initiative aimed to demonstrate improved millet production, processing and value addition, with relevance to poor, marginal and tribal farmers. The sweeping claim about free kits for all commercial farmers was not a stated objective.
39. What is the advantage of drip irrigation:
1. Less weed growth;
2. Automatically lower soil salinity;
3. Reduced erosion?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2016]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None
Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Drip systems apply water near roots rather than over whole fields, often limiting weeds and surface runoff. Salinity does not automatically decline, and salt build-up can require careful management.
38. What were Rajasthan’s Twelfth Five-Year Plan growth targets for agriculture, industry and services respectively?
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2016]
A. 3.5%, 8.0%, 9.5%
B. 4.0%, 8.0%, 9.0%
C. 4.0%, 8.5%, 9.0%
D. 3.5%, 8.5%, 9.5%
Answer: A. 3.5%, 8.0%, 9.5%
Explanation: Rajasthan targeted annual sectoral growth of 3.5 percent in agriculture, 8.0 percent in industry and 9.5 percent in services during its Twelfth Plan. The relative targets reflect the challenge of faster service-sector growth than primary production.
37. Who approves the Fair and Remunerative Price of sugarcane?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2015]
A. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
B. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
C. Directorate of Marketing and Inspection
D. Agricultural Produce Market Committee
Answer: A. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Explanation: CACP examines costs and recommends prices, but the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs takes the central decision on Fair and Remunerative Price. The decision becomes a statutory pricing benchmark for sugarcane purchases.
36. Under which law are markets in agricultural products generally regulated in India?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2015]
A. Essential Commodities Act only
B. State Agricultural Produce Market Committee Acts
C. AGMARK rules only
D. Food Products Order only
Answer: B. State Agricultural Produce Market Committee Acts
Explanation: Regulated agricultural markets are generally established under state APMC legislation. Market yards, licensing and charges consequently reflect state law, although central laws affect other aspects of food commodity trade.
35. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme began in 1996–97 to provide direct loans to poor farmers, while Command Area Development began in 1974–75 for efficient water use. Which statement is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2015]
A. First only
B. Second only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: B. Second only
Explanation: AIBP was intended to accelerate the completion of irrigation projects, not principally provide individual loans to poor cultivators. Command Area Development addressed improved utilisation of irrigation potential and water-use efficiency.
34. What is the main objective of the Seed Village concept?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2015]
A. Discourage all purchased seed
B. Train local farmers to produce and distribute quality seed
C. Reserve whole villages only for commercial seed companies
D. Replace all local seed with imported seed
Answer: B. Train local farmers to produce and distribute quality seed
Explanation: Seed Village programmes train selected farmers in quality seed production and local distribution. The goal is timely access to reliable seed at affordable cost, helping maintain productivity and improve seed replacement.
33. What effects can excessive nitrogen fertiliser use cause:
1. More nitrogen-fixing organisms;
2. Soil acidification;
3. Nitrate leaching into groundwater?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2015]
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: C. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Excessive nitrogen application can acidify soils and allow nitrate to leach into groundwater. High available nitrogen does not necessarily stimulate nitrogen fixation; it can actually discourage biological fixation.
32. Seed Replacement Rate improvement faces which constraint:
1. India lacks a National Seeds Policy;
2. Private seed firms do not participate in horticulture;
3. Quality seed demand–supply gaps for low-value, high-volume crops?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2014]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C. 3 only
Explanation: India already had a National Seeds Policy and substantial private-sector involvement. A real challenge remained producing and distributing enough quality seed, particularly for lower-value crops needed in large volumes.
31. Which features of Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative are correct:
1. Lower seed cost;
2. Drip irrigation suits it;
3. It absolutely excludes chemical fertilisers;
4. Greater intercropping scope?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2014]
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All four
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation: The approach uses fewer nursery-grown seedlings, wider spacing and efficient drip watering. Wider rows can support intercropping. It does not require a complete ban on inorganic fertilisers in every circumstance.
30. Why did guar or cluster bean cultivation gain new commercial importance?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2014]
A. Guar gum is used in shale gas hydraulic fracturing
B. Its leaves replace tea exports
C. It is the only source of cane sugar
D. It became the leading wheat substitute
Answer: A. Guar gum is used in shale gas hydraulic fracturing
Explanation: Guar seeds provide guar gum, a thickening agent with industrial uses including oil and gas fracturing fluids. This external demand helped change the economics of a crop traditionally grown for fodder and vegetables.
29. Which ministry mappings for dryland programmes are correct:
drought-prone area—Agriculture;
desert development—Environment;
watershed project for rainfed areas—Rural Development?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2014]
A. First only
B. Second only
C. Third only
D. None of the three
Answer: D. None of the three
Explanation: The Drought-Prone Areas Programme and Desert Development Programme belonged to rural-development administration, while the National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas was with agricultural administration. Thus none of the three proposed ministry pairings matched.
28. Match the agricultural colour revolutions: foodgrain growth, milk, fisheries and fertilisers.
[UPPCS Civil Service 2014]
A. Green, White, Blue, Grey
B. White, Blue, Green, Grey
C. Grey, Green, White, Blue
D. Blue, White, Grey, Green
Answer: A. Green, White, Blue, Grey
Explanation: Green Revolution denotes rising foodgrain productivity, White Revolution relates to milk, Blue Revolution to fisheries and Grey Revolution to fertiliser output. These conventional colour labels are often tested in general studies examinations.
27. Which sugar-industry by-products are useful:
1. Bagasse for power;
2. Molasses as a feedstock for synthetic chemical fertiliser;
3. Molasses for ethanol?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2013]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Bagasse is fibrous cane residue used as boiler fuel and for cogeneration. Molasses is a fermentable by-product used for ethanol. The statement describing molasses as a normal synthetic-fertiliser feedstock is incorrect.
26. Why does India promote Mega Food Parks:
1. Processing infrastructure;
2. Reduced spoilage of perishables;
3. Access to improved food-processing technology?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2011]
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Mega Food Parks seek to connect producers to processing, cold chains and distribution infrastructure. Better aggregation and technology can lower wastage, support value addition and improve the viability of food-processing enterprises.
25. Which institutions have the highest share in agricultural and allied-sector credit disbursements?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2011]
A. Commercial banks
B. Cooperative banks
C. Regional rural banks
D. Moneylenders
Answer: A. Commercial banks
Explanation: Commercial banks have become major formal institutional lenders to agriculture. Their lending covers crop operations as well as allied activities, while cooperative and regional rural banks also retain important roles.
24. Which claims about micro-irrigation are correct:
1. Nutrient loss may decrease;
2. It is the only irrigation method in drylands;
3. It can help arrest groundwater decline in some areas?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2011]
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: B. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Micro-irrigation applies controlled quantities of water and dissolved nutrients near roots, often reducing wastage. It is not the sole possible dryland irrigation method, though efficient use may ease groundwater stress in suitable areas.
23. The National Food Security Mission was initially designed to increase output of which crops?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2010]
A. Rice, wheat and pulses
B. Cotton, coffee and tea
C. Sugarcane, rubber and tobacco
D. Only maize and barley
Answer: A. Rice, wheat and pulses
Explanation: The National Food Security Mission initially focused on rice, wheat and pulses through area expansion and productivity improvements in identified districts. It combined improved inputs, demonstrations and extension support.
22. Consider:
1. The Union Government fixes sugarcane’s statutory minimum price each season;
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2010]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: C. Both
Explanation: At the time of the question, statutory sugarcane pricing and essential-commodity regulation were important central interventions. Later terminology evolved toward Fair and Remunerative Price, so historical questions should be read in their examination-year context.
21. Consider:
1. CACP recommends MSP for 32 crops;
2. National Food Security Mission was launched by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2009]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: D. Neither
Explanation: The numerical MSP claim was not accurate for the cited period, and the National Food Security Mission belonged to agriculture administration rather than the consumer-affairs ministry. The question checks both scheme ownership and pricing institutions.
20. Which matching of commodity boards to headquarters is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2008]
A. Coffee—Bengaluru; Rubber—Kottayam; Tea—Kolkata; Tobacco—Guntur
B. Coffee—Kolkata; Rubber—Bengaluru; Tea—Kottayam; Tobacco—Guntur
C. Coffee—Guntur; Rubber—Kolkata; Tea—Bengaluru; Tobacco—Kottayam
D. Coffee—Kottayam; Rubber—Guntur; Tea—Bengaluru; Tobacco—Kolkata
Answer: A. Coffee—Bengaluru; Rubber—Kottayam; Tea—Kolkata; Tobacco—Guntur
Explanation: India’s commodity boards have specialised headquarters: Coffee Board in Bengaluru, Rubber Board in Kottayam, Tea Board in Kolkata and Tobacco Board in Guntur. They support regulation, research or promotion depending on their mandates.
19. Among these rounded 2008-era data, which were accurate:
1. Per-capita GDP ₹37,000;
2. Rice output 180 million tonnes;
3. Wheat output 75 million tonnes?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2008]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: For the historical question, rounded per-capita GDP of approximately ₹37,000 and wheat output near 75 million tonnes were considered correct. Rice output was closer to 100 million tonnes, not 180 million tonnes. Historical figures must be judged against their examination period.
18. Under Kisan Credit Card insurance provisions, which were true:
1. Loans were covered by a scheme of the Life Insurance Corporation;
2. Personal accident cover included ₹50,000 for death and ₹25,000 for disability?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2004]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation: Kisan Credit Cards were linked to personal accident insurance with the stated historical cover limits. Crop insurance and personal accident insurance are distinct, and the claimed LIC arrangement was not correctly stated.
17. Which is correct about government foodgrain procurement:
1. Purchases always have fixed targets;
2. MSP exists only for cereals;
3. Wheat and rice have uniform central issue prices for states under TPDS?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2004]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C. 3 only
Explanation: Procurement of key grains has included open-ended purchase subject to norms, and MSP extends beyond cereals. Central issue pricing for wheat and rice under the targeted public distribution system explains the correct third statement.
16. Which factors contributed to India’s edible-oil import dependence:
1. Attractive grain support prices;
2. Rainfed oilseed production;
3. Underused nonconventional oil sources;
4. Imports invariably cheaper than domestic growing?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2004]
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. All four
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Support-price incentives favoured cereals, and much oilseed cultivation depended on rainfall. Several unconventional oil sources were underexploited. The blanket assertion that imports were always cheaper was not a valid explanation.
15. Sugar processing:
1. Molasses is a by-product;
2. Bagasse can fuel sugar-factory boilers;
3. Sugar can only be made from sugarcane.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2003]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Molasses remains after sugar crystallisation, and fibrous bagasse supplies steam and electricity in mills. Beet is another sugar source internationally, so sugar production is not restricted exclusively to cane.
14. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission was required for cultivation of genetically modified crops such as Bt cotton, fell under which Union ministry?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2003]
A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Environment and Forests
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: B. Ministry of Environment and Forests
Explanation: The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, subsequently renamed the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee, operated under the environment ministry. Its regulatory role includes appraisal of environmental risks in proposed releases of genetically engineered organisms and crops.
13. Which of these high-yielding crop varieties are wheat: 1. Arjun; 2. Jaya; 3. Padma; 4. Sonalika?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2002]
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. All four
Answer: A. 1 and 4 only
Explanation: Sonalika and Arjun are associated with wheat, whereas Jaya and Padma are rice varieties. Recognising named high-yielding varieties is essential for tracing the technologies of India’s Green Revolution.
12. Which commodity had the highest value among India’s agricultural exports during 1997–98 to 1999–2000?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2002]
A. Rice
B. Tea
C. Coffee
D. Spices
Answer: A. Rice
Explanation: Rice accounted for a major export value in the cited period. Historical export comparisons depend on both traded quantity and unit value, so the correct commodity need not be the crop with greatest domestic production.
11. In which year was the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme introduced to replace the Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2001]
A. 1995–96
B. 1997–98
C. 1999–2000
D. 2002–03
Answer: C. 1999–2000
Explanation: The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme began in the 1999–2000 rabi season, replacing the earlier comprehensive crop-insurance arrangement. It was designed to broaden risk protection for cultivators against crop losses.
10. What is the name of the price at which government agencies buy grain for food distribution and buffer stocks?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2001]
A. Issue price
B. Procurement price
C. Retail price
D. Export parity price
Answer: B. Procurement price
Explanation: Procurement price denotes the amount paid for grains purchased into public stocks. Central issue price, in contrast, refers to the price at which grain is issued for specified public distribution arrangements.
9. Assertion: Australian cattle husbandry is more focused on meat than dairy.
Reason: Australians traditionally consume non-vegetarian diets.
Which relationship is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2000]
A. Both true; reason explains assertion
B. Both true; reason does not fully explain assertion
C. Assertion true, reason false
D. Assertion false, reason true
Answer: B. Both true; reason does not fully explain assertion
Explanation: Australian beef production is prominent, while meat consumption patterns do not fully explain livestock economics. Export markets, grazing landscapes and industry structure are also important determinants of cattle husbandry.
8. Assertion: Insect-resistant transgenic cotton can be obtained by inserting a Bt gene.
Reason: The Bt gene originates from a bacterium.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 1999]
A. Both true; reason explains assertion
B. Both true but unrelated
C. Assertion true, reason false
D. Assertion false, reason true
Answer: A. Both true; reason explains assertion
Explanation: Bt genes originate in the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. Their insecticidal protein can confer resistance to specified insect pests when expressed in genetically engineered cotton, making the bacterial source causally relevant.
7. Which of these agricultural practices is most environmentally friendly?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 1999]
A. Organic farming
B. Shifting cultivation
C. Intensive high-yield monocropping
D. Cultivation only under glasshouses
Answer: A. Organic farming
Explanation: Organic farming relies on ecological nutrient management and avoids many synthetic inputs. While outcomes depend on farm management, it is conventionally identified in this question as the environmentally friendly practice.
6. Which crop is conventionally raised by transplanting seedlings?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 1997]
A. Maize
B. Sorghum
C. Onion
D. Soybean
Answer: C. Onion
Explanation: Onion is commonly raised in nurseries and transplanted to the field. Maize, sorghum and soybean are more often direct-sown, so nursery transplanting distinguishes onion among these options.
5. Which region was a major cotton-producing belt of India?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 1996]
A. Northwest India and Gangetic West Bengal
B. Northwest and western India
C. Western and southern India
D. Northern alluvial plains alone
Answer: C. Western and southern India
Explanation: Cotton traditionally flourished across the black-soil and semi-arid tracts of western and southern India. Soil characteristics, season length and temperature explain the spatial concentration better than northern river plains.
4. Which crop is especially associated with Assam’s Barak Valley?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 1996]
A. Jute
B. Tea
C. Sugarcane
D. Cotton
Answer: B. Tea
Explanation: Tea cultivation extends beyond the Brahmaputra Valley into the Barak Valley region of Assam. Suitable humid conditions and plantation traditions support its importance as a commercial agricultural crop.
3. Which combination of conditions is most suitable for wheat cultivation?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 1996]
A. Moderate temperature with moderate rainfall
B. High temperature with heavy rainfall
C. High temperature with moderate rainfall
D. Low temperature with little rainfall only
Answer: A. Moderate temperature with moderate rainfall
Explanation: Wheat grows best under a relatively cool season and moderate moisture, followed by dry weather at ripening. Very heavy rainfall or intense heat can lower grain development and harvest quality.
2. Which disease caused the historic collapse of coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 1995]
A. Leaf blight
B. Leaf spot
C. Leaf rust
D. Root rot
Answer: C. Leaf rust
Explanation: Coffee leaf rust, caused by Hemileia vastatrix, devastated nineteenth-century Sri Lankan coffee plantations. Tea later became a major plantation crop, illustrating how plant epidemics can transform agricultural economies.
1. Which objectives were associated with the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices:
1. Price stability;
2. Meaningful real income for farmers;
3. Reasonable consumer prices;
4. Guaranteeing the maximum possible farmer price?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 1995]
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All four
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The Commission balances producer incentives with consumer interests and food-system stability. It does not simply seek the highest conceivable price for every producer, since excessive prices can harm consumers and fiscal sustainability.