Supreme Court of India

VidyaarOctober 17, 20260203 views

Q150. Which constitutional provision was cited as the source of the Election Commission’s power to conduct Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls?

[RRB Group D, 25 August 2026, Shift 3]

(A) Article 325

(B) Article 326

(D) Article 324

Answer: (D) Article 324

Explanation: Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission. Its scope covers preparation and revision of electoral rolls. The other provisions address voting rights, rolls and Parliament’s powers over election law.

Q149. Which constitutional Article was central to the Supreme Court’s May 2026 ruling on unequal treatment of contractual employees in Assam?

[RRB Group D, 20 August 2026, Shift 1]

(A) Article 14

(B) Article 19

(D) Article 21

Answer: (A) Article 14

Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of laws. Arbitrary differences in employment treatment can invite scrutiny under this provision. It does not automatically make every contractual employee equivalent to a permanent employee.

Q148. In its ruling concerning stray dogs, what interest did the Supreme Court emphasize alongside animal welfare?

[RRB Group D, 18 August 2026, Shift 3]

(A) Protection of private property alone

(B) Public safety and the right to life

(D) Municipal revenue collection

Answer: (B) Public safety and the right to life

Explanation: The question refers to balancing animal welfare with the safety of the public. Article 21 protects life and personal liberty, while animal-protection obligations remain relevant. The constitutional task is balancing legitimate interests, not disregarding either side altogether.

Q147. The Supreme Court linked emergency treatment for trauma victims primarily with which Article?

[RRB Group D, 17 August 2026, Shift 3]

(A) Article 21

(B) Article 11

(D) Article 31

Answer: (A) Article 21

Explanation: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty and is the foundation of decisions recognizing prompt emergency medical treatment. Unreasonable denial or delay can endanger life, making emergency care a constitutional concern rather than merely an administrative service.

Q146. Which three religions are covered by the Scheduled Castes Order, 1950, as amended, for Scheduled Caste status?

[RRB Group D, 12 August 2026, Shift 2]

(A) Hinduism, Jainism and Christianity

(B) Sikhism, Islam and Buddhism

(D) Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism

Answer: (D) Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism

Explanation: Under the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, as subsequently amended, persons professing Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism may meet the religion condition for Scheduled Caste recognition. Other eligibility conditions, including listed communities, also apply.

Q145. The Supreme Court’s consideration of passive euthanasia in the Harish Rana matter chiefly invoked which fundamental right?

[RRB Group D, 10 August 2026, Shift 3]

(A) Article 21

(B) Article 14

(D) Article 32

Answer: (A) Article 21

Explanation: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty. Supreme Court jurisprudence has addressed dignity in dying and carefully regulated withdrawal of futile life support through this provision. Passive euthanasia is legally distinct from actively causing death.

Q144. For which interstate river did the Supreme Court direct establishment of a water-disputes tribunal in a case involving Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?

[RRB Group D, 9 August 2026, Shift 3]

(A) Krishna

(B) Pennaiyar

(D) Cauvery

Answer: (B) Pennaiyar

Explanation: The dispute concerned waters of the Pennaiyar River shared by Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Interstate river disputes may be referred to tribunals under the statutory framework. This is different from the long-standing Cauvery dispute.

Q143. Which Articles empower the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively to issue writs?

[MPSC Group C Mains, 12 July 2026]

(A) Articles 14 and 19

(B) Articles 32 and 226

(D) Articles 39A and 40

Answer: (B) Articles 32 and 226

Explanation: Article 32 provides a constitutional remedy through the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Article 226 confers writ jurisdiction on High Courts, including for other legal rights. The High Court power is therefore broader in subject matter.

Q142. What did the Supreme Court decide on 28 April 2025 about a fresh petition challenging the Waqf (Amendment) Act?

[RRB Group D, 3 February 2026, Shift 2]

(A) Dismiss all existing cases

(B) List the petition for immediate hearing

(D) Decline to entertain the fresh petition

Answer: (D) Decline to entertain the fresh petition

Explanation: The Court declined to entertain that additional petition during ongoing litigation concerning the legislation. The procedural order did not amount to dismissing every challenge or finally deciding the constitutional validity of the statute.

Q141. The Supreme Court’s October 2025 ruling that the public-trust doctrine covers artificial lakes affirmed which High Court bench?

[RRB Group D, 9 January 2026, Shift 2]

(A) Jaipur Bench, Rajasthan High Court

(B) Madurai Bench, Madras High Court

(D) Lucknow Bench, Allahabad High Court

Answer: (C) Nagpur Bench, Bombay High Court

Explanation: The ruling affirmed the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court. The public-trust doctrine treats certain environmental resources as being held for public benefit, limiting arbitrary disposal or destruction merely because a lake is artificial.

Q140. Which Articles were identified in a Supreme Court question as central to the prohibition of manual scavenging and protection of dignity?

[RRB Group D, 8 January 2026, Shift 1]

(A) Articles 12 and 20

(B) Articles 22 and 32

(D) Articles 17 and 21

Answer: (D) Articles 17 and 21

Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability, and Article 21 protects life with dignity. Both are especially relevant to degrading caste-linked sanitation practices. Statutory prohibitions and rehabilitation duties work alongside these constitutional guarantees against exploitation and indignity.

Q139. Which dispute ordinarily falls under the Supreme Court’s exclusive original jurisdiction in Article 131?

[SSC CGL, 16 September 2025, Shift 2]

(A) Dispute over inter-state river waters under a tribunal statute

(B) Dispute about election of an MLA

(D) Appeal against a High Court criminal judgment

Answer: (C) Dispute between the Union and a State involving legal rights

Explanation: Article 131 addresses certain legal disputes involving the Union and States or States inter se. It is an original jurisdiction: the matter starts before the Supreme Court. Statutory exclusions and the nature of legal rights must still be considered.

Q138. Consider:
1. Article 139A deals with transfer of certain cases.
2. It was introduced by the Forty-second Amendment.

Which is correct?

[SSC CGL, 14 September 2025, Shift 1]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (C) Both statements

Explanation: Article 139A empowers the Supreme Court to withdraw or transfer specified cases where common important questions of law arise. The Forty-second Constitutional Amendment, 1976, inserted the provision, allowing more coordinated adjudication of such questions.

Q137. Which Article gives a person the right to directly approach the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 8 September 2025, Shift 1]

(A) Article 32

(B) Article 136

(D) Article 131

Answer: (A) Article 32

Explanation: Article 32 guarantees the right to constitutional remedies before the Supreme Court, including writ relief for Fundamental Rights. Article 226 governs High Court writs, Article 136 special-leave appeals, and Article 131 certain original federal disputes.

Q136. Under Article 130, who may designate a Supreme Court sitting place other than Delhi with the President’s approval?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 4 September 2025, Shift 3]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Parliament

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (D) Chief Justice of India

Explanation: The Supreme Court sits in Delhi unless the Chief Justice of India, with the President’s approval, appoints another place or places. This is a constitutional arrangement under Article 130, not an independent decision of the Cabinet.

Q135. What minimum advocacy experience was stipulated in the Supreme Court’s May 2025 directions for entry-level judicial-service recruitment?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 4 September 2025, Shift 3]

(A) Doctoral qualification in law

(B) Three years at the Bar

(D) Mandatory national recruitment examination

Answer: (B) Three years at the Bar

Explanation: The Court restored a requirement of at least three years of legal practice for entry-level judicial-service candidates, subject to the directions’ application. The aim was to ensure practical courtroom exposure before assuming judicial responsibilities.

Q134. A Supreme Court question about denial of essential services for want of KYC referred primarily to which Article protecting life?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 2 September 2025, Shift 1]

(A) Article 14

(B) Article 21

(D) Article 30

Answer: (B) Article 21

Explanation: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty and has been interpreted to cover aspects of dignity and access to essential conditions of life. Administrative identification requirements cannot be applied in a manner that unjustifiably endangers protected interests.

Q133. What length of legal practice did the Supreme Court prescribe for prospective Civil Judges in its 2025 recruitment directions?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 1 September 2025, Shift 1]

(A) Two years

(B) Four years

(D) Three years

Answer: (D) Three years

Explanation: The Supreme Court directed restoration of a three-year practice requirement for candidates seeking entry to the civil judge cadre. The direction emphasized courtroom experience and professional readiness, although its implementation depends on the governing recruitment framework.

Q132. The Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction under Article 131 concerns which type of dispute?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 21 August 2025, Shift 2]

(A) Ordinary criminal appeal

(B) Dispute between a State and the Union

(D) Disqualification election petition for an MP

Answer: (B) Dispute between a State and the Union

Explanation: Article 131 specifies legal disputes involving the Union and one or more States or disputes between States in certain combinations. It does not generally cover ordinary private lawsuits or routine criminal appeals from lower courts.

Q131. Which Supreme Court case is especially associated with the basic-structure doctrine and the judicial review of amendments?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 20 August 2025, Shift 3]

(A) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

(B) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

(D) I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), a thirteen-judge bench held that Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure. Judicial review operates within this constitutional framework as an important safeguard against unlimited amendment power.

Q130. Who was the Chief Justice of India in May 2025?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 18 August 2025, Shift 1]

(A) D.Y. Chandrachud

(B) B.R. Gavai

(D) N.V. Ramana

Answer: (B) B.R. Gavai

Explanation: Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai became Chief Justice of India on 14 May 2025, succeeding Justice Sanjiv Khanna. The answer is tied to the month in the paper and should not be confused with a later incumbent.

Q129. As decided by the Supreme Court in 2025, how many years of legal practice were required before applying to become a civil judge?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 13 August 2025, Shift 2]

(A) Two years

(B) Three years

(D) Five years

Answer: (B) Three years

Explanation: The requirement refers to three years of practice as an advocate, restored through directions concerning judicial recruitment. Legal practice supplies exposure to evidence, procedure and courtroom administration before a new judge assumes adjudicative duties.

Q128. The Supreme Court called for special courts to speed up trials primarily involving which offences?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 12 August 2025, Shift 2]

(A) Murder generally

(B) Constitutional disputes

(D) Child sexual abuse

Answer: (D) Child sexual abuse

Explanation: Special courts dealing with child sexual offences are intended to reduce delay and protect vulnerable witnesses. Speedy, sensitive trials support both fair-process requirements and the child-protection objectives underlying the statutory framework.

Q127. What direction was associated with the Supreme Court’s decision involving land of Kamla Nehru Memorial Trust?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 8 August 2025, Shift 1]

(A) Cancellation of the disputed allotment

(B) Grant of land as an alternative

(D) Confirmation of the disputed allotment

Answer: (A) Cancellation of the disputed allotment

Explanation: The question concerns the Court’s direction to cancel the contested allotment. Judicial scrutiny of government land allotments examines compliance with public purpose, lawful procedure and equality, rather than assuming every administrative grant is beyond review.

Q126. When can the Supreme Court ordinarily issue a writ under Article 32?

[RRB NTPC Graduate, 20 June 2025, Shift 2]

(A) For any ordinary contract dispute

(B) Whenever a district court refuses relief

(D) Only on a reference from the President

Answer: (C) When a Fundamental Right is infringed

Explanation: Article 32 specifically guarantees enforcement of Fundamental Rights before the Supreme Court. Infringement of an ordinary statutory right alone normally requires another appropriate forum; High Courts may exercise broader authority under Article 226.

Q125. Which institution served as the highest court of appeal for British India before the Supreme Court of India?

[RRB NTPC Graduate, 12 June 2025, Shift 2]

(A) Federal Court of India alone

(B) British House of Commons

(D) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in London

Answer: (D) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in London

Explanation: The Judicial Committee of the Privy Council was the final appellate authority for much of British India. After independence, Privy Council appeals ended and the Supreme Court of India began functioning in 1950 as the apex judicial institution.

Q124. Why is the Supreme Court described as the sentinel on the qui vive?

[RRB NTPC Graduate, 9 June 2025, Shift 2]

(A) It protects Fundamental Rights

(B) It directs foreign policy

(D) It fixes tax rates

Answer: (A) It protects Fundamental Rights

Explanation: The expression describes an alert guardian. The Supreme Court protects constitutional limitations and Fundamental Rights through judicial review and remedies. It does not become the executive authority for foreign affairs or the legislature for taxation.

Q123. Which pair of government directions on retrospective environmental clearance was discussed in the Supreme Court?

[RRB Group D, 12 December 2025, Shift 1]

(A) 2006 and 2011 directions

(B) 2012 and 2014 directions

(D) 2009 and 2015 directions

Explanation: The question points to executive measures issued in 2017 and 2021 concerning retrospective environmental clearances. Court review examined their legal validity against environmental protection duties and requirements for prior appraisal of projects.

Q122. What was the Supreme Court’s May 2025 position on granting environmental clearances retrospectively?

[RRB Group D, 2 December 2025, Shift 2]

(A) Such retrospective approvals were impermissible

(B) They were automatically valid

(D) They required no public hearing in any case

Answer: (A) Such retrospective approvals were impermissible

Explanation: The issue was whether projects could regularize missing prior environmental approval after commencing activities. The Court’s relevant May 2025 ruling rejected the impugned retrospective-clearance approach, emphasizing compliance before environmental harm occurs.

Q121. The Supreme Court’s April 2025 ruling on gubernatorial assent involved pending legislation from which State?

[RRB Group D, 2 December 2025, Shift 2]

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Telangana

Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: The matter arose from Tamil Nadu’s dispute over Bills submitted to the Governor for assent. The Court examined constitutional duties in processing legislative measures and the significance of avoiding indefinite delay by constitutional authorities.

Q120. In the environmental-clearance litigation, which two years corresponded to the government office memoranda scrutinized by the Supreme Court?

[RRB Group D, 27 November 2025, Shift 1]

(A) 2006 and 2011

(B) 2012 and 2014

(D) 2009 and 2015

Explanation: The cited memoranda were issued in 2017 and 2021, addressing retrospective or ex-post-facto environmental approvals. Judicial examination turned on consistency with environmental law and the preventive purpose of prior environmental impact assessments.

Q119. Which of these constituted the proposed National Judicial Appointments Commission:
CJI,
two senior Supreme Court judges,
Union Law Minister
two eminent persons

[CGPSC Prelims, 9 February 2025]

(A) CJI and Law Minister only

(B) Two judges and eminent persons only

(D) All the listed categories

Answer: (D) All the listed categories

Explanation: The Ninety-ninth Amendment proposed the NJAC with the Chief Justice, two senior judges, Law Minister and two eminent persons. The Supreme Court invalidated that amendment in 2015 for violating judicial independence under the basic structure.

Q118. Which Article was called the “heart and soul” of the Constitution by B.R. Ambedkar?

[CGPSC Prelims, 9 February 2025]

(A) Article 32

(B) Article 14

(D) Article 19

Answer: (A) Article 32

Explanation: Ambedkar used that phrase for Article 32 because it guarantees access to the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Without an effective constitutional remedy, many substantive rights would be difficult to vindicate against unlawful state action.

Q117. Consider:
1. India’s Parliament is legally sovereign without constitutional limits.
2. The Supreme Court may invalidate unconstitutional legislation.

Which is correct?

[UKPSC Lower PCS, 11 May 2025]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (B) Statement 2 only

Explanation: Unlike the British doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty, Indian legislation is limited by the Constitution. The Supreme Court may apply judicial review to invalidate laws that violate constitutional provisions. Parliament remains powerful but is not constitutionally unlimited.

Q116. On which date did the Constitution of India establish the Supreme Court?

[Punjab Police Constable, 10 June 2025]

(A) 15 August 1947

(B) 26 January 1947

(D) 15 August 1950

Answer: (C) 26 January 1950

Explanation: The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, when the Supreme Court was constitutionally established. Its formal inauguration occurred on 28 January 1950. Distinguishing establishment from inauguration prevents confusion between these two dates.

Q115. Which city housed the first Supreme Court created under the British colonial constitutional framework in India?

[Telangana High Court Field Assistant, 20 April 2025]

(A) Madras

(B) Bombay

(D) Delhi

Answer: (C) Calcutta

Explanation: The Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William in Calcutta was established under the Regulating Act framework, beginning work in 1774. This colonial court was separate from the modern Supreme Court created under the Constitution in 1950.

Q114. By what common designation is the Supreme Court of India described?

[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Prelims, 31 October 2025]

(A) People’s Court

(B) Legal Court

(D) Sessions Court

Answer: (C) Apex Court

Explanation: The Supreme Court is the apex court of the integrated Indian judicial system. It exercises original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions, besides protecting constitutional rights. Sessions Courts operate at a different, subordinate judicial level.

Q113. A writ of prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court to whom?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2024]

(A) A government officer to stop performing public duty

(B) Parliament to restrain legislative debate

(D) The Government to halt an entire policy

Answer: (C) A lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction

Explanation: Prohibition is a supervisory writ directing a lower court or tribunal not to continue proceedings beyond its lawful jurisdiction. Unlike certiorari, which may quash a completed order, prohibition primarily operates preventively before an unlawful determination is made.

Q112. Which organization was associated with litigation challenging the criminalization of consensual same-sex relations under Section 377?

[UPSC CDS (II) 2024]

(A) Naz Foundation

(B) Bachpan Bachao Andolan

(D) Association for Democratic Reforms

Answer: (A) Naz Foundation

Explanation: Naz Foundation initiated important legal proceedings contesting Section 377’s application to consensual adult relationships. Later Supreme Court decisions, especially Navtej Singh Johar (2018), protected consensual same-sex intimacy under constitutional guarantees of dignity, privacy and equality.

Q111. Which Article was described by B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

[UPSC CDS (I) 2024]

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 21

(D) Article 32

Answer: (D) Article 32

Explanation: Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right, enabling direct access to the Supreme Court for enforcing other Fundamental Rights. Ambedkar stressed that constitutional remedies make rights meaningful when governments or authorities unlawfully violate them.

Q110. Who was the petitioner in the Supreme Court case that established privacy as a Fundamental Right in 2017?

[UPSC CDS (I) 2024]

(A) P.N. Bhagwati

(B) R.F. Nariman

(D) Anil R. Dave

Answer: (C) K.S. Puttaswamy

Explanation: Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (retired) brought the petition leading to the nine-judge bench judgment in 2017. The Supreme Court unanimously recognized privacy as constitutionally protected, rooted chiefly in Article 21 and related liberties.

Q109. How many Supreme Court judges other than the Chief Justice could be appointed under the sanctioned strength in 2024?

[SSC CPO, 28 June 2024, Shift 2]

(A) 35

(B) 33

(D) 28

Answer: (B) 33

Explanation: The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019, raised the sanctioned strength to 33 judges besides the Chief Justice. Thus the total sanctioned strength became 34, regardless of the number of vacancies at any moment.

Q108. What was the maximum sanctioned number of Supreme Court judges, excluding the Chief Justice, in 2024?

[SSC CGL, 13 September 2024, Shift 1]

(A) 37

(B) 35

(D) 33

Answer: (D) 33

Explanation: The amended statutory ceiling comprises 33 puisne judges plus the Chief Justice, making 34 seats in all. The maximum sanctioned number differs from the actual sitting strength, which can be smaller if posts remain vacant.

Q107. The Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction under Article 131 includes which matter?

[SSC CHSL Tier-II, 18 November 2024]

(A) Ordinary divorce proceedings

(B) First appeal from a subordinate court

(D) All private property disputes

Answer: (C) Certain disputes between the Union and States

Explanation: Qualifying federal disputes concerning legal rights may be instituted directly in the Supreme Court under Article 131. This original jurisdiction differs from the Court’s appellate powers and does not cover routine private civil suits.

Q106. Which court stated that there cannot be separate justice systems for the rich and the poor?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 9 July 2024, Shift 1]

(A) Kerala High Court

(B) Himachal Pradesh High Court

(D) Gujarat High Court

Answer: (C) Supreme Court of India

Explanation: The examination refers to the Supreme Court’s insistence on equal access to justice. Article 14 protects equality, while Article 39A directs the State to promote equal justice and free legal aid for those facing economic barriers.

Q105. Which of the following is NOT part of the Union Executive?

[SSC Selection Post, 24 June 2024, Shift 2]

(A) President of India

(B) Council of Ministers

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (C) Supreme Court

Explanation: The Union Executive includes the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers and Attorney General in the constitutional scheme. The Supreme Court belongs to the judiciary and must remain institutionally independent of executive control.

Q104. Who determines the salaries of Supreme Court judges through legislation?

[SSC GD Constable, 24 February 2024, Shift 4]

(A) President

(B) Parliament

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (B) Parliament

Explanation: Parliament determines judicial salaries by law, subject to constitutional safeguards. Judges’ pay and service conditions are protected against disadvantageous changes after appointment, helping secure judicial independence from executive pressure.

Q103. Which institution is the highest judicial court in India?

[SSC MTS, 11 November 2024, Shift 2]

(A) District Court

(B) Supreme Court

(D) Parliament

Answer: (B) Supreme Court

Explanation: The Supreme Court stands at the apex of India’s integrated judicial hierarchy. Parliament is the national legislature, while High Courts supervise their respective jurisdictions and District Courts function at a subordinate level.

Q102. Which Article chiefly provides for the establishment and constitution of India’s Supreme Court?

[SSC Selection Post, 24 June 2024, Shift 3]

(A) Article 123

(B) Article 121

(D) Article 124

Answer: (D) Article 124

Explanation: Article 124 establishes the Supreme Court and governs core matters concerning its composition and appointment of judges. Articles 121 and 122 concern parliamentary proceedings, while Article 123 authorizes presidential ordinances.

Q101. Which Article grants the Supreme Court original writ jurisdiction for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

[SSC GD Constable, 23 February 2024, Shift 1]

(A) Article 31

(B) Article 226

(D) Article 32

Answer: (D) Article 32

Explanation: Article 32 provides direct Supreme Court remedies for infringement of Fundamental Rights. Article 226 gives High Courts their own, wider writ jurisdiction. Article 13 deals with laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights, not direct access to the Supreme Court.

Q100. Which judgment famously established the basic-structure limitation on Parliament’s constitutional amendment power?

[SSC MTS, 21 October 2024, Shift 1]

(A) Kesavananda Bharati case

(B) Maneka Gandhi case

(D) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain case

Answer: (A) Kesavananda Bharati case

Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) established that Article 368 does not empower Parliament to destroy the Constitution’s basic structure. Subsequent decisions applied and developed the principle to protect essential constitutional features.

Q99. Under which Article is the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on every court in India?

[SSC CPO, 27 June 2024, Shift 2]

(A) Article 147

(B) Article 137

(D) Article 151

Answer: (C) Article 141

Explanation: Article 141 makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding upon all courts within India. It promotes uniform interpretation and judicial consistency. Article 137 separately empowers the Court to review its own judgments.

Q98. Justice Prashant Kumar Mishra and K.V. Viswanathan were appointed as judges of which court in May 2023?

[SSC GD Constable, 7 March 2024, Shift 4]

(A) Civil Court

(B) Supreme Court

(D) High Court

Answer: (B) Supreme Court

Explanation: Both were appointed to the Supreme Court in May 2023. The question checks awareness of judicial appointments, which occur under the constitutional provisions governing the apex court and the established consultation process.

Q97. Which task is NOT ordinarily a function of the Supreme Court?

[SSC MTS, 17 October 2024, Shift 1]

(A) Review of executive constitutionality

(B) Settlement of federal disputes

(D) Protection of Fundamental Rights

Answer: (C) Maintaining land revenue records

Explanation: Land revenue records are maintained by relevant revenue departments, not the judiciary. The Supreme Court may adjudicate legal challenges involving such records but does not administer their day-to-day creation, correction or storage.

Q96. Which writ prevents a lower court or tribunal from acting outside its jurisdiction?

[SSC MTS, 13 November 2024, Shift 3]

(A) Prohibition

(B) Mandamus

(D) Quo Warranto

Answer: (A) Prohibition

Explanation: A writ of prohibition restrains a judicial or quasi-judicial authority from proceeding without jurisdiction or beyond lawful limits. Mandamus compels public duty, habeas corpus addresses unlawful detention, and quo warranto tests legal entitlement to public office.

Q95. Which of these Indian constitutional arrangements is commonly linked to the American model?

[SSC MTS, 9 October 2024, Shift 2]

(A) Procedure for removing Supreme Court judges

(B) British-style parliamentary privileges

(D) Parliamentary executive responsibility

Answer: (A) Procedure for removing Supreme Court judges

Explanation: India borrowed aspects of judicial independence and the removal procedure for superior-court judges from the American constitutional tradition. By contrast, cabinet responsibility and parliamentary institutions were strongly influenced by Westminster practice.

Q94. Who appoints an acting Chief Justice of India under Article 126?

[SSC MTS, 23 October 2024, Shift 3]

(A) President of India

(B) Senior-most available judge automatically

(D) Council of Ministers

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: Article 126 authorizes the President to appoint a Supreme Court judge to perform Chief Justice duties when the office is vacant or its holder is unable to act. Seniority is a convention but does not replace the constitutional appointment power.

Q93. Which Article concerns the salary and allowances of judges of the Supreme Court?

[SSC MTS, 16 October 2024, Shift 2]

(A) Article 125

(B) Article 127

(D) Article 126

Answer: (A) Article 125

Explanation: Article 125 addresses Supreme Court judges’ salaries, allowances and related entitlements. Parliament may prescribe them by law within constitutional safeguards. Article 124 instead addresses the Court’s establishment, membership and judicial appointment conditions.

Q92. In which year was the first motion seeking removal of a Supreme Court judge admitted in Parliament?

[SSC MTS, 15 October 2024, Shift 2]

(A) 1991

(B) 1988

(D) 1995

Answer: (A) 1991

Explanation: The first such motion concerned Justice V. Ramaswami and was admitted in 1991. The removal motion subsequently failed in the Lok Sabha in 1993. The episode illustrates the demanding constitutional safeguards around judicial removal.

Q91. Under which Article has the Supreme Court exercised power to dissolve marriage on grounds of irretrievable breakdown?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 8 July 2024, Shift 3]

(A) Article 142

(B) Article 136

(D) Article 32

Answer: (A) Article 142

Explanation: Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to make orders necessary for complete justice in a pending cause or matter. A Constitution Bench recognized its use to dissolve certain marriages on irretrievable-breakdown grounds, subject to careful safeguards.

Q90. Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first Indian woman to achieve which distinction?

[CGPSC Prelims, 11 February 2024]

(A) Climb Mount Everest

(B) Become a Supreme Court judge

(D) Preside over the Lok Sabha

Answer: (B) Become a Supreme Court judge

Explanation: Justice M. Fathima Beevi became the first woman judge of the Supreme Court in 1989. Her appointment was a significant milestone for women in the higher judiciary; she later served as Governor of Tamil Nadu.

Q89. Who is the Union Government’s chief legal adviser and primary law officer before the Supreme Court?

[CGPSC Prelims, 11 February 2024]

(A) Solicitor General

(B) Chief Justice of India

(D) None of these

Answer: (D) None of these

Explanation: The Attorney General of India is the government’s chief legal adviser under Article 76, and that office was missing from the listed options. The Solicitor General assists in legal representation but is not the constitutional Attorney General.

Q88. Which of these participate in selection of the Lokpal:
1. CJI or nominated Supreme Court judge;
2. Rajya Sabha Chairman;
3. Lok Sabha Speaker;
4. Lok Sabha Opposition Leader?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024]

(A) 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: The Lokpal selection committee includes the Chief Justice of India or a judge nominated by the CJI, together with the Lok Sabha Speaker and Opposition Leader, among others. The Rajya Sabha Chairman is not a member.

Q87. About Justice Fathima Beevi:
1. First woman Supreme Court judge;
2. Governor of Kerala in 1997–2001;
3. First Muslim woman in India’s higher judiciary.

Which are correct?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024]

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) 1 and 3

Explanation: Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court and an important pioneer for Muslim women in the higher judiciary. She served as Governor of Tamil Nadu, not Kerala, making the second statement incorrect.

Q86. Consider: 1. The Supreme Court may issue habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto to enforce Fundamental Rights. 2. Parliament may empower another court to exercise these powers. Which is correct?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims, 14 May 2023]

(A) Neither statement

(B) Statement 1 only

(D) Both statements

Answer: (D) Both statements

Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue appropriate writs for enforcing Fundamental Rights. Under Article 32(3), Parliament may confer such powers upon other courts within their jurisdiction, without removing the Supreme Court’s own authority.

Q85. A Supreme Court judge who wishes to resign must address the resignation to whom?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims, 14 May 2023]

(A) President of India

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Senior-most Supreme Court judge

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: Article 124(2) provides that a Supreme Court judge may resign by writing under their hand addressed to the President. This constitutional route differs from the stringent parliamentary process required for involuntary removal.

Q84. If the Supreme Court declares an election to the office of Vice-President void, are the office-holder’s prior official acts invalidated?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims, 14 May 2023]

(A) All past acts are invalidated

(B) Acts completed on or before judgment remain valid

(D) No acts enjoy protection

Answer: (B) Acts completed on or before judgment remain valid

Explanation: Article 71 protects official acts performed on or before the date of the Supreme Court’s decision invalidating a presidential or vice-presidential election. The purpose is legal continuity and protection of completed public administration.

Q83. Consider:
1. The Attorney General must possess qualifications for appointment as a Supreme Court judge.
2. The Attorney General is removed by the same process as a Supreme Court judge.

Which is correct?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims, 14 May 2023]

(A) Both statements

(B) Neither statement

(D) Statement 1 only

Answer: (D) Statement 1 only

Explanation: Article 76 requires the Attorney General to be qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court judge. However, the Attorney General holds office during the President’s pleasure and is not removed using the parliamentary process applicable to judges.

Q82. Which statement about the procedure for removing a Supreme Court judge is incorrect?

[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandants 2023]

(A) The notice must be signed by at least 100 members in both Houses together

(B) An inquiry committee examines the charges

(D) The President issues the removal order

Answer: (A) The notice must be signed by at least 100 members in both Houses together

Explanation: A removal motion requires notices signed by at least 100 Lok Sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members, not a combined minimum of 100 members in both Houses. Subsequent investigation and parliamentary voting follow statutory and constitutional safeguards.

Q81. In which judgment did the Supreme Court hold that constitutional amendments infringing Fundamental Rights were invalid?

[WBCS Mains, Polity and Economy, 2023]

(A) S.R. Bommai

(B) Kesavananda Bharati

(D) Minerva Mills

Answer: (C) Golaknath

Explanation: I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights under the interpretation then adopted. Kesavananda Bharati later developed the basic-structure doctrine and modified the earlier legal position.

Q80. Under which Article is the law declared by the Supreme Court binding upon all courts in India?

[WBCS Mains, Polity and Economy, 2023]

(A) Article 131

(B) Article 141

(D) Article 143

Answer: (B) Article 141

Explanation: Article 141 gives precedential authority to the law declared by the Supreme Court. Article 142 provides complete-justice powers, Article 143 advisory reference jurisdiction, and Article 131 covers certain original interstate or Union–State disputes.

Q79. Which of these are associated with the Supreme Court: the collegium system, appellate jurisdiction and original jurisdiction?

[BPSC 68th Prelims, 12 February 2023]

(A) Collegium only

(B) Appellate jurisdiction only

(D) More than one of these

Answer: (D) More than one of these

Explanation: The Supreme Court exercises original and appellate jurisdictions, and the collegium system concerns judicial appointments. Thus more than one listed feature applies. The Court also has advisory and review powers within the constitutional structure.

Q78. Which Supreme Court judgment recognized the right of persons with disabilities to reservation in promotion in the relevant case?

[SSC CGL Tier-II, 26 October 2023]

(A) Indra Sawhney case

(B) Rajeev Gupta case

(D) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas

Answer: (C) State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph

Explanation: The Court’s decision in State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph addressed reservation in promotion for persons with disabilities. Disability-based accommodations and safeguards are not simply identical to the rules governing caste-based promotional reservation.

Q77. When did the Supreme Court of India come into existence constitutionally?

[SSC CGL Tier-II, 26 October 2023]

(A) 30 January 1935

(B) 26 January 1950

(D) 2 October 1952

Answer: (B) 26 January 1950

Explanation: The Supreme Court was constituted when the Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950, and its inauguration followed two days later. The Federal Court and Privy Council had served distinct earlier judicial functions.

Q76. Which Article states that Supreme Court judgments declaring law bind all courts within India?

[SSC CGL Tier-II, 26 October 2023]

(A) Article 143

(B) Article 142

(D) Article 141

Answer: (D) Article 141

Explanation: Article 141 establishes the binding force of Supreme Court declarations of law. Article 144 obliges all civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court; these related provisions serve different constitutional purposes.

Q75. Which Supreme Court judge recused himself from hearing litigation regarding extension of the Enforcement Directorate Director’s tenure?

[SSC CGL Tier-II, 26 October 2023]

(A) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud

(B) Justice B.R. Gavai

(D) Justice A.S. Bopanna

Answer: (C) Justice S.K. Kaul

Explanation: Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul was associated with recusal in the relevant proceedings. Judicial recusal is meant to protect actual and apparent impartiality, allowing litigants to have confidence in a fair and independent hearing.

Q74. Which Article enables the Supreme Court to pass a decree for complete justice, including dissolution of a marriage in exceptional circumstances?

[SSC CHSL Tier-II, 26 June 2023]

(A) Article 142(1)

(B) Article 132(1)

(D) Article 152(1)

Answer: (A) Article 142(1)

Explanation: Article 142(1) permits necessary orders for complete justice in a matter before the Supreme Court. Its use in matrimonial cases recognizes exceptional relief, but does not automatically transform ordinary divorce law for every trial court.

Q73. On which date was the modern Supreme Court of India established?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 24 July 2023, Shift 2]

(A) 30 January 1935

(B) 26 January 1950

(D) 2 October 1952

Answer: (B) 26 January 1950

Explanation: The Court came into existence under the Constitution on Republic Day, 26 January 1950. Its formal inaugural sitting occurred on 28 January 1950, an often-tested distinction in Indian judiciary questions.

Q72. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 25 July 2023, Shift 3]

(A) Article 138

(B) Article 135

(D) Article 137

Answer: (D) Article 137

Explanation: Article 137 expressly allows the Supreme Court to review its judgments or orders, subject to law and applicable procedural rules. Review is narrower than an ordinary appeal; it is not a general opportunity to reargue all issues.

Q71. Which retired Supreme Court judge was appointed chairperson of the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre in 2023?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 14 August 2023, Shift 4]

(A) Justice S.K. Kaul

(B) Justice Hemant Gupta

(D) Justice Ajay Rastogi

Answer: (B) Justice Hemant Gupta

Explanation: Justice Hemant Gupta, a retired Supreme Court judge, was appointed chairperson of the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre. The question tests a judicial appointment after retirement rather than a constitutional limit on sitting judges.

Q70. Which Article specifies Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court of India?

[SSC MTS 2022, held 12 May 2023]

(A) Article 132

(B) Article 131

(D) Article 129

Answer: (C) Article 130

Explanation: Article 130 fixes Delhi as the Supreme Court’s seat while allowing other places to be appointed by the Chief Justice with presidential approval. Article 129 recognizes the Court as a court of record.

Q69. Which judge of the Supreme Court stepped aside from a hearing concerning the Enforcement Directorate chief’s tenure?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 25 July 2023, Shift 1]

(A) Justice U.U. Lalit

(B) Justice K.M. Joseph

(D) Justice S. Ravindra Bhat

Answer: (C) Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul

Explanation: The relevant judge was Justice S.K. Kaul. Recusal serves judicial impartiality by preventing circumstances that may create reasonable doubt about a judge’s ability to determine a case independently and without conflicting interests.

Q68. The principle that law declared by the Supreme Court binds courts throughout India is found in which Article?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 21 July 2023, Shift 2]

(A) Article 141

(B) Article 140

(D) Article 143

Answer: (A) Article 141

Explanation: Article 141 ensures that binding Supreme Court precedents provide uniform legal guidance to subordinate courts and High Courts. It should be distinguished from Article 142, which supplies the Court’s complete-justice jurisdiction.

Q67. Who fixes salaries of Supreme Court judges by law?

[RPSC Executive Officer–Revenue Officer, 14 May 2023, Shift 2]

(A) Governor

(B) Election Commission

(D) Parliament

Answer: (D) Parliament

Explanation: Supreme Court judges’ remuneration is prescribed through parliamentary legislation, subject to constitutional guarantees that protect judicial independence. State Governors and Chief Ministers do not have authority to determine salaries of judges of the national apex court.

Q66. Which country’s Chief Justice attended India’s Supreme Court seventy-third Foundation Day celebrations as chief guest?

[RPSC Executive Officer–Revenue Officer, 14 May 2023, Shift 2]

(A) Maldives

(B) South Africa

(D) Singapore

Answer: (D) Singapore

Explanation: Chief Justice Sundaresh Menon of Singapore attended the Supreme Court of India’s seventy-third anniversary celebrations in 2023. The event reflects institutional dialogue between courts, but the Chief Justice of Singapore has no judicial authority within India.

Q65. Which statement about the Supreme Court’s Maneka Gandhi judgment is INCORRECT?

[RPSC Rajasthan Administrative Service Prelims 2023]

(A) It places the burden entirely on the petitioner to show unfair procedure

(B) It connects Articles 14, 19 and 21

(D) It expanded protections for personal liberty

Answer: (A) It places the burden entirely on the petitioner to show unfair procedure

Explanation: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) rejected a narrow formal reading of Article 21. The Court required procedures affecting liberty to be fair, just and reasonable and linked equality, freedoms and due process.

Q64. Which Supreme Court case concerned juvenile justice in the State of Madhya Pradesh?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 17 July 2023, Shift 2]

(A) Maneka Gandhi case

(B) Vishaka case

(D) Devilal v. State of Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (D) Devilal v. State of Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: The listed case was Devilal v. State of Madhya Pradesh. Juvenile-justice jurisprudence focuses on the offender’s age at the relevant time, lawful procedure, and safeguards for children within the criminal justice system.

Q63. In which case did the Supreme Court affirm that consenting adults may marry without family approval?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 21 July 2023, Shift 1]

(A) Lata Singh v. State of U.P.

(B) Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M.

(D) Laxmibai Chandaragi B. v. State of Karnataka

Answer: (D) Laxmibai Chandaragi B. v. State of Karnataka

Explanation: The decision in Laxmibai Chandaragi emphasized the freedom of adults to choose a spouse and rejected coercive family interference. That choice is protected by personal liberty and decisional autonomy within Article 21.

Q62. Which Supreme Court case addressed reservation in promotion for employees with disabilities?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 17 July 2023, Shift 3]

(A) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

(B) Rajeev Gupta v. Union of India

(D) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas

Answer: (C) State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph

Explanation: Leesamma Joseph clarified legal protections concerning promotion of employees with disabilities. The Court distinguished disability rights from frameworks that may govern reservation based on social categories, reinforcing equal access and reasonable accommodation.

Q61. The Supreme Court stayed or disallowed OBC reservation in local-body elections in which pair of States?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 18 July 2023, Shift 1]

(A) Gujarat and Rajasthan

(B) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh

(D) Odisha and Bihar

Answer: (B) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: The question referred to litigation over OBC reservations in local self-government elections in Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. The Court emphasized data and procedural conditions, including the triple-test framework, before applying such quotas.

Q60. Which constitutional provision related to cooperative societies was struck down in part by the Supreme Court?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 17 July 2023, Shift 1]

(A) Part IVA

(B) Part IXA

(D) Part XI

Answer: (C) Part IXB

Explanation: The Supreme Court invalidated the application of Part IXB to State cooperative societies because the constitutional amendment lacked required State ratification. The decision preserved the portion applicable to multi-State cooperative societies.

Q59. What is the name of the Supreme Court’s electronic communication system for rapid transmission of judicial orders?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 26 July 2023, Shift 4]

(A) INSTANT

(B) FASTER

(D) QUICKER

Answer: (B) FASTER

Explanation: FASTER stands for Fast and Secured Transmission of Electronic Records. It helps courts and prison authorities receive authenticated judicial directions quickly, addressing delays between pronouncement of an order and its practical implementation.

Q58. In which Schedule are the salaries of Supreme Court judges listed alongside those of several high constitutional functionaries?

[MPPSC State Services Prelims 2022, held 21 May 2023]

(A) First Schedule

(B) Second Schedule

(D) Fourth Schedule

Answer: (B) Second Schedule

Explanation: The Second Schedule covers salaries and allowances of specified constitutional office-holders, including the Supreme Court judiciary. These provisions should be read together with Article 125 and legislation governing judicial service conditions.

Q57. Which institutional features were provided under the Government of India Act, 1935:
A Federal Court
A Federal Public Service Commission?

[RPSC Senior Teacher Grade II 2022, held 12 February 2023]

(A) Only the second

(B) Both institutions

(D) Neither institution

Answer: (B) Both institutions

Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for the Federal Court and a Federal Public Service Commission. The Federal Court began operating in 1937 and was an institutional precursor to the Supreme Court established in 1950.

Q56. Regarding contempt of court, which statements are correct:
Parliament may legislate on contempt;
The Supreme Court may punish contempt of itself;
The Constitution defines civil and criminal contempt;
Parliament has legislated on contempt?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2022]

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: The Constitution makes the Supreme Court a court of record and empowers punishment for contempt. Parliament enacted the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, which defines civil and criminal contempt; those definitions are statutory, not set out in the Constitution.

Q55. Consider:
1. The Bar Council of India regulates law education and standards.
2. Bar Councils have a role in advocating rights of lawyers.

Which statement is correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2022]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Both statements

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (B) Both statements

Explanation: The Advocates Act provides a regulatory structure for the legal profession and standards of legal education, with the Bar Council of India having a central role. Bar councils also address professional interests and standards of conduct.

Q54. Regarding writs, consider:
1. Mandamus lies against a private body to enforce purely private duties.
2. Mandamus lies when a public duty is not performed.
3. Quo warranto may be sought by a person without personal injury.

Which are correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2022]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(D) All three

Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Mandamus generally compels performance of a public duty, not ordinary private obligations. Quo warranto challenges a person’s legal right to public office and generally does not require the petitioner to show personal injury.

Q53. Which Article authorizes the President to seek the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion?

[RRB Group D, 28 September 2022]

(A) Article 133

(B) Article 142

(D) Article 132

Answer: (C) Article 143

Explanation: Under Article 143, the President can refer certain questions of law or fact of public importance for the Supreme Court’s opinion. This advisory function is separate from ordinary appeals and original disputes.

Q52. How many judges other than the Chief Justice constituted the Supreme Court at its commencement in 1950?

[RRB Group D, 18 September 2022]

(A) Seven

(B) Eleven

(D) Seventeen

Answer: (A) Seven

Explanation: At commencement, the Supreme Court comprised the Chief Justice and seven other judges, for a total of eight. Parliament subsequently increased its sanctioned strength by statute to deal with a growing caseload.

Q51. Initially, how many puisne judges were provided for the Supreme Court besides the Chief Justice?

[RRB Group D, 18 August 2022]

(A) Seven

(B) Fourteen

(D) Seventeen

Answer: (A) Seven

Explanation: Article 124 originally envisaged seven judges besides the Chief Justice, unless Parliament provided for more. Later statutes expanded the sanctioned bench, eventually to a total of thirty-four including the Chief Justice.

Q50. Which court upheld twenty-seven per cent OBC reservation in the All India Quota for certain medical admissions?

[RRB Group D, 23 August 2022]

(A) Bombay High Court

(B) Madras High Court

(D) Supreme Court

Answer: (D) Supreme Court

Explanation: The Supreme Court considered reservation in the All India Quota for medical admissions and upheld the challenged OBC arrangement. The issue combined constitutional equality principles with policies intended to provide equitable educational opportunity.

Q49. Which two Supreme Court judges were identified in a question concerning legal issues around dowry and matrimonial disputes?

[RRB Group D, 13 September 2022]

(A) Justices R.F. Nariman and U.U. Lalit

(B) Justices N.V. Ramana and S. Abdul Nazeer

(D) Justices A.M. Khanwilkar and S. Kaul

Answer: (C) Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and A.S. Bopanna

Explanation: The paper named Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and A.S. Bopanna. It tested awareness of the Supreme Court bench identified in the relevant case, not a generally applicable rule that matrimonial cases always go before the same judges.

Q48. What percentage reservation was upheld by the Supreme Court in the EWS quota case regarding the 103rd Amendment?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 7 December 2022]

(A) Five per cent

(B) Fifteen per cent

(D) Twenty per cent

Answer: (C) Ten per cent

Explanation: In November 2022, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the ten-per-cent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections introduced by the 103rd Amendment. The majority rejected the particular basic-structure challenges raised against the measure.

Q47. What percentage OBC reservation in local bodies was connected with the Banthia Commission exercise considered by the Supreme Court?

[SSC CGL Tier-I, 9 December 2022]

(A) 27 per cent

(B) 15 per cent

(D) 20 per cent

Answer: (A) 27 per cent

Explanation: The Banthia Commission was connected with satisfying the Supreme Court’s conditions for OBC reservation in local-body elections. Twenty-seven per cent was the relevant figure, subject to statutory and constitutional limits on aggregate reservations.

Q46. The advisory jurisdiction of India’s Supreme Court is prescribed by which Article?

[MPSC State Services, 21 August 2022]

(A) Article 142

(B) Article 145

(D) Article 143

Answer: (D) Article 143

Explanation: Article 143 provides for Presidential reference to the Supreme Court on specified questions of public importance. The Court’s advisory opinion is different in nature from an adversarial appeal involving binding relief between litigating parties.

Q45. Where is the permanent seat of the Supreme Court of India?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) Kolkata

(B) Mumbai

(D) Delhi

Answer: (D) Delhi

Explanation: Article 130 names Delhi as the Supreme Court’s ordinary seat. It also permits sittings elsewhere when the Chief Justice appoints a location with the President’s approval. The provision does not create separate regional Supreme Courts.

Q44. Under which Article does the Supreme Court exercise original jurisdiction over specified Centre–State disputes?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) Article 131

(B) Article 129

(D) Article 136

Answer: (A) Article 131

Explanation: Article 131 grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction over certain disputes involving legal rights of the Union and States. Article 136 instead concerns discretionary special leave to appeal, while Article 129 establishes court-of-record status.

Q43. What Article gives the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) Article 143

(B) Article 142

(D) Article 144

Answer: (A) Article 143

Explanation: Article 143 allows the President to refer a question of public importance to the Court for its opinion. Article 142 governs complete justice, Article 141 precedent and Article 144 assistance by public authorities.

Q42. Which colonial enactment provided for setting up the Supreme Court at Calcutta?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) Pitt’s India Act 1784

(B) Charter Act 1813

(D) Regulating Act 1773

Answer: (D) Regulating Act 1773

Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 provided for the colonial Supreme Court at Fort William, which began functioning in 1774. The modern Supreme Court created under Article 124 in 1950 is constitutionally distinct.

Q41. How may a Supreme Court judge be removed from office before the retirement age?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) By ordinary executive direction

(B) By constitutional parliamentary removal process

(D) By Cabinet Secretariat notice

Answer: (B) By constitutional parliamentary removal process

Explanation: A Supreme Court judge may be removed by presidential order after addresses supported by constitutionally specified special majorities in each House for proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Ordinary executive dismissal is incompatible with judicial independence.

Q40. Who appoints judges of the Supreme Court?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Governor

(D) President of India

Answer: (D) President of India

Explanation: Supreme Court judges are appointed by the President under Article 124 through the applicable constitutional consultation process. This differs from removal, which requires stringent parliamentary safeguards against arbitrary political action.

Q39. From which fund are Supreme Court judges’ salaries and allowances charged?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) Consolidated Fund of India

(B) Parliamentary Grants Fund

(D) Public Account of India

Answer: (A) Consolidated Fund of India

Explanation: Expenditure relating to Supreme Court judges’ salaries and allowances is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Charged expenditure is not subject to a routine parliamentary vote, which helps safeguard institutional independence.

Q38. If both the President and Vice-President are unable to discharge presidential functions, who acts as President under the relevant law?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Comptroller and Auditor General

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (D) Chief Justice of India

Explanation: Under the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969, the Chief Justice of India, or in certain circumstances the senior-most available Supreme Court judge, discharges presidential functions if the ordinary succession offices are unavailable.

Q37. At what age must a judge of the Supreme Court retire?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) 65 years

(B) 62 years

(D) 60 years

Answer: (A) 65 years

Explanation: Article 124 fixes retirement at sixty-five for Supreme Court judges. By comparison, High Court judges retire at sixty-two, a frequent distinction in examinations on the Indian judiciary and constitutional offices.

Q36. In which year was the Kesavananda Bharati judgment on basic structure delivered?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) 1973

(B) 1983

(D) 1984

Answer: (A) 1973

Explanation: The thirteen-judge Supreme Court bench delivered Kesavananda Bharati on 24 April 1973. Its central principle preserves the Constitution’s basic structure even when Parliament exercises its otherwise broad amendment power under Article 368.

Q35. Which of the following satisfies a constitutional ground of eligibility for appointment as a Supreme Court judge?

[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandants, 8 August 2021]

(A) Ten years as an advocate in any court regardless of level

(B) Three years as a High Court judge

(D) Fifteen years in any judicial office

Answer: (C) Distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President

Explanation: Article 124 includes a distinguished jurist in the President’s opinion among the eligible categories. Other routes require at least five years as a High Court judge or ten years as an advocate of a High Court.

Q34. Consider:
1. The Chief Justice may request a retired Supreme Court judge to sit with the President’s prior consent.
2. A High Court cannot review its own judgment.

Which is correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (A) Statement 1 only

Explanation: Article 128 permits a retired Supreme Court judge to sit and act as a judge with presidential consent and the person’s consent. High Courts can review judgments within their recognized jurisdiction, so the second assertion is incorrect.

Q33. In which year did the Supreme Court of independent India begin operating?

[SSC CHSL 2020, held 19 April 2021]

(A) 1950

(B) 1955

(D) 1952

Answer: (A) 1950

Explanation: The Supreme Court began functioning in 1950 after the Constitution commenced. Its inaugural ceremony was held on 28 January 1950. Before that transition, the Federal Court and residual arrangements involving the Privy Council had performed appellate functions.

Q32. In which year did the Regulating Act provide for a Supreme Court at Calcutta?

[SSC CHSL 2020, held 19 April 2021]

(A) 1890

(B) 1850

(D) 1734

Answer: (C) 1773

Explanation: The Regulating Act, 1773, authorized establishment of the Supreme Court at Fort William. The colonial court began sitting in 1774, making the statute’s date and the functioning court’s inauguration year distinct historical facts.

Q31. Which types of temporary judges can be appointed to the Supreme Court: (i) ad hoc judges and (ii) additional judges?

[MPPSC State Service Prelims 2020, held 25 July 2021]

(A) Only (i) is permissible

(B) Only (ii) is permissible

(D) Neither is permissible

Answer: (A) Only (i) is permissible

Explanation: Article 127 permits ad hoc Supreme Court judges in specified circumstances. Additional judges are appointed to High Courts under Article 224, not to the Supreme Court. The categories must not be confused merely because both involve temporary judicial service.

Q30. Which former Chief Justice of the Madhya Pradesh High Court did NOT become a Supreme Court judge?

[MPPSC State Service Prelims 2020, held 25 July 2021]

(A) Justice A.K. Patnaik

(B) Justice R.V. Raveendran

(D) Justice A.K. Mathur

Answer: (C) Justice S.K. Jha

Explanation: Justice S.K. Jha served as Chief Justice of the Madhya Pradesh High Court but did not serve as a Supreme Court judge. The other three named judges were later elevated to India’s apex court.

Q29. Within how many days may an aggrieved person appeal from an order of the National Green Tribunal to the Supreme Court?

[MPPSC State Service Prelims 2020, held 25 July 2021]

(A) 30 days

(B) 45 days

(D) 90 days

Answer: (D) 90 days

Explanation: Section 22 of the National Green Tribunal Act permits an appeal to the Supreme Court within ninety days on specified grounds. The Supreme Court can entertain a delayed appeal where sufficient cause for delay is shown.

Q28. Consider:
1. The Regulating Act of 1773 provided for a Supreme Court at Calcutta.
2. Robert Chambers was its first Chief Justice.
Which is correct?

[UPPSC Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer, 20 September 2020]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Both statements

Answer: (A) Statement 1 only

Explanation: The Regulating Act provided for a colonial Supreme Court in Calcutta, inaugurated in 1774. Sir Elijah Impey, not Robert Chambers, was the first Chief Justice. This court must not be confused with the constitutional Supreme Court of 1950.

Q27. Does the Right to Information Act apply to the office of the Chief Justice of India?

[WBCS Prelims 2020]

(A) Never, because it is wholly exempt

(B) Only following constitutional amendment

(D) Only after Parliament issues a special order

Answer: (C) Yes, subject to lawful exemptions

Explanation: The Supreme Court held that the Chief Justice of India’s office is a public authority under the RTI Act. Disclosure must still respect statutory exemptions, judicial independence, confidentiality and privacy through the appropriate balancing process.

Q26. Which courts may issue constitutional writs for enforcing Fundamental Rights?

[UPSC CDS (II) 2020]

(A) Only the Supreme Court

(B) Only High Courts

(D) All subordinate criminal courts

Answer: (C) Both Supreme Court and High Courts

Explanation: The Supreme Court issues writs under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226. High Courts can additionally issue writs for other legal rights, whereas subordinate courts do not possess a comparable general constitutional writ power.

Q25. In which circumstance may the Supreme Court decline an Article 32 petition?

[UPSC CDS (I) 2020]

(A) Whenever another court can hear it

(B) Whenever facts are disputed

(D) When a different writ was requested

Answer: (C) When no Fundamental Right has been violated

Explanation: Article 32 protects remedies for infringed Fundamental Rights. If no such constitutional right is implicated, it is not an ordinary route for enforcing purely statutory or contractual claims. Alternative remedies alone do not erase Article 32’s constitutional status.

Q24. Who became Chief Justice of India on 18 November 2019?

[SSC CGL 2019 Tier-II, held November 2020]

(A) Ranjan Gogoi

(B) Ashok Bhushan

(D) Dipak Misra

Answer: (C) Sharad Arvind Bobde

Explanation: Justice S.A. Bobde became Chief Justice of India on 18 November 2019, succeeding Justice Ranjan Gogoi. The question asks for the appointee on a historical date, not the incumbent in a later year.

Q23. Article 142 enables the Supreme Court to pass orders for complete justice. Which description best captures the provision in the examination?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2019]

(A) Election Commission decisions are never judicially reviewable

(B) The Court has constitutionally conferred complete-justice powers

(D) States may legislate on Union subjects without authorization

Answer: (B) The Court has constitutionally conferred complete-justice powers

Explanation: Article 142 authorizes orders needed for complete justice in a matter pending before the Supreme Court. This special constitutional power is not an unlimited licence to disregard the Constitution or overriding substantive legal prohibitions.

Q22. Which Supreme Court judge dissented in the 2018 Sabarimala temple-entry judgment?

[WBCS Prelims 2019]

(A) Justice Indira Banerjee

(B) Justice R.F. Nariman

(D) Justice Indu Malhotra

Answer: (D) Justice Indu Malhotra

Explanation: Justice Indu Malhotra authored the dissent in the 2018 Sabarimala decision. The majority held the challenged exclusion discriminatory, while her dissent emphasized limits of judicial intervention in contested religious-practice questions.

Q21. Who has the constitutional power to increase the number of judges of the Supreme Court?

[WBCS Prelims 2019]

(A) President acting alone

(B) Parliament by law

(D) Law Commission of India

Answer: (B) Parliament by law

Explanation: Article 124 permits Parliament to increase the Supreme Court’s judicial strength through legislation. The Chief Justice may raise administrative concerns, but cannot independently change the statutory number of sanctioned positions.

Q20. Supreme Court decisions are binding on which category of courts in India?

[SSC CHSL, 16 March 2018]

(A) All courts within India

(B) Only District Courts

(D) Only the parties’ chosen courts

Answer: (A) All courts within India

Explanation: Article 141 binds every court in India to the law declared by the Supreme Court. The rule promotes consistency in legal interpretation, although the Supreme Court may reconsider or overrule its own precedent in suitable proceedings.

Q19. Who formally appoints judges of the Supreme Court under the Constitution?

[UPSC NDA (II), 9 September 2018]

(A) Judges’ collegium itself

(B) Union Cabinet

(D) Lok Sabha

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Article 124 provides for appointment by the President. Judicial consultation and the collegium process determine recommendations within the prevailing constitutional framework, but the formal appointment is issued in the President’s name.

Q18. Which of these form part of Supreme Court powers:
Original federal disputes,
Appeals from High Courts,
Complete-justice orders
Advisory opinions to the President?

[UPSC CDS (I) 2017]

(A) All four

(B) Original and appellate powers only

(D) Appeals alone

Answer: (A) All four

Explanation: The Court possesses original jurisdiction for specified federal disputes, appellate jurisdiction, Article 142 complete-justice powers and Article 143 advisory jurisdiction. Their conditions differ; describing these categories together does not mean every case qualifies under each.

Q17. Which claim about the Supreme Court is incorrect?

[UPSC CDS (I) 2016]

(A) It has original jurisdiction in certain Union–State disputes

(B) The President may seek its advisory opinion

(D) It alone may issue writs to protect Fundamental Rights

Answer: (D) It alone may issue writs to protect Fundamental Rights

Explanation: High Courts also issue writs to enforce Fundamental Rights under Article 226. Therefore Supreme Court writ authority under Article 32 is not exclusive of High Court power. The other listed functions are constitutionally recognized.

Q16. Which judicial decisions reinforced the basic-structure doctrine after Kesavananda Bharati?

[WBCS Mains 2016]

(A) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain only

(B) Minerva Mills only

(D) Neither decision

Answer: (C) Both of these decisions

Explanation: Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain and Minerva Mills developed the basic-structure doctrine in different constitutional contexts. They reaffirmed that amendment power cannot eliminate core features such as democratic principles and limited constitutional government.

Q15. What does judicial review principally mean in Supreme Court constitutional law?

[WBCS Mains 2016]

(A) Judges make the annual budget

(B) Court supervises every administrative file

(D) Court appoints legislators

Answer: (C) Court examines constitutionality of laws and actions

Explanation: Judicial review enables constitutional courts to test legislation and executive action against the Constitution. It is a legal check on public power, not direct responsibility for governing, budgeting or electing representatives.

Q14. Which Supreme Court case laid down important restrictions on arbitrary use of Article 356 President’s Rule?

[WBCS Mains 2016]

(A) Minerva Mills case

(B) S.R. Bommai case

(D) Golaknath case

Answer: (B) S.R. Bommai case

Explanation: S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) established significant judicial checks on President’s Rule, including the importance of legislative floor tests. It strengthened federalism and limited politically motivated dismissal of State governments.

Q13. Which writ is issued by a superior court to stop a lower court or tribunal from continuing proceedings beyond its jurisdiction?

[WBCS Mains 2016]

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Prohibition

(D) Certiorari

Answer: (B) Prohibition

Explanation: The writ of prohibition operates preventively by restraining proceedings where a lower judicial or quasi-judicial body exceeds jurisdiction. Certiorari is generally corrective, while habeas corpus and quo warranto protect different public-law interests.

Q12. Which writ may be used by a superior court to call up and quash an inferior court’s legally defective determination?

[WBCS Mains 2016]

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Quo warranto

(D) Mandamus

Answer: (C) Certiorari

Explanation: Certiorari is a supervisory remedy addressing jurisdictional error or specified legal defects in the decision of an inferior court or tribunal. Prohibition ordinarily prevents proceedings from continuing before an unlawful outcome is reached.

Q11. Article 13(1) renders pre-Constitution laws void to the extent of inconsistency with Fundamental Rights. Which constitutional idea does this illustrate?

[WBCS Mains 2016]

(A) Judicial activism

(B) Judicial review

(D) Judicial interpretation alone

Answer: (B) Judicial review

Explanation: Article 13(1) establishes constitutional supremacy over inconsistent pre-Constitution laws. Courts can apply judicial review to hold such laws inoperative to the extent of conflict with Fundamental Rights. This is a substantive constitutional test, not merely administrative discretion.

Q10. Who is regarded as the custodian of the Constitution of India?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2015]

(A) President of India

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Supreme Court of India

Answer: (D) Supreme Court of India

Explanation: The Supreme Court serves as an ultimate judicial guardian of the Constitution through interpretation, judicial review and enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It does not exercise unrestricted supremacy over constitutionally allocated powers of the other organs.

Q9. A dispute between the Union and one or more States falls under which Supreme Court jurisdiction?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2014]

(A) Advisory

(B) Appellate

(D) Revisional

Answer: (C) Original

Explanation: Article 131 confers original jurisdiction for specified disputes involving legal rights between the Union and States or among States. The case begins in the Supreme Court rather than arriving as an appeal from a lower court.

Q8. Who is empowered to increase the number of judges of the Supreme Court?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2014]

(A) President of India

(B) Parliament

(D) Law Commission

Answer: (B) Parliament

Explanation: Parliament may change the maximum sanctioned Supreme Court strength by legislation under Article 124. The President appoints individual judges under constitutional procedures but cannot unilaterally increase the statutory ceiling.

Q7. In which situation may the Supreme Court exercise its advisory jurisdiction?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2010]

(A) At the request of any State Governor

(B) On a constitutional reference made by the President

(D) Automatically in every parliamentary debate

Answer: (B) On a constitutional reference made by the President

Explanation: Article 143 authorizes the President to refer specified public questions of law or fact to the Supreme Court. This advisory route differs from a petition brought by an individual to enforce a right.

Q6. Consider statements about Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer:
1. He served as Chief Justice of India.
2. He contributed greatly to public-interest litigation.

Which is correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2008]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (B) Statement 2 only

Explanation: Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was a Supreme Court judge but never Chief Justice of India. His jurisprudence contributed to expanding access to justice, including approaches associated with public-interest litigation and the rights of marginalized persons.

Q5. Consider:
1. Removal of a High Court judge follows substantially the same constitutional process as removal of a Supreme Court judge.
2. A retired High Court judge may never practise in any Indian court.

Which is correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2007]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (A) Statement 1 only

Explanation: High Court judges face the constitutionally demanding removal procedure applied to Supreme Court judges. Retired High Court judges face specified practice restrictions, not a total prohibition on appearing before every court in India.

Q4. Which Chief Justice of India is particularly linked with expansion of public-interest litigation?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2006]

(A) M. Hidayatullah

(B) A.N. Ray

(D) P.N. Bhagwati

Answer: (D) P.N. Bhagwati

Explanation: Justice P.N. Bhagwati, Chief Justice during 1985–1986, was a major architect of public-interest litigation and procedural liberalization. PIL enabled greater access to constitutional courts for persons unable to litigate through traditional procedures.

Q3. Under the law applicable in 2004, who was eligible to head the National Human Rights Commission?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2004]

(A) A serving District Judge

(B) Any senior advocate

(D) A serving member of Parliament

Answer: (C) A former Chief Justice of India

Explanation: The Protection of Human Rights Act as it then stood required an NHRC Chairperson who had been Chief Justice of India. Subsequent amendments changed eligibility rules; the historical examination answer must be judged by the law then in force.

Q2. Which right did B.R. Ambedkar describe as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2002]

(A) Freedom of religion

(B) Right to property

(D) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer: (D) Right to constitutional remedies

Explanation: The right to constitutional remedies under Article 32 permits direct Supreme Court action to enforce Fundamental Rights. Ambedkar valued this guarantee because constitutional promises require effective judicial mechanisms when public authorities infringe protected rights.

Q1. Consider:
1. Election Commissioners receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner receives a Supreme Court judge’s salary.
3. The CEC’s removal follows the same process as that for a Supreme Court judge.
4. Election Commissioners retire at 62.

Which were correct in 2002?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2002]

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 4

Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation: In the 2002 framework, the CEC had the salary of a Supreme Court judge and enjoyed comparable removal safeguards. Election Commissioners did not receive unequal salaries, and the stated five-year or age-sixty-two tenure claim was incorrect.

Central Council of Ministers

Judicial Review, Judicial Activism & Public Interest Litigation

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