40. Which of the following scenarios would not require a constitutional amendment under Article 368?
[SSC Selection Post, Graduate Level (18 Sep 2026, Shift 1)]
(A) Formation of a new State
(B) Change in distribution of legislative powers
(C) Change in representation in the Rajya Sabha
(D) Altering High Court jurisdiction
Answer: (A) Formation of a new State
Explanation: Parliament may form a new state under Article 3 through ordinary legislation. Article 4 specifically excludes such laws from the constitutional-amendment procedure in Article 368. However, changes affecting constitutionally entrenched powers or institutional arrangements may require formal constitutional amendments.
39. As of November 2025, Article 1 of the Constitution classifies Indian territory into how many categories?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I (9 May 2026, Shift 1)]
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: (D) Three
Explanation: Article 1(3) identifies three components of Indian territory: territories of the states, territories specified as Union Territories in the First Schedule, and any territory India may acquire. This classification is broader than the constituent states of the Union alone.
38. Who has the power to create new states and alter boundaries of existing states?
[SSC GD Constable (4 May 2026, Shift 1)]
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Supreme Court
(D) President
Answer: (A) Parliament
Explanation: Article 3 grants this legislative authority to Parliament. A reorganisation bill needs the President’s prior recommendation, and affected state legislatures are invited to express their views. Their consent is not compulsory, so the final decision remains with Parliament.
37. Union Territories are administered by:
[SSC GD Constable (29 Apr 2026, Shift 1)]
(A) Parliament
(B) Chief Ministers
(C) Governors
(D) Administrators appointed by the President
Answer: (D) Administrators appointed by the President
Explanation: Under Article 239, the President administers Union Territories through appointed administrators, sometimes designated Lieutenant Governors. Some territories also possess elected legislatures and councils of ministers. Nevertheless, their constitutional administrative framework differs from that of full-fledged states.
36. Under Article 3, which authority can change the boundaries or name of an Indian state?
[Madhya Pradesh Police Sub-Inspector (18 Jan 2026, Shift 2)]
(A) State Legislature only
(B) President acting alone
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Parliament
Answer: (D) Parliament
Explanation: Parliament can change the area, boundary or name of a state by passing a law under Article 3. The President recommends introduction of the bill and seeks the affected legislature’s views. A state legislature cannot veto the proposal.
35. Which Article empowers Parliament to alter state boundaries and form new states?
[SSC CPO (10 Dec 2025, Shift 2)]
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 4
(D) Article 3
Answer: (D) Article 3
Explanation: Article 3 authorises the formation of states, combination or separation of territories, boundary adjustments and renaming. Article 1 describes the Union, Article 2 addresses admission or establishment of new states, and Article 4 concerns consequential changes to schedules.
34. An Indian state can be divided or its boundary altered by which of the following?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I (13 Nov 2025, Shift 2)]
(A) The State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B) Parliament
Explanation: The power belongs to Parliament under Article 3. Such legislation may be passed by a simple majority. The President must recommend the bill and obtain the concerned legislature’s views, but parliamentary action does not depend on state approval.
33. Which subjects relate to Articles 1 to 4 in Part I of the Constitution:
(a) Union and its territory,
(b) Fundamental Rights,
(c) Justice,
(d) Duties?
[MPSC Rajyaseva Prelims (9 Nov 2025)]
(A) Only (b) and (d)
(B) Only (c) and (a)
(C) Only (a)
(D) Only (a) and (b)
Answer: (C) Only (a)
Explanation: Part I contains Articles 1–4, covering India’s name and territory, admission and establishment of states, and reorganisation of existing states. Fundamental Rights belong to Part III, while Fundamental Duties are set out separately in Part IVA.
32. Which of the following provisions is covered by Article 4 of the Constitution?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (23 Jun 2025, Shift 2)]
(A) Emergency provisions
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Financial powers
(D) Laws for reorganisation of states
Answer: (D) Laws for reorganisation of states
Explanation: Article 4 permits consequential changes to the First and Fourth Schedules when laws are made under Articles 2 and 3. Such provisions handle the territorial list and Rajya Sabha representation and are not treated as amendments under Article 368.
31. According to the Constitution, India is a ____________.
[SSC GD Constable (12 Feb 2025, Shift 3)]
(A) Commonwealth of States
(B) Union of States
(C) Federation of States
(D) Confederation of States
Answer: (B) Union of States
Explanation: Article 1 describes India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States. The wording underscores that the Union did not arise from an agreement permitting secession. India operates a federal structure, but its constitutional description deliberately uses “Union”.
30. Which statement appears in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution?
[SSC CGL Tier-I (23 Sep 2024, Shift 1)]
(A) India, that is Bharat, as a federation of states
(B) India, that is Bharat, as a parliamentary democracy
(C) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States
(D) India, that is Bharat, as a presidential democracy
Answer: (C) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States
Explanation: Article 1(1) expressly says “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” This establishes the country’s constitutional name and its collective political character. The phrase does not grant individual states any legal power to leave the Union.
29. Which term for the states was used in the Draft Constitution presented by Dr B. R. Ambedkar on 4 November 1948?
[UPSC CDS-II, General Knowledge (1 Sep 2024)]
(A) Union of States
(B) Federation of States
(C) Autonomous States
(D) Subsidiary States
Answer: (A) Union of States
Explanation: The draft used “Union of States,” later retained in Article 1. Ambedkar explained that the Indian federation was not created by an agreement between sovereign states and that none of its constituent units possessed a right to secede.
28. Which Article was amended by the Constitution (Fifth Amendment) Act, 1955?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I (8 Jul 2024, Shift 3)]
(A) Article 3
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 34
(D) Article 45
Answer: (A) Article 3
Explanation: The Fifth Amendment revised the proviso to Article 3 regarding consultation with an affected state legislature. It enabled the President to specify, and extend, the period within which that legislature could communicate its views on territorial reorganisation proposals.
27. Which Part of the Constitution deals with the Union and its territories?
[SSC GD Constable (22 Feb 2024, Shift 4)]
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part I
Answer: (D) Part I
Explanation: Part I, consisting of Articles 1–4, is titled “The Union and its Territory.” It lays out India’s name and territorial composition and explains how Parliament may admit states, establish new states, or reorganise existing ones.
26. Consider:
(1) India comprises 28 states and 8 Union Territories.
(2) India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic with parliamentary government.
Which statements are correct?
[CGPSC Preliminary Examination, GS Paper I (11 Feb 2024)]
(A) (1) only
(B) (2) only
(C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Neither (1) nor (2)
Answer: (C) Both (1) and (2)
Explanation: Following the territorial changes of 2019 and the merger of two Union Territories in 2020, India has 28 states and eight Union Territories. Its Preamble sets out the republican and democratic ideals, while the Constitution establishes parliamentary government.
25. Sikkim became a full-fledged state of the Union of India in:
[69th BPSC Preliminary Examination (30 Sep 2023)]
(A) 1974
(B) 1975
(C) 1976
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) 1975
Explanation: Sikkim first received associate-state status through the Thirty-fifth Amendment of 1974. The Thirty-sixth Constitutional Amendment in 1975 admitted it as India’s twenty-second state, replacing that interim relationship with full membership of the Union.
24. Which Articles of the Constitution deal with the Union and its territory?
[SSC MTS (11 Sep 2023, Shift 1)]
(A) Articles 5–11
(B) Articles 1–4
(C) Articles 12–35
(D) Articles 36–51
Answer: (B) Articles 1–4
Explanation: Articles 1–4 constitute Part I. They define the Union’s name and territory, parliamentary powers concerning states, and related changes to the First and Fourth Schedules. Articles 5–11, in contrast, deal with citizenship under Part II.
23. Match Part I, Part III, Part IX and Part II with:
(i) Fundamental Rights,
(ii) Panchayati Raj,
(iii) Citizenship,
(iv) Union and its territory.
[MPSC Rajyaseva Prelims (4 Jun 2023)]
(A) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i
(B) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
(C) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv
(D) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
Answer: (D) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
Explanation: Part I governs the Union and its territory; Part III protects Fundamental Rights; Part IX covers Panchayats; and Part II deals with citizenship. The corresponding Article ranges begin at 1, 12, 243 and 5 respectively.
22. A Union Territory is administered by:
[WBCS Mains, Polity and Economy (2023 paper)]
(A) The Governor of the territory
(B) The President of India directly
(C) The President through an administrator called Lieutenant Governor
(D) The Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
Answer: (C) The President through an administrator called Lieutenant Governor
Explanation: Article 239 provides for Union Territory administration by the President through an appointed administrator. The designation may be Lieutenant Governor. Although certain territories have elected governments, that arrangement does not replace the constitutional role of the President’s administrator.
21. The process of formation of the present state of Rajasthan was completed in which year?
[RPSC Senior Teacher Grade II, GK (29 Jan 2023)]
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1956
Answer: (D) 1956
Explanation: Rajasthan’s integration occurred in several phases after independence. Its final territorial shape emerged on 1 November 1956 during the nationwide reorganisation of states. Earlier mergers had created Greater Rajasthan, but further boundary adjustments completed the modern state’s formation.
20. Arrange the following constitutional subjects in sequence:
I. Union and its territory,
II. Fundamental Duties,
III. Citizenship,
IV. Directive Principles of State Policy.
[UPPSC Combined State Examination, GS-I (12 Jun 2022)]
(A) II, IV, I, III
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) III, I, II, IV
(D) IV, II, III, I
Answer: (B) I, III, IV, II
Explanation: The Constitution first addresses the Union and its territory in Part I, then citizenship in Part II. Directive Principles appear in Part IV, while Fundamental Duties were later added as Part IVA. Hence the required order is I–III–IV–II.
19. Who is in charge of a Union Territory in the absence of a Chief Minister?
[RRB Group D (25 Aug 2022, Shift 3)]
(A) Lieutenant Governor
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (A) Lieutenant Governor
Explanation: Union Territories can be administered through a Lieutenant Governor or another administrator appointed by the President. Where no elected Chief Minister exists, executive administration is exercised under this framework. Article 239 supplies the constitutional foundation for such arrangements.
18. Which of the following was the correct number of states and Union Territories in India in 2022?
[UPSC NDA-I, General Ability Test (10 Apr 2022)]
(A) 28 states and 8 Union Territories
(B) 27 states and 9 Union Territories
(C) 30 states and 6 Union Territories
(D) 29 states and 7 Union Territories
Answer: (A) 28 states and 8 Union Territories
Explanation: India had 28 states and eight Union Territories in 2022. Jammu and Kashmir’s reorganisation in 2019 and the 2020 combination of Dadra and Nagar Haveli with Daman and Diu explain the modern count. Territorial figures should always be matched to the question’s date.
17. Arrange the states by formation date:
I. Goa,
II. Telangana,
III. Jharkhand,
IV. Haryana.
[UPPSC Combined State/Upper Subordinate Prelims (2021)]
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) IV, I, III, II
(C) IV, II, III, I
(D) IV, III, I, II
Answer: (B) IV, I, III, II
Explanation: Haryana became a state in 1966, Goa attained statehood in 1987, Jharkhand was created in 2000, and Telangana followed in 2014. Arranging those years from earliest to latest yields Haryana, Goa, Jharkhand and Telangana.
16. For creating a new state or altering state boundaries, consider:
(1) Article 368 amendment is necessary;
(2) half the states must ratify;
(3) simple-majority legislation can be passed.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CDS-I, General Knowledge (7 Feb 2021)]
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation: Article 3 permits state reorganisation by ordinary parliamentary law. Article 4 clarifies that this does not count as a constitutional amendment under Article 368. Consequently, neither the special amendment procedure nor ratification by half the states is required.
15. Which action is NOT possible through a law of Parliament under Article 3?
[UPPSC Civil Services Prelims, GS-I (2020)]
(A) Formation of new states
(B) Alteration of areas of states
(C) Alteration of boundaries of states
(D) Admission of new states
Answer: (D) Admission of new states
Explanation: Article 3 addresses changes involving existing state territory, including new-state formation, boundary modification and renaming. Article 2 separately provides for the admission or establishment of new states in the Union. Distinguishing these two provisions is essential.
14. Consider:
(1) Parliament may increase a state’s area;
(2) diminish its area;
(3) cannot alter its boundary;
(4) cannot alter its name.
Which statements are NOT correct?
[UPSC CDS, General Knowledge (8 Sep 2019)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 4 only
Answer: (C) 3 and 4
Explanation: Article 3 authorises Parliament to increase or reduce a state’s area and also to change its boundaries or name. Statements 3 and 4 wrongly deny these powers. The bill must nevertheless follow the constitutionally specified recommendation-and-consultation procedure.
13. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for formation of a new state?
[SSC CGL (12 Jun 2019, Shift 3)]
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 3
(C) Article 9
(D) Article 2
Answer: (B) Article 3
Explanation: Article 3 governs forming new states by separation or combination of existing territories. Article 1 defines India and its territorial extent, whereas Article 2 deals with admitting or establishing states. Article 9 concerns loss of citizenship on voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship.
12. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Union Territories?
[SSC CHSL (4 Mar 2018, Shift 1)]
(A) Part VI
(B) Part VII
(C) Part VIII
(D) Part IX
Answer: (C) Part VIII
Explanation: Part VIII deals with administration of Union Territories, principally beginning with Article 239. Do not confuse it with Part I, which concerns the Union’s overall territory and state reorganisation. Part VI covers states and Part IX covers Panchayats.
11. Consider:
(1) Every state has equal seats in Rajya Sabha;
(2) a state’s consent is unnecessary to alter its boundaries;
(3) India has no dual citizenship.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CDS, General Knowledge (5 Feb 2017)]
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 only
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Rajya Sabha seats are not distributed equally among states; allocation is specified in the Fourth Schedule. Article 3 does not require state consent for boundary alteration, and the Indian Constitution establishes a single national citizenship rather than separate state citizenships.
10. Which Article of the Constitution defines the name and territory of India?
[WBCS Preliminary Examination (2016)]
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
Answer: (A) Article 1
Explanation: Article 1 names India, also called Bharat, and describes it as a Union of States. It additionally identifies the territory of India as including states, Union Territories and any acquired territories. The next three articles address territorial changes.
9. Which authority is empowered under the Indian Constitution to alter state boundaries?
[UPPSC Mains, General Studies (2015)]
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (A) Parliament
Explanation: Article 3 confers the legislative power on Parliament as a whole, not the Lok Sabha alone. The President recommends the proposal’s introduction and refers it to the concerned state legislature. After consideration, Parliament may enact the alteration.
8. Under which constitutional provision does Parliament have the power to create a new state?
[Chhattisgarh PSC Preliminary Examination (2014)]
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
(E) Article 5
Answer: (C) Article 3
Explanation: Article 3 empowers Parliament to carve a new state from existing state territory or unite territories into a new state. Article 2 concerns admission and establishment, while Article 4 governs consequential schedule adjustments and excludes these laws from Article 368.
7. Which of the following was NOT a Union Territory?
[UPPSC Mains, General Studies (2013)]
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Goa
(D) Puducherry
Answer: (C) Goa
Explanation: Goa became India’s twenty-fifth state on 30 May 1987. The remaining choices were Union Territories when this examination was held in 2013. Daman and Diu subsequently merged administratively with Dadra and Nagar Haveli in 2020.
6. Consider:
(1) Union Territories have no Rajya Sabha representation;
(2) the Chief Election Commissioner decides election disputes;
(3) Parliament comprises only Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Which are correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (2012)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) None
Answer: (D) None
Explanation: Certain Union Territories have Rajya Sabha representation, making statement 1 false. Election disputes fall under the jurisdiction of appropriate courts, not the Chief Election Commissioner. Under Article 79, Parliament consists of the President as well as both Houses.
5. Which statement about forming new states is NOT correct?
[UPPSC Mains, General Studies (2011)]
(A) Parliament may form a new state by law
(B) Such law may amend the First and Fourth Schedules
(C) Such law is deemed an amendment under Article 368
(D) The affected state legislature must be consulted through the prescribed process
Answer: (C) Such law is deemed an amendment under Article 368
Explanation: Article 4 explicitly states that laws enacted under Articles 2 and 3 are not amendments for Article 368 purposes. Parliament can make incidental schedule changes through ordinary legislation. The affected state legislature expresses views, but its approval is not essential.
4. Which is the correct chronological order of the formation of these as full states of the Indian Union?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (2007)]
(A) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(B) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
Answer: (B) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: Nagaland acquired statehood in 1963, Haryana in 1966, Sikkim in 1975 and Arunachal Pradesh in 1987. Ordering these milestones chronologically gives Nagaland, Haryana, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. These dates refer to full statehood, not earlier administrative arrangements.
3. Which Constitutional Amendment integrated Sikkim as a full-fledged state of the Indian Union?
[UPPSC Mains, General Studies (2005)]
(A) 34th Amendment
(B) 35th Amendment
(C) 36th Amendment
(D) 37th Amendment
Answer: (C) 36th Amendment
Explanation: The Thirty-fifth Amendment of 1974 introduced an associate-state arrangement for Sikkim. The Thirty-sixth Amendment of 1975 replaced that arrangement by formally admitting Sikkim as a full-fledged Indian state and introducing special constitutional provisions through Article 371F.
2. How many states and Union Territories resulted from the States Reorganisation Act of 1956?
[MPPSC Preliminary Examination (2004)]
(A) 14 states and 6 Union Territories
(B) 17 states and 6 Union Territories
(C) 14 states and 8 Union Territories
(D) 17 states and 8 Union Territories
Answer: (A) 14 states and 6 Union Territories
Explanation: The large-scale restructuring in 1956 reorganised India into fourteen states and six Union Territories. It followed the States Reorganisation Commission’s work and broadly reflected linguistic considerations, while the Seventh Constitutional Amendment changed the older classification of states.
1. Which Schedule of the Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (2003)]
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Fourth Schedule
Answer: (A) First Schedule
Explanation: The First Schedule lists states and Union Territories together with their territorial descriptions. When Parliament reorganises state boundaries or creates states, corresponding changes may be necessary. The Fourth Schedule, by contrast, allocates representation in the Council of States.