State and Union Territories of India

Q100. As per Census 2011, about what share of India’s population lived in Rajasthan?

[SSC GD Constable (08 May 2026, Shift 3), 2026]

1. 5.5%
2. 2.5%
3. 1.5%
4. 7.5%

Answer: (A) 5.5%

Explanation: Rajasthan had approximately 6.85 crore residents in the 2011 Census, or around 5.66 percent of India’s total. Of the offered rounded percentages, 5.5 percent is closest. Its share of national land area is much higher, approximately 10.4 percent.

Q99. Under Article 155, who formally appoints the Governor of a State?

[DSSSB Primary Teacher (19 Feb 2026, Shift 1), 2026]

1. Prime Minister
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Chief Minister concerned
4. President of India

Answer: (D) President of India

Explanation: Article 155 empowers the President to appoint a Governor by warrant under the President’s hand and seal. The Governor is a state’s constitutional head, while the Council of Ministers led by the Chief Minister ordinarily exercises executive responsibility.

Q98. Which qualification is essential for appointment as a State Governor?

[DSSSB Primary Teacher (18 Feb 2026, Shift 3), 2026]

1. Resident of the same state aged 30
2. Member of Parliament
3. Former High Court judge
4. Indian citizen aged at least 35

Answer: (D) Indian citizen aged at least 35

Explanation: Article 157 prescribes Indian citizenship and completion of 35 years of age. Neither a judicial background nor parliamentary membership is necessary. Under Article 158, a Governor cannot continue as a legislator or hold another office of profit.

Q97. Who leads a State’s Council of Ministers?

[DSSSB Court Attendant (22 Jun 2026, Shift 1), 2026]

1. President’s representative
2. Chief Minister
3. Head of State judiciary
4. President of the governing party

Answer: (B) Chief Minister

Explanation: The Chief Minister heads the Council of Ministers and leads the elected state executive. Article 164 provides for the Governor to appoint the Chief Minister; other ministers are appointed on the Chief Minister’s advice. The Governor is constitutional head.

Q96. Who heads the Council of Ministers that advises the Governor under Article 163?

[DSSSB MTS (25 Jul 2026, Shift 2), 2026]

1. Chief Minister
2. Advocate General
3. Chief Secretary
4. Assembly Speaker

Answer: (A) Chief Minister

Explanation: Article 163 establishes a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its head to aid and advise the Governor, except where constitutional discretion applies. This distinguishes the elected political leadership from the state’s permanent administrative services.

Q95. Article 210 concerns the language used in which institution?

[MP Police Sub-Inspector (19 Jan 2026, Shift 1), 2026]

1. Union Government
2. State Legislature
3. State High Court only
4. Parliament

Answer: (B) State Legislature

Explanation: Article 210 regulates languages in the state legislative assembly and, where present, the legislative council. Business may generally be transacted in an official state language, Hindi or English, subject to the Constitution’s specific provisions and procedural rules.

Q94. Which language spoken in Meghalaya belongs to the Austroasiatic language family?

[DSSSB MTS (18 Apr 2026, Shift 1), 2026]

1. Garo
2. Mizo
3. Bodo
4. Khasi

Answer: (D) Khasi

Explanation: Khasi is associated with Meghalaya’s Khasi and Jaintia Hills and belongs to the Austroasiatic language family. Garo, Mizo and Bodo are classified within Tibeto-Burman branches. Khasi is also recognized for specified official purposes within Meghalaya.

Q93. Which regional contact language is prominently used among Nagaland’s communities?

[DSSSB MTS (06 Mar 2026, Shift 2), 2026]

1. Nagamese
2. Hindi
3. Bengali
4. Marathi

Answer: (A) Nagamese

Explanation: Nagamese is a contact language widely used between communities speaking different Naga languages. It is distinct from English, which is Nagaland’s official language. Its role as a lingua franca helps communication across the state’s linguistically diverse populations.

Q92. Which of the listed states has the greatest population in Census 2011?

[SSC MTS (06 Feb 2026, Shift 2; 2025 cycle), 2026]

1. Rajasthan
2. West Bengal
3. Karnataka
4. Tamil Nadu

Answer: (B) West Bengal

Explanation: West Bengal recorded roughly 9.13 crore people in the 2011 Census, more than the other three states in the options. Rajasthan had around 6.85 crore, Tamil Nadu 7.21 crore and Karnataka 6.11 crore residents.

Q91. Which project-state-location statements are correct:
1. Project Elephant began in 1992;
2. Project Tiger began in 1973;
3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve is in West Bengal;
4. Keoladeo National Park is in Madhya Pradesh?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate (19 Jun 2026, Shift 2), 2026]

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The two national wildlife projects were launched in 1992 and 1973 respectively. Sundarbans is in West Bengal, whereas Keoladeo National Park lies in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, not Madhya Pradesh. Thus the fourth statement is incorrect.

Q90. How many of these state descriptions are correct:
Arunachal’s capital is named after a fort and it has two national parks;
Nagaland’s formation involved a constitutional amendment;
Tripura progressed from Part C State through UT to statehood?

[UPSC CSE Prelims GS I (2025), 2025]

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (C) All three

Explanation: The UPSC key accepts all three. Itanagar takes its name from Ita Fort; Arunachal has Namdapha and Mouling parks. Nagaland’s statehood arrangements involved the Thirteenth Amendment, while Tripura became a Union Territory in 1956 and a state in 1972.

Q89. Which of these were established as provided in the Constitution:
Inter-State Council,
National Security Council,
Zonal Councils?

[UPSC CSE Prelims GS I (2025), 2025]

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (A) Only one

Explanation: The Inter-State Council is contemplated by Article 263 of the Constitution. Zonal Councils arose under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, while the National Security Council was constituted by executive action. Therefore just one of the three has a constitutional basis.

Q88. As of 2025, how many Union Territories exist, and how many have legislative assemblies?

[IB Security Assistant (30 Sep 2025, Shift 3), 2025]

1. Eight; three with assemblies
2. Nine; three with assemblies
3. Eight; two with assemblies
4. Nine; two with assemblies

Answer: (A) Eight; three with assemblies

Explanation: India has eight Union Territories. Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir possess legislative assemblies; other territories do not. Union Territory legislatures exercise powers subject to constitutional and statutory arrangements, rather than precisely the same powers as state legislatures.

Q87. Which constitutional article describes India as a Union of States?

[SSC CGL (15 Sep 2025, Shift 2), 2025]

1. Article 1
2. Article 3
3. Article 239
4. Article 240

Answer: (A) Article 1

Explanation: Article 1 declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. It describes India’s territory as comprising states, Union Territories and such other territories as may be acquired. State reorganisation is separately addressed under Article 3.

Q86. Union Territories are administered through which constitutional arrangement?

[MP Police Constable (14 Dec 2025, Shift 1), 2025]

1. Directly by Parliament
2. Through presidentially appointed administrators
3. Only through chief ministers
4. Through state governors

Answer: (B) Through presidentially appointed administrators

Explanation: Article 239 provides that Union Territories are administered by the President through an appointed administrator, with exceptions and special arrangements as provided by law. Some territories have legislatures, but that does not eliminate their constitutional relationship with the Union.

Q85. Which part of India’s Constitution deals specifically with the administration of Union Territories?

[DSSSB Assistant Section Officer (18 Aug 2025, Shift 3), 2025]

1. Part VIII
2. Part II
3. Part VII
4. Part IX

Answer: (A) Part VIII

Explanation: Part VIII covers Union Territories, principally Articles 239 to 241. It addresses administration, certain special legislative arrangements and High Courts. Part IX addresses Panchayats, while the constitutional provisions for states are mainly contained in Part VI.

Q84. What subject is covered by Article 241 of the Constitution?

[DSSSB TGT Mathematics (14 Nov 2025, Shift 2), 2025]

1. Special provisions for Delhi
2. General UT administration
3. Financial regulations
4. High Courts for Union Territories

Answer: (D) High Courts for Union Territories

Explanation: Article 241 authorizes Parliament to constitute a High Court for a Union Territory or place it under an existing court’s jurisdiction. This helps ensure judicial arrangements for territories that may not have separate High Courts of their own.

Q83. Match the UTs with their High Courts: Andaman-Nicobar, former Daman-Diu, Lakshadweep and Puducherry; corresponding courts Calcutta, Bombay, Kerala and Madras.

[DSSSB Assistant Section Officer (18 Aug 2025, Shift 3), 2025]

1. Calcutta, Bombay, Kerala, Madras
2. Bombay, Calcutta, Madras, Kerala
3. Kerala, Bombay, Calcutta, Madras
4. Madras, Kerala, Bombay, Calcutta

Answer: (A) Calcutta, Bombay, Kerala, Madras

Explanation: Andaman and Nicobar Islands falls under Calcutta High Court; Daman and Diu under Bombay; Lakshadweep under Kerala; and Puducherry under Madras. These jurisdictions illustrate how Union Territories may share an existing High Court.

Q82. After the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, India had 14 States and how many Union Territories?

[DSSSB Assistant Section Officer (21 Aug 2025, Shift 2), 2025]

1. Seven
2. Nine
3. Six
4. Eight

Answer: (C) Six

Explanation: The 1956 reorganisation introduced a new map containing 14 States and six centrally administered territories. It followed recommendations for more rational boundaries, including linguistic considerations, and replaced the earlier constitutional classification of Part A, B and C states.

Q81. Which languages have officially recognized roles in Meghalaya?

[DSSSB Assistant Section Officer (18 Aug 2025, Shift 3), 2025]

1. English, Khasi and Garo
2. Meitei, Bengali and English
3. Hindi and English
4. English, Urdu and Garo

Answer: (A) English, Khasi and Garo

Explanation: English is Meghalaya’s principal official language, while Khasi and Garo have associate official status for specified administrative uses. Recognizing these regional languages reflects the state’s linguistic diversity without making their constitutional status identical to that of English.

Q80. Which of the following is Nagaland’s official language?

[DSSSB TGT Mathematics (14 Nov 2025, Shift 2), 2025]

1. English
2. Nagamese
3. Assamese
4. Hindi

Answer: (A) English

Explanation: English serves as Nagaland’s official language in government and education. Many Naga languages are used by different communities, and Nagamese helps communication across groups. The official designation should not be confused with the language most widely used conversationally.

Q79. Which state has the Indian roller, called Pala Pitta, as its state bird?

[Telangana High Court Record Assistant (20 Apr 2025), 2025]

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Telangana
3. Kerala
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer: (B) Telangana

Explanation: Telangana recognizes the Indian roller as its state bird. Called Pala Pitta in Telugu, it is known for striking blue wing feathers. State birds are chosen by individual governments and should not be confused with India’s national bird, the peacock.

Q78. Match First, Third, Fifth and Seventh Schedules with territories, oaths, Scheduled Areas and Union-State legislative subjects.

[SSC Stenographer (07 Aug 2025, Shift 3), 2025]

1. First-territories; Third-oaths; Fifth-Scheduled Areas; Seventh-legislative lists
2. First-oaths; Third-territories; Fifth-lists; Seventh-Scheduled Areas
3. First-lists; Third-Scheduled Areas; Fifth-oaths; Seventh-territories
4. First-Scheduled Areas; Third-lists; Fifth-territories; Seventh-oaths

Answer: (A) First-territories; Third-oaths; Fifth-Scheduled Areas; Seventh-legislative lists

Explanation: The First Schedule lists States and Union Territories; Third prescribes oaths; Fifth governs Scheduled Areas and certain Scheduled Tribes; and Seventh divides legislative subjects among Union, State and Concurrent Lists. Each schedule serves a distinct constitutional purpose.

Q77. During 2021, which state had India’s largest forest cover by absolute area?

[MPPSC State Service Prelims (16 Feb 2025), 2025]

1. Maharashtra
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Odisha
4. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (B) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: The India State of Forest Report 2021 put Madhya Pradesh first in total forest cover area. A state’s absolute forest cover must be distinguished from the percentage of its geographic area under forest, where smaller northeastern states often rank higher.

Q76. Which of the following had the smallest population in Census 2011: Assam, Manipur, Mizoram or Tripura?

[SSC GD Constable (07 Feb 2025, Shift 1), 2025]

1. Assam
2. Manipur
3. Mizoram
4. Tripura

Answer: (C) Mizoram

Explanation: Mizoram had approximately 10.91 lakh residents in Census 2011, fewer than Assam, Manipur and Tripura. The comparison is only among these four options: nationally, Sikkim had the smallest population of any Indian state that year.

Q75. Which Indian state contains Kanchenjunga, India’s highest peak outside the disputed Pakistan-occupied region?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate (18 Aug 2025, Shift 2), 2025]

1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Sikkim
3. Uttarakhand
4. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (B) Sikkim

Explanation: Kanchenjunga rises to approximately 8,586 metres near the Sikkim-Nepal border. It is the third-highest mountain in the world. The question tests an important geographical association with Sikkim, a Himalayan state whose capital is Gangtok.

Q74. Among these states, where is the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate (14 Aug 2025, Shift 2), 2025]

1. Tamil Nadu
2. West Bengal
3. Assam
4. Odisha

Answer: (B) West Bengal

Explanation: The Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve lies in southern West Bengal within the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta. Its mangrove ecosystem is shared across the wider delta with Bangladesh. The Indian reserve is particularly associated with tidal channels and Royal Bengal tiger habitats.

Q73. In which state is Konkani prominently spoken?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate (04 Sep 2025, Shift 1), 2025]

1. Assam
2. Tripura
3. Goa
4. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (C) Goa

Explanation: Konkani is Goa’s official language and is widely spoken in the Konkan coastal region. Goa’s official-language legislation recognizes Konkani in Devanagari script. The language is also found in adjoining areas of Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Q72. Which of these states did not possess a Legislative Council as of July 2024?

[DSSSB PGT Political Science (13 Jul 2025, Shift 1), 2025]

1. Rajasthan
2. Bihar
3. Maharashtra
4. Telangana

Answer: (A) Rajasthan

Explanation: Rajasthan has a unicameral legislature. Bihar, Maharashtra and Telangana have Vidhan Parishads, the upper houses of state legislatures. The Constitution permits councils to be established or abolished under Article 169, following the prescribed assembly resolution and parliamentary law.

Q71. Which person’s death following a hunger strike accelerated creation of the first Telugu-speaking state?

[SSC Selection Post Higher Secondary (29 Jul 2025, Shift 2), 2025]

1. Potti Sriramulu
2. Pingali Venkayya
3. R. K. Shanmukham Chetty
4. Jagjivan Ram

Answer: (A) Potti Sriramulu

Explanation: Potti Sriramulu died during a fast seeking a separate Telugu-speaking state. Public protests thereafter led to Andhra State’s formation on 1 October 1953 from Madras State. The wider Andhra Pradesh came into being in 1956 after another reorganisation.

Q70. What is the scientific name of India’s national tree?

[APPSC Forest Section Officer Prelims (2025), 2025]

1. Ficus benghalensis
2. Ficus elastica
3. Ficus religiosa
4. Ficus racemosa

Answer: (A) Ficus benghalensis

Explanation: India’s national tree is the banyan, scientifically called Ficus benghalensis. Its distinctive aerial roots can develop into supportive trunks, creating a wide canopy. Ficus religiosa denotes the peepal, which is a different culturally important tree.

Q69. Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?

[BPSC 71st CCE Prelims (13 Sep 2025), 2025]

1. Cow
2. Bull
3. Buffalo
4. Horse

Answer: (B) Bull

Explanation: The BPSC key gives Bull, using the term for the wild ox or gaur (Bos gaurus), Bihar’s actual state animal. Gaur is not the same as an ordinary domestic bull. The distinction matters because the exam used a loose common name.

Q68. Which language was designated Goa’s official language under the 1987 legislation?

[DSSSB TGT Natural Science (06 Sep 2025, Shift 2), 2025]

1. English
2. Hindi
3. Konkani
4. Marathi

Answer: (C) Konkani

Explanation: Konkani, written in Devanagari, is Goa’s official language under the Goa, Daman and Diu Official Language Act, 1987. Marathi has a recognized position for certain purposes, but the designation of Konkani is central to Goa’s linguistic identity.

Q67. Put Jammu and Kashmir, Chandigarh, Delhi and Lakshadweep in north-to-south order.

[PSPCL Junior Engineer (03 Feb 2025), 2025]

1. Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir, Chandigarh, Lakshadweep
2. Jammu and Kashmir, Chandigarh, Delhi, Lakshadweep
3. Jammu and Kashmir, Delhi, Chandigarh, Lakshadweep
4. Lakshadweep, Chandigarh, Jammu and Kashmir, Delhi

Answer: (B) Jammu and Kashmir, Chandigarh, Delhi, Lakshadweep

Explanation: Jammu and Kashmir lies farthest north among the listed territories. Chandigarh is at roughly 30.7 degrees north, Delhi around 28.6 degrees north, while Lakshadweep is in the Arabian Sea much farther south. Therefore the second sequence is correct.

Q66. Which constitutional article governs Rajya Sabha seat allocation among States and Union Territories through the Fourth Schedule?

[SSC CGL (17 Sep 2024, Shift 3), 2024]

1. Article 81
2. Article 82
3. Article 83
4. Article 80

Answer: (D) Article 80

Explanation: Article 80 deals with the composition of the Council of States, the Rajya Sabha. Its provisions refer to the Fourth Schedule for allocating seats among states and eligible Union Territories, reflecting unequal representation based broadly on population.

Q65. Which Article requires citizens to respect the Constitution, National Flag and National Anthem?

[SSC MTS (28 Oct 2024, Shift 2), 2024]

1. Article 51A(a)
2. Article 52
3. Article 14
4. Article 54(b)

Answer: (A) Article 51A(a)

Explanation: Article 51A(a) lists a Fundamental Duty to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals, institutions, National Flag and National Anthem. Fundamental Duties were introduced in 1976 by the Forty-second Amendment and appear in Part IVA.

Q64. Which activity is NOT enumerated as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution?

[SSC MTS (29 Oct 2024, Shift 1), 2024]

1. Obey parents and discharge family responsibilities
2. Respect national symbols
3. Follow ideals of freedom struggle
4. Protect national unity and integrity

Answer: (A) Obey parents and discharge family responsibilities

Explanation: The Constitution lists public and civic duties under Article 51A, including respect for national symbols and protection of unity. It does not explicitly state an obligation to obey parents or discharge family responsibilities as a Fundamental Duty.

Q63. According to the population projection used for 2024, which listed Indian state was most populous?

[SSC MTS (18 Oct 2024, Shift 3), 2024]

1. Rajasthan
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Bihar
4. Kerala

Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh ranks first among Indian states by population, a position established in Census 2011 and also reflected in subsequent projections. Bihar and Rajasthan have large populations, but neither surpasses Uttar Pradesh in the given comparison.

Q62. Which one of the given languages is an official language of Sikkim?

[DSSSB Jail Warder (11 Jun 2024, Shift 1), 2024]

1. English
2. Boro
3. Meiteilon
4. Meitei

Answer: (A) English

Explanation: English is among Sikkim’s officially recognized languages and is used in administration. The state also recognizes Nepali, Bhutia, Lepcha and several other languages. Boro and Meiteilon are principally associated with other northeastern states.

Q61. What is Goa’s official language?

[DSSSB Jail Warder (22 Jun 2024, Shift 1), 2024]

1. Marathi
2. Kannada
3. Gujarati
4. Konkani

Answer: (D) Konkani

Explanation: Konkani in the Devanagari script is Goa’s official language under legislation adopted in 1987. The state is multilingual and Marathi is also spoken, but the official-language provision identifies Konkani as the main statutory language.

Q60. Why was the Twelfth Constitutional Amendment enacted in 1962?

[RPSC Assistant Professor History (12 Sep 2024), 2024]

1. Partition Punjab
2. Incorporate Goa, Daman and Diu
3. Linguistic state reorganisation
4. Give Meghalaya and Manipur statehood

Answer: (B) Incorporate Goa, Daman and Diu

Explanation: The Twelfth Amendment incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu into the Indian Union following the end of Portuguese rule in 1961. They initially formed a Union Territory; Goa’s separate statehood came later, in 1987.

Q59. Which pairing is constitutionally incorrect?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims GS I (2024), 2024]

1. Public employment equality—citizens only
2. Creation of States—Parliament
3. Equality before law—citizens and noncitizens
4. Changing a State’s name—State Legislature

Answer: (D) Changing a State’s name—State Legislature

Explanation: Article 3 gives Parliament the power to change a state’s name. A state legislature is consulted through the specified constitutional procedure, but cannot itself effect the change. Equality before law is available to persons, whereas Article 16 concerns citizens.

Q58. Match the Articles: 26, 40, 98 and 239, respectively, with their subjects.

[UPPSC RO/ARO General Studies (11 Feb 2024), 2024]

1. Religious affairs; Panchayats; Parliament secretariat; Union Territories
2. Union Territories; Parliament secretariat; religious affairs; Panchayats
3. Religious affairs; Union Territories; Parliament secretariat; Panchayats
4. Panchayats; religious affairs; Parliament secretariat; Union Territories

Answer: (A) Religious affairs; Panchayats; Parliament secretariat; Union Territories

Explanation: Article 26 safeguards religious denominations’ management of religious affairs, Article 40 directs organisation of village panchayats, Article 98 provides for parliamentary secretariats and Article 239 addresses the administration of Union Territories. Matching these shows their different constitutional roles.

Q57. How many Indian States share a border with Chhattisgarh?

[CGPSC Prelims GS I (11 Feb 2024), 2024]

1. Five
2. Six
3. Seven
4. Eight

Answer: (C) Seven

Explanation: Chhattisgarh touches seven other states: Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh. Its eastern and northern boundaries meet Odisha, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh, while the southern region approaches Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. This is a boundary-based state geography PYQ.

Q56. Which territory has India’s smallest geographical area among the listed Union Territories?

[JKSSB Junior Stenographer (31 Dec 2024), 2024]

1. Puducherry
2. Former Daman and Diu
3. Chandigarh
4. Lakshadweep

Answer: (D) Lakshadweep

Explanation: Lakshadweep spans only about 32 square kilometres of land, making it India’s smallest Union Territory by area. It is an island group in the Arabian Sea with Kavaratti as its administrative centre and is much smaller than Chandigarh or Puducherry.

Q55. Which of these lakes lies in Rajasthan?

[SSC Selection Post Matriculation (21 Jun 2024, Shift 1), 2024]

1. Sambhar Salt Lake
2. Lonar Lake
3. Chilika Lake
4. Wular Lake

Answer: (A) Sambhar Salt Lake

Explanation: Sambhar Salt Lake is located in Rajasthan, southwest of Jaipur. It is a major inland saline lake and an important centre of salt production. Lonar is in Maharashtra, Chilika in Odisha and Wular in Jammu and Kashmir.

Q54. Which site provided the basis for the national emblem adopted on 26 January 1950?

[Delhi Police Constable (20 Nov 2023, Shift 2), 2023]

1. Lion Capital of Sarnath
2. Bull capital at Rampurva
3. Single lion at Lauriya Nandangarh
4. Single lion at Rampurva

Answer: (A) Lion Capital of Sarnath

Explanation: India’s State Emblem is adapted from Ashoka’s Lion Capital at Sarnath. The representation was adopted on 26 January 1950; below the lions, the motto Satyameva Jayate is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad.

Q53. Which were the three most populous Indian states in Census 2011?

[SSC CHSL (09 Aug 2023, Shift 3), 2023]

1. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh
2. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Goa
3. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar
4. West Bengal, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar

Explanation: The 2011 Census ranked Uttar Pradesh first, Maharashtra second and Bihar third by state population. This ordering differs from state-area rankings, where Rajasthan is first. Such questions require keeping population and geographical area separate.

Q52. Among the listed states, which has the largest geographical area?

[SSC MTS (15 Jun 2023, Shift 3; 2022 cycle), 2023]

1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Rajasthan

Answer: (D) Rajasthan

Explanation: Rajasthan has India’s largest state area, approximately 342,239 square kilometres. Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra follow it. Although Uttar Pradesh has the greatest population, its geographical area is smaller than Rajasthan’s and Madhya Pradesh’s.

Q51. Which Article states that India is a Union of States?

[SSC GD Constable (01 Feb 2023, Shift 2; 2022 cycle), 2023]

1. Article 1
2. Article 2
3. Article 10
4. Article 11

Answer: (A) Article 1

Explanation: Article 1 uses the expression ‘India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States’. The territorial composition includes States and Union Territories. Parliament’s powers to admit States or reorganise them are treated principally in Articles 2 and 3.

Q50. Which is the smallest Union Territory of India by land area?

[SSC GD Constable (06 Feb 2023, Shift 3; 2022 cycle), 2023]

1. Puducherry
2. Lakshadweep
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu

Answer: (B) Lakshadweep

Explanation: Lakshadweep comprises scattered coral islands with about 32 square kilometres of land. Despite covering a wide maritime region, its actual land area is the smallest of the Indian Union Territories. Its administrative headquarters is Kavaratti.

Q49. What is the minimum age to be eligible for appointment as a State Governor?

[SSC GD Constable (06 Feb 2023, Shift 1; 2022 cycle), 2023]

1. 28 years
2. 40 years
3. 25 years
4. 35 years

Answer: (D) 35 years

Explanation: A Governor must be an Indian citizen aged at least 35, as Article 157 requires. Governors are appointed by the President rather than through a direct election. Their normal five-year tenure remains subject to the President’s pleasure.

Q48. Which is the largest State of India by area?

[SSC GD Constable (25 Jan 2023, Shift 3; 2022 cycle), 2023]

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Rajasthan

Answer: (D) Rajasthan

Explanation: Rajasthan is first among India’s States by territorial area, spanning approximately 342,239 square kilometres. Its landscape includes much of the Thar Desert. The comparison concerns area only and does not imply that Rajasthan has the largest population.

Q47. Respecting the National Flag and National Anthem is what kind of constitutional obligation?

[SSC MTS (20 Jun 2023, Shift 1; 2022 cycle), 2023]

1. Fundamental Duty
2. Legal Right
3. Directive Principle
4. Fundamental Right

Answer: (A) Fundamental Duty

Explanation: Article 51A(a) identifies respect for the National Flag and National Anthem as a Fundamental Duty. These duties were inserted by the Forty-second Constitutional Amendment, 1976, and are distinct from enforceable Fundamental Rights and directive principles.

Q46. Which of the following is NOT included among Article 51A Fundamental Duties?

[SSC MTS (01 Sep 2023, Shift 3), 2023]

1. Develop a scientific temper
2. Pay taxes
3. Promote harmony
4. Respect the National Anthem

Answer: (B) Pay taxes

Explanation: Payment of taxes is required by applicable tax laws but is not separately enumerated in Article 51A. The Fundamental Duties do include scientific temper, social harmony and respect for the Constitution and national symbols, among other civic responsibilities.

Q45. From where was India’s National Emblem adapted?

[MP Forest Guard (12 Jun 2023, Shift 1), 2023]

1. Mundaka Upanishad
2. Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath
3. Mahabodhi Stupa
4. Kesaria Stupa

Answer: (B) Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath

Explanation: The design of the national emblem comes from the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. Its Sanskrit motto derives separately from the Mundaka Upanishad. Distinguishing the sculptural origin from the textual source of the motto prevents confusion.

Q44. Which flower is recognized as India’s national flower?

[MP Excise Constable (22 Feb 2023, Shift 3), 2023]

1. Lily
2. Rose
3. Lotus
4. Kumauni

Answer: (C) Lotus

Explanation: The lotus, Nelumbo nucifera, is India’s national flower. It is associated with longstanding artistic, religious and cultural traditions. It grows in aquatic conditions and should not be confused with the rose or lily used in many decorative contexts.

Q43. Red panda is the official state animal of which state?

[DDA Patwari (20 Aug 2023, Shift 1), 2023]

1. Sikkim
2. West Bengal
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Meghalaya

Answer: (A) Sikkim

Explanation: Sikkim has selected the red panda as its state animal. The small Himalayan mammal is arboreal and associated with cool forest habitats. Its distribution reaches other eastern Himalayan regions, but that does not make it their state animal.

Q42. Which state has the blackbuck as its official state animal?

[DDA Patwari (19 Aug 2023, Shift 1), 2023]

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Manipur
3. Meghalaya
4. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (A) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: The blackbuck, a grassland antelope with distinctive spiral horns in adult males, is the state animal of Andhra Pradesh. Manipur instead recognizes the Sangai deer; Meghalaya’s state animal is the clouded leopard.

Q41. Which of the listed states had a Legislative Council in January 2023?

[DDA Junior Engineer Civil (01 Apr 2023, Shift 2), 2023]

1. Assam
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Rajasthan
4. Kerala

Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has a bicameral state legislature consisting of Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad. The other three listed states have no legislative council. Article 169 describes how Parliament may create or abolish a council after an assembly resolution.

Q40. The Fifty-third Constitutional Amendment is associated with statehood for which State?

[WBCS Mains Polity and Economy (2023), 2023]

1. Mizoram
2. Tripura
3. Manipur
4. Meghalaya

Answer: (A) Mizoram

Explanation: The Fifty-third Constitutional Amendment, 1986 inserted Article 371G, containing safeguards specific to Mizoram. Mizoram became a full State in February 1987. Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya had already attained statehood in 1972.

Q39. Chief Ministers of all States served as ex-officio members of which historic planning body?

[WBCS Mains Polity and Economy (2023), 2023]

1. Planning Commission
2. National Development Council
3. Inter-State Council only
4. Finance Commission

Answer: (B) National Development Council

Explanation: The National Development Council, established in 1952, included State Chief Ministers, Union Cabinet ministers and the Prime Minister. It helped coordinate development planning. This is a historical institutional question; the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015.

Q38. For a State Legislative Council, what is the constitutional maximum relative to Assembly membership?

[SSC MTS (09 May 2023, Shift 3; 2022 cycle), 2023]

1. Two-thirds
2. Three-fourths
3. One-third
4. One-fifth

Answer: (C) One-third

Explanation: Article 171 states that a state legislative council ordinarily cannot exceed one-third of the assembly’s total strength and must generally have at least 40 members. The Council is a continuing chamber, unlike an assembly subject to dissolution.

Q37. Consider:
I. Uttar Pradesh is India’s largest state by area.
II. Rajasthan is India’s most populous state.

Which statement is correct?

[SSC CGL Tier I (12 Dec 2022, Shift 3), 2022]

1. Only I
2. Neither I nor II
3. Only II
4. Both I and II

Answer: (B) Neither I nor II

Explanation: Both statements are false. Rajasthan is the largest state by area, whereas Uttar Pradesh has the highest state population. Comparing these two superlatives is a common examination trap because geographical size and number of residents measure different things.

Q36. Which was India’s least populous State according to the 2011 Census?

[SSC CGL Tier I (02 Dec 2022, Shift 4), 2022]

1. Nagaland
2. Sikkim
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Goa

Answer: (B) Sikkim

Explanation: Sikkim had approximately 6.11 lakh residents in 2011, the smallest state population. Goa has the smallest geographical area among states, while Lakshadweep has the smallest land area among Union Territories. The three distinctions should not be interchanged.

Q35. In which year was India’s first post-Independence linguistic State established?

[SSC CHSL (08 Jun 2022, Shift 2; 2021 cycle), 2022]

1. 1957
2. 1951
3. 1952
4. 1953

Answer: (D) 1953

Explanation: The Andhra State was formed on 1 October 1953 to bring Telugu-speaking areas of Madras State together. Andhra Pradesh, incorporating Telugu-speaking regions of Hyderabad State, came later with reorganisation in 1956. Thus the first linguistic state dates to 1953.

Q34. Konkani is an official language of which State?

[RRB Group D (15 Sep 2022, Shift 1), 2022]

1. Tripura
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Goa
4. Sikkim

Answer: (C) Goa

Explanation: Goa made Konkani its official language through its 1987 official-language law. Konkani belongs to the Indo-Aryan linguistic group and is spoken along India’s western coast. Its recognition was part of Goa’s distinctive identity following statehood.

Q33. The Ao language is primarily associated with which Indian State?

[RRB Group D (11 Oct 2022, Shift 2), 2022]

1. Odisha
2. Nagaland
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Tripura

Answer: (B) Nagaland

Explanation: Ao is spoken mainly by the Ao Naga community of Nagaland and belongs to the Sino-Tibetan language family. Nagaland has numerous indigenous languages, while English remains the official language for administrative work. Language and official status are separate concepts.

Q32. In which year did the Delhi Durbar announce the transfer of Britain’s Indian capital from Calcutta to Delhi?

[RRB Group D (26 Sep 2022, Shift 1), 2022]

1. 1877
2. 1910
3. 1903
4. 1911

Answer: (D) 1911

Explanation: The British announced the shift of their Indian imperial capital at the Delhi Durbar in 1911 during King George V’s visit. The announcement marked the move away from Calcutta; the planned city of New Delhi was formally inaugurated later, in 1931.

Q31. In which state or UT is Tsomgo, also called Changu Lake, located?

[UPSC CDS II General Knowledge (04 Sep 2022), 2022]

1. Ladakh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Sikkim
4. Uttarakhand

Answer: (C) Sikkim

Explanation: Tsomgo is a glacial lake in Sikkim, situated near Gangtok in the Eastern Himalayas. Its location is an important state-geography identification point. The lake is associated with high-altitude terrain and is distinct from lakes in Ladakh and Uttarakhand.

Q30. What is the state animal of West Bengal?

[West Bengal Teacher Eligibility Test Paper I (2022), 2022]

1. Fishing cat
2. Squirrel
3. Royal Bengal tiger
4. Ganges river dolphin

Answer: (A) Fishing cat

Explanation: The fishing cat, Prionailurus viverrinus, is West Bengal’s official state animal. Although the Royal Bengal tiger is strongly associated with the Sundarbans, the tiger is India’s national animal, not West Bengal’s state animal. The distinction is important in static GK.

Q29. Which constitutional amendment conferred statehood on Goa?

[SSC CGL Tier I (12 Apr 2022, Shift 2; 2021 cycle), 2022]

1. 52nd Amendment
2. 56th Amendment
3. 59th Amendment
4. 48th Amendment

Answer: (B) 56th Amendment

Explanation: The Constitution’s Fifty-sixth Amendment Act, 1987 facilitated Goa’s statehood, effective 30 May 1987. Daman and Diu remained a separate Union Territory at that time. Goa became the twenty-fifth state of the Indian Union.

Q28. A State Governor holds office during whose pleasure?

[OSSC Combined Graduate Level (13 Oct 2022), 2022]

1. Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. State Chief Minister
4. High Court Chief Justice

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: Article 156 provides that a Governor holds office during the President’s pleasure. Although the normal term is five years, it is not an unconditional guarantee. Governors are constitutional heads of states, distinct from their elected chief ministers.

Q27. Which animal is recognized as India’s National Heritage Animal?

[SSC MTS (22 Oct 2021, Shift 3; 2020 cycle), 2021]

1. Lion
2. Horse
3. Tiger
4. Elephant

Answer: (D) Elephant

Explanation: The Indian elephant was declared the National Heritage Animal in 2010, drawing attention to its ecological, cultural and historical importance. This designation is separate from the national animal, the tiger, and from the national aquatic animal, the Ganges river dolphin.

Q26. Which state among these has a Legislative Council?

[SSC MTS (18 Oct 2021, Shift 2; 2020 cycle), 2021]

1. West Bengal
2. Gujarat
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Tamil Nadu

Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh possesses an upper house called the Vidhan Parishad alongside its Legislative Assembly. West Bengal, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu have unicameral state legislatures. The creation or abolition of a Legislative Council is governed by Article 169.

Q25. The dugong is the state animal of which Union Territory?

[SSC GD Constable (26 Nov 2021, Shift 2), 2021]

1. Former Daman and Diu
2. Puducherry
3. Ladakh
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer: (D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation: The dugong is the official animal of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. This marine mammal grazes on seagrasses in shallow coastal waters. It should not be confused with the Ganges river dolphin, designated as India’s national aquatic animal.

Q24. Under the Andhra State Act of 1953, the first Indian state organised principally on what basis was formed?

[SSC GD Constable (06 Dec 2021, Shift 3), 2021]

1. Second linguistic state
2. First linguistic state
3. Fourth linguistic state
4. Third linguistic state

Answer: (B) First linguistic state

Explanation: The Andhra State Act, 1953 created the first state following a major linguistic reorganisation demand after Independence. It separated Telugu-speaking areas from Madras State. The later States Reorganisation Act of 1956 created a larger Andhra Pradesh.

Q23. Which State had the greatest population density according to Census 2011?

[SSC GD Constable (30 Nov 2021, Shift 3), 2021]

1. Sikkim
2. Bihar
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (B) Bihar

Explanation: Bihar was the most densely populated Indian state under the 2011 Census, at roughly 1,106 people per square kilometre. Delhi had a higher density but is a Union Territory, not a state. Population density is distinct from total population.

Q22. Which was the least populous Indian State in Census 2011?

[SSC GD Constable (24 Nov 2021, Shift 2), 2021]

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Sikkim
3. Mizoram
4. Goa

Answer: (B) Sikkim

Explanation: Sikkim recorded about 610,577 people in Census 2011 and ranked last among states by population. Goa ranked smallest by state area instead. The distinction between least populated state, smallest state and smallest Union Territory is often tested.

Q21. How many other Indian States or Union Territories touch Uttar Pradesh?

[SSC MTS (26 Oct 2021, Shift 2; 2020 cycle), 2021]

1. Five
2. Seven
3. Ten
4. Nine

Answer: (D) Nine

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh touches eight states—Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Bihar—plus Delhi, a Union Territory. That makes nine neighbouring Indian states or UTs. It also has an international boundary with Nepal.

Q20. Which Schedule distributes subjects into Union, State and Concurrent Lists?

[SSC CGL Tier I (23 Aug 2021, Shift 1; 2020 cycle), 2021]

1. Third Schedule
2. Seventh Schedule
3. First Schedule
4. Fourth Schedule

Answer: (B) Seventh Schedule

Explanation: The Seventh Schedule specifies three legislative lists dividing responsibilities between Parliament and state legislatures. The First Schedule concerns States and Union Territories, while the Fourth addresses Rajya Sabha seat allocation. Thus legislative powers are tied to the Seventh.

Q19. Which statement about Indian States is incorrect?

[RRB NTPC CBT I (17 Feb 2021, Shift 2), 2021]

1. Mizoram’s capital is Kohima
2. Rajasthan is the largest State by area
3. Sikkim is the least populous State
4. Telangana was formed on 2 June 2014

Answer: (A) Mizoram’s capital is Kohima

Explanation: Kohima is Nagaland’s capital, whereas Mizoram’s capital is Aizawl. Rajasthan is the largest state by area and Sikkim the least populous according to Census 2011. Telangana officially came into existence on 2 June 2014.

Q18. Which was the most populous State according to Census 2011?

[UPPSC Combined State Exam GS I (24 Oct 2021), 2021]

1. Bihar
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh had approximately 19.98 crore residents in Census 2011 and led all Indian states in total population. Maharashtra ranked second. Rajasthan, though the largest in area, was not the most populous State; area and population have different rankings.

Q17. How many Indian states border West Bengal?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination (2020), 2020]

1. Four
2. Six
3. Five
4. Three

Answer: (C) Five

Explanation: West Bengal shares interstate boundaries with Sikkim, Assam, Bihar, Jharkhand and Odisha, making five states. It also has international borders with Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan. These two categories—domestic states and neighbouring countries—must be counted separately.

Q16. Which action falls under Article 2 rather than Parliament’s powers under Article 3?

[UPPSC Civil Services GS I (2020), 2020]

1. Form a new State from an existing State
2. Alter a State’s area
3. Alter a State’s boundary
4. Admit a new State into the Union

Answer: (D) Admit a new State into the Union

Explanation: Article 3 deals with forming states by rearranging existing territory and changing areas, boundaries or names. Article 2 concerns admitting or establishing states. The difference matters when questions distinguish internal reorganisation from admission of a new State.

Q15. At which Indian National Congress session was Vande Mataram first sung?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination (2019), 2019]

1. 1920
2. 1906
3. 1896
4. 1922

Answer: (C) 1896

Explanation: Vande Mataram, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, was sung at the 1896 Congress session in Calcutta. It later became India’s national song. This history differs from the adoption of Jana Gana Mana as the national anthem in 1950.

Q14. Among Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha and Assam, which has the longest border with West Bengal?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination (2019), 2019]

1. Jharkhand
2. Bihar
3. Odisha
4. Assam

Answer: (A) Jharkhand

Explanation: West Bengal shares borders with all four listed states, but Jharkhand has the longest adjoining interstate boundary among them. The state’s unusual north-south shape also brings it into contact with Sikkim and with three foreign countries.

Q13. On which date was Jana Gana Mana adopted as India’s National Anthem?

[SSC MTS (07 Aug 2019, Shift 1), 2019]

1. 24 January 1950
2. 26 January 1950
3. 2 October 1948
4. 15 August 1947

Answer: (A) 24 January 1950

Explanation: The Constituent Assembly adopted Jana Gana Mana as the national anthem on 24 January 1950, shortly before the Constitution came into force. Rabindranath Tagore wrote the original composition in Bengali; it was publicly performed in 1911.

Q12. What is the national aquatic animal of India?

[SSC GD Constable (15 Feb 2019, Shift 2), 2019]

1. Whale
2. Turtle
3. Seahorse
4. Ganges river dolphin

Answer: (D) Ganges river dolphin

Explanation: The Ganges river dolphin is India’s national aquatic animal and is associated with freshwater river systems, especially the Ganga-Brahmaputra network. Its conservation highlights river health, pollution control and habitat protection. The designation is distinct from the elephant’s heritage status.

Q11. Who proposed the resolution describing India’s tricolour and central navy-blue wheel in the Constituent Assembly?

[UPSC NDA General Ability Test (22 Apr 2018), 2018]

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. B. R. Ambedkar
3. Rajendra Prasad
4. Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru moved the national flag resolution on 22 July 1947. The adopted flag consists of saffron, white and green bands with a navy-blue Ashoka Chakra at its centre. This was before India formally gained Independence in August.

Q10. By which constitutional amendment was Sikkim admitted as a full State of India?

[UPSC CDS General Knowledge (04 Feb 2018), 2018]

1. 35th
2. 36th
3. 37th
4. 38th

Answer: (B) 36th

Explanation: The Thirty-sixth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 made Sikkim a full State of the Indian Union. The earlier Thirty-fifth Amendment had created an intermediate associate-state arrangement. Sikkim’s capital is Gangtok and it is a Himalayan border state.

Q9. What is Rajasthan’s official state bird?

[RPSC Assistant Engineer DLB (2016), 2016]

1. Great Indian bustard (Godawan)
2. Owl
3. Crane
4. Sarus crane

Answer: (A) Great Indian bustard (Godawan)

Explanation: The Great Indian bustard, locally called Godawan, is Rajasthan’s state bird. It inhabits dry grasslands and desert landscapes and faces serious conservation threats. Rajasthan’s animal symbols include the chinkara and camel, representing its wildlife and desert heritage.

Q8. Put Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Karnataka in descending order of area.

[MPPSC State Service General Studies (2016), 2016]

1. Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka
2. Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
3. Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
4. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu

Answer: (C) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Rajasthan is largest among the four states, followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. This ordering uses their geographic areas, not population. The question rewards knowing both comparative size and the difference between state and Union Territory rankings.

Q7. What majority is ordinarily needed in Parliament to pass a law creating a new State?

[UPPSC Civil Services GS I (2016), 2016]

1. Simple majority plus ratification by two-thirds of States
2. Simple majority in Parliament
3. Two-thirds parliamentary majority plus State ratification
4. None of these

Answer: (B) Simple majority in Parliament

Explanation: A new-state law under Articles 3 and 4 is passed by a simple majority of Parliament. The President’s recommendation and consultation with affected state legislatures are procedural requirements, but states do not possess a binding veto over the reorganisation.

Q6. Kolkata, the capital of West Bengal, lies comparatively near which major latitude?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination (2015), 2015]

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle

Answer: (B) Tropic of Cancer

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer crosses West Bengal north of Kolkata through parts of the state. Kolkata itself is situated at about 22.6 degrees north, a short distance south of the Tropic near 23.4 degrees north.

Q5. Which is the correct order of statehood: Nagaland, Haryana, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh?

[UPSC CSE Prelims GS I (2007), 2007]

1. Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Haryana
2. Nagaland, Haryana, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh
3. Sikkim, Haryana, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh
4. Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Haryana

Answer: (B) Nagaland, Haryana, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Nagaland became a State in 1963, Haryana in 1966, Sikkim in 1975 and Arunachal Pradesh in 1987. This chronological sequence reflects different constitutional and legislative processes through which India’s map evolved after Independence.

Q4. Which territories border Uttar Pradesh: 1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan 3. Chhattisgarh 4. Jharkhand?

[UPSC CSE Prelims GS I (2005), 2005]

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 1 and 3

Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh shares borders with Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand, but not Punjab. Haryana and Delhi intervene to the west. The 2005 UPSC question requires recognizing actual state boundaries rather than relying only on regional proximity.

Q3. Which statement about Goa, Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli is incorrect?

[UPSC CSE Prelims GS I (2000), 2000]

1. Goa gained statehood in 1987
2. Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
3. Daman and Diu separated from Goa in 1987
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was under French rule until 1954

Answer: (D) Dadra and Nagar Haveli was under French rule until 1954

Explanation: Dadra and Nagar Haveli was formerly Portuguese, not French, territory; local liberation occurred in 1954. Goa gained statehood in 1987, leaving Daman and Diu a separate Union Territory. The question tests colonial history tied to Union Territory formation.

Q2. Under Article 3, which assertions are incorrect:
1. Parliament may enlarge a State;
2. Parliament may reduce it;
3. Parliament cannot change boundaries;
4. Parliament cannot rename a State?

[UPSC CSE Prelims GS I (1994), 1994]

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. None

Answer: (C) 3 and 4

Explanation: Article 3 expressly permits Parliament to increase or diminish state territory, alter boundaries and change state names. Hence claims that Parliament cannot alter boundaries or names are incorrect. The constitutional procedure includes a presidential recommendation and consultation with the state concerned.

Q1. Which pair of northeastern States was NOT carved out from Assam: Manipur-Meghalaya, Mizoram-Tripura, Arunachal-Nagaland or Manipur-Tripura?

[UPSC CSE Prelims GS I (1992), 1992]

1. Manipur and Meghalaya
2. Mizoram and Tripura
3. Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
4. Manipur and Tripura

Answer: (D) Manipur and Tripura

Explanation: Manipur and Tripura were former princely states and were not carved out of Assam. By contrast, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh have histories involving separation from Assam or the former North-East Frontier administrative region. This was asked in 1992.