Q40. Which of the following describes India as a “Secular State”?
[RSMSSB Forester, 28 June 2026]
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Directive Principles
Answer: (A) Preamble
Explanation: The Preamble expressly calls India a secular republic. This indicates that the State has no official religion and must respect religious freedom and equality. Although several Fundamental Rights safeguard secularism, the explicit constitutional description appears in the Preamble.
Q39. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble of the Constitution of India were:
[DSSSB Court Attendant, 27 June 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Added by the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971
(B) Added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
(C) Originally included in the Preamble adopted in 1949
(D) Added through the Kesavananda Bharati judgment
Answer: (B) Added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted “Socialist” and “Secular” into the Preamble. It also added “Integrity” to the phrase concerning national unity. The Preamble originally described India as a sovereign democratic republic without these inserted words.
Q38. Which constitutional provision specifies Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution of India?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 20 June 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 352
(D) Article 370
Answer: (B) Article 368
Explanation: Article 368 in Part XX establishes Parliament’s constituent power and the prescribed procedure for constitutional amendments. Some changes additionally require ratification by at least half the State legislatures. This qualified procedure contributes to the Constitution’s blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Q37. Which statement about the Emergency provisions of the Indian Constitution is correct?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 19 June 2026, Shift 2]
(A) They formalise a constitutional amendment
(B) They allow federalism to function completely unchanged
(C) They convert India into a monarchy
(D) They can convert the federal system into a unitary one
Answer: (D) They can convert the federal system into a unitary one
Explanation: Emergency provisions give the Union government exceptional authority in constitutionally specified situations. During a National Emergency, the federal distribution of powers becomes more centralised, giving the system a unitary tendency without permanently abolishing the States or rewriting India’s constitutional framework.
Q36. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment is popularly known as:
[SSC GD Constable, 26 May 2026, Shift 3]
(A) Mini Constitution
(B) Federal Amendment
(C) Panchayati Raj Amendment
(D) Fundamental Rights Amendment
Answer: (A) Mini Constitution
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is called the Mini Constitution because it introduced extensive constitutional changes. These included changes to the Preamble, the insertion of Fundamental Duties, and multiple revisions affecting institutions and constitutional relationships. Several changes were later modified.
Q35. Which model of citizenship does India follow under its Constitution?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 9 May 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Two levels: national and regional
(B) Three levels: local, State and national
(C) One level: Indian citizenship only
(D) Two levels: national and State
Answer: (C) One level: Indian citizenship only
Explanation: India provides single citizenship even though government is divided between the Union and the States. A person is an Indian citizen, not separately a citizen of an individual State. This unitary feature supports equal national membership and political integration.
Q34. With reference to the Preamble, consider the following statements:
(1) “Secular” precedes “Socialist”.
(2) “Justice” precedes “Equality”.
(3) “Fraternity” follows “Liberty”.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CDS-II, General Knowledge, 14 September 2025]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The Preamble places “Socialist” before “Secular”; therefore statement 1 is incorrect. Its stated objectives then proceed through Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity. Thus Justice precedes Equality and Fraternity follows Liberty, making statements 2 and 3 correct.
Q33. The division of powers between the Union and State governments is a feature of which system?
[SSC Selection Post, Higher Secondary, 29 August 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Unitary system
(B) Confederal system
(C) Federal system
(D) Presidential system
Answer: (C) Federal system
Explanation: Federalism constitutionally distributes governmental authority between two levels. India’s Seventh Schedule contains Union, State and Concurrent Lists that allocate legislative subjects. This federal arrangement coexists with strong central powers, which is why India is often described as a federation with unitary features.
Q32. Why is the Indian Constitution frequently described as quasi-federal or federal in form but unitary in spirit?
[SSC Stenographer, 8 August 2025, Shift 1]
(A) States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha
(B) The Constitution is written
(C) The Union government has strong centralising powers
(D) The judiciary is independent
Answer: (C) The Union government has strong centralising powers
Explanation: India combines the federal division of authority with centralising arrangements such as emergency powers, single citizenship and centrally appointed Governors. Its written Constitution and independent judiciary support federalism, but the Union’s stronger position explains the expression “quasi-federal”.
Q31. Which of the following are NOT federal features of the Indian Constitution?
(a) All-India Services
(b) Single judiciary
(c) Independent judiciary
(d) Division of powers
[MPSC Group C Prelims (2024 paper), held 1 June 2025]
(A) (a) and (c) only
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) (c) and (d) only
Answer: (B) (a) and (b) only
Explanation: All-India Services and an integrated judicial system strengthen administrative unity across India and are regarded as unitary elements. In contrast, an independent judiciary and a constitutionally defined division of powers are classic federal characteristics that help protect governmental autonomy.
Q30. India’s description as a Union despite having a federal structure was influenced by which Constitution?
[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Political Science Paper II, 1 June 2025]
(A) American Constitution
(B) South African Constitution
(C) French Constitution
(D) Canadian Constitution
Answer: (D) Canadian Constitution
Explanation: Canada offered the framers a model of federation with a strong Centre. India similarly uses the concept of a Union rather than a voluntary agreement between independent States. This design gives importance to national unity while retaining State governments and allocated powers.
Q29. Considering its amendment procedure, how should the Indian Constitution be characterised?
[Odisha B.Ed. Entrance (Arts), 1 June 2025]
(A) Flexible
(B) Partly rigid and partly flexible
(C) Rigid
(D) Democratic
Answer: (B) Partly rigid and partly flexible
Explanation: Constitutional change in India follows different procedures depending on the subject. Some provisions can be altered through ordinary legislation, while others require special parliamentary majorities or State ratification. Accordingly, the Constitution is neither fully rigid nor wholly flexible.
Q28. Which of the following is a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
[SSC MTS, 11 November 2024, Shift 2]
(A) Bicameralism
(B) Integrated judiciary
(C) Single citizenship
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) Bicameralism
Explanation: India’s Parliament has two Houses: the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha represents the States within the national legislature, making bicameralism an important federal feature. Single citizenship and the integrated judiciary, on the other hand, are generally classified as unitary features.
Q27. Which Articles of the Constitution provide for the parliamentary form of government at the Centre?
[SSC MTS, 7 October 2024, Shift 3]
(A) Articles 74 and 75
(B) Articles 71 and 72
(C) Articles 79 and 80
(D) Articles 76 and 77
Answer: (A) Articles 74 and 75
Explanation: Article 74 provides for a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. Article 75 deals with ministerial appointments and collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha. Together these provisions underpin responsible parliamentary government at the Union level.
Q26. Which feature of the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Irish Constitution?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 13 September 2024, Shift 1]
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Concurrent List
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Rule of Law
Answer: (A) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by Ireland and appear in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. They guide governmental policy towards public welfare and social justice. Unlike Fundamental Rights, these constitutional principles are not directly enforceable by courts.
Q25. Secularism as a feature of the Indian Constitution means that:
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 4 July 2024, Shift 1]
(A) The State promotes the majority religion
(B) The State does not promote any particular religion
(C) The State may promote whichever religion it chooses
(D) The State promotes minority religions
Answer: (B) The State does not promote any particular religion
Explanation: A secular State does not adopt or favour any particular religion as its official faith. Indian constitutional secularism protects freedom of conscience and religious practice while permitting lawful regulation and social reform. It seeks equal citizenship irrespective of religious belief.
Q24. Under Article 368, Parliament may amend a constitutional provision by which of these methods: (1) addition, (2) variation, (3) repeal?
[UPSC CSE Prelims, General Studies Paper I, 2024]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Article 368 expressly permits amendments through addition, variation or repeal, subject to its prescribed procedure. However, this power is limited by the judicially recognised basic structure doctrine. Parliament cannot use an amendment to destroy the Constitution’s essential features.
Q23. Consider the statements:
(1) India comprises 28 States and 8 Union Territories.
(2) India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic with a parliamentary system.
Which is/are correct?
[CGPSC State Services Prelims, 11 February 2024, Paper I]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Both statements were correct for the examination period. India had 28 States and eight Union Territories. Its Preamble declares the country sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic and republican, while its institutions operate through a parliamentary system with ministers responsible to the legislature.
Q22. Which is the correct sequence of these words in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
[UPPSC RO/ARO, General Studies, 11 February 2024]
(A) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic
(B) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
(C) Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic
(D) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic
Answer: (B) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
Explanation: The Preamble describes India in the sequence “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic”. “Sovereign” signifies independence; “Socialist” expresses a commitment to social and economic justice; “Secular” reflects religious neutrality; and “Democratic” recognises government based on the people’s consent.
Q21. Which of the following is the correct statement appearing in the Constitution of India?
[WBCS Mains 2023, Polity and Economy (exam year 2023)]
(A) India shall be a Federation of States
(B) India shall be a Union of States
(C) India shall be a Quasi-Federal State
(D) India shall be a Unitary State
Answer: (B) India shall be a Union of States
Explanation: Article 1 begins, “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The expression underlines the enduring character of the Indian Union. The Constitution allocates powers federally, but the States do not possess a constitutional right to secede.
Q20. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Preamble of which country’s Constitution?
[WBCS Mains 2023, Polity and Economy (exam year 2023)]
(A) United States of America
(B) Switzerland
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Canada
Answer: (A) United States of America
Explanation: The Indian Preamble drew inspiration from the United States’ constitutional preamble, notably its people-centred opening. India’s own underlying aims were developed through the Objectives Resolution. The Preamble articulates the State’s nature and its commitments to justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.
Q19. Under Article 217(1), a judge of the Rajasthan High Court other than its Chief Justice is appointed by the President after consultation with whom?
[RPSC RAS Prelims 2023]
(A) The High Court Chief Justice, Attorney General and Governor
(B) The Governor, Chief Justice of India and High Court Chief Justice
(C) The Union Law Minister and Governor
(D) The Chief Justice of India and Governor only
Answer: (B) The Governor, Chief Justice of India and High Court Chief Justice
Explanation: The Constitution requires consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the State Governor and, for appointments other than the High Court Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of that High Court. Such constitutional arrangements are part of the institutional framework supporting judicial independence.
Q18. The Indian Constitution is a unique blend of _______ and flexibility.
[Delhi Police Head Constable (Ministerial), 20 October 2022, Shift 2]
(A) Conformity
(B) Rigidity
(C) Durability
(D) Uniformity
Answer: (B) Rigidity
Explanation: Rigidity refers to comparatively demanding procedures for making constitutional changes; flexibility means certain provisions are easier to alter. India combines both approaches. Article 368 requires special majorities for many amendments and State ratification for specified federal matters, preserving stability while allowing reform.
Q17. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution was adopted from the United States?
[RRB Group D, 24 August 2022, Shift 3]
(A) Parliamentary government
(B) Procedure established by law
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Fundamental Duties
Answer: (C) Fundamental Rights
Explanation: The framers took inspiration for constitutionally guaranteed Fundamental Rights from the United States. Parliamentary government reflects the British model, “procedure established by law” was influenced by Japan, and Fundamental Duties were inspired by the former Soviet Constitution.
Q16. Which constitutional feature means that governments exist both at the Centre and at the State level?
[RRB Group D, 22 August 2022, Shift 1]
(A) Parliamentary form of government
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Secularism
(D) Federalism
Answer: (D) Federalism
Explanation: Federalism establishes two constitutional levels of government, each exercising assigned authority. In India, the Union and States draw their powers from the Constitution. The Seventh Schedule allocates subjects, while courts can resolve disputes about constitutional competence and authority.
Q15. Which of the following is non-justiciable?
[WBCS Mains 2021, Paper V, held May 2022]
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Criminal Procedure Code
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: Directive Principles, contained in Part IV, guide the State towards socioeconomic welfare but cannot ordinarily be enforced directly by courts. They remain fundamental in governance under Article 37. Fundamental Rights differ because individuals can seek judicial remedies for their infringement.
Q14. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Constitution of India?
[UPSC NDA-II, General Ability Test, 14 November 2021]
(A) It provides basic rules
(B) It specifies governmental powers
(C) It is the supreme law of the land
(D) It establishes the supremacy of the judiciary
Answer: (D) It establishes the supremacy of the judiciary
Explanation: The Constitution is supreme over the legislature, executive and judiciary. Courts have vital powers of interpretation and judicial review, but they are not placed above the Constitution. Each institution must operate within its own constitutional powers and limitations.
Q13. What does “constitutional government” mean?
[UPSC CSE Prelims, General Studies Paper I, 10 October 2021]
(A) A representative government necessarily having a federal structure
(B) A government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(C) A government whose Head enjoys real powers
(D) A government limited by the Constitution
Answer: (D) A government limited by the Constitution
Explanation: Constitutional government means public authority is exercised under established constitutional limits rather than arbitrary discretion. Its defining principle is limited government. Such a government may be parliamentary or presidential, and federal or unitary, provided its powers are legally constrained.
Q12. Which statement about the Constitution of India is NOT correct?
[UPSC NDA-I, General Ability Test, 18 April 2021]
(A) “Socialist” and “Secular” were not originally included
(B) The Preamble states constitutional objectives
(C) The Preamble is enforceable in a court of law
(D) A republic ultimately derives authority from the people
Answer: (C) The Preamble is enforceable in a court of law
Explanation: The Preamble communicates constitutional ideals and helps guide interpretation, but it does not independently create enforceable legal rights. It forms part of the Constitution and may illuminate unclear provisions. Courts enforce operative constitutional provisions rather than the Preamble by itself.
Q11. Who described the Indian Constitution as neither purely federal nor unitary, but as a novel combination of both?
[MPSC State Service Mains 2020, General Studies II]
(A) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
(B) K. C. Wheare
(C) Durga Das Basu
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: (C) Durga Das Basu
Explanation: Constitutional scholar Durga Das Basu characterised India’s arrangement as combining federal and unitary principles in an unusual form. The States possess constitutionally assigned powers, yet the Union enjoys significant supremacy in specified matters. This balance distinguishes India from classical federations.
Q10. Who described India as a “quasi-federal State”?
[UPPSC Civil Services Prelims, General Studies I, 2019]
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) Ivor Jennings
(C) Harold Laski
(D) K. C. Wheare
Answer: (D) K. C. Wheare
Explanation: K. C. Wheare described the Indian Constitution as quasi-federal because it incorporates federal machinery alongside substantial centralising provisions. Distribution of powers, an independent judiciary and a written Constitution coexist with single citizenship, emergency arrangements and strong Union authority.
Q9. Assertion (A): India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. Reason (R): “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted between “Sovereign” and “Democratic” by the 42nd Amendment, 1976. Choose the correct answer.
[CGPSC State Services Prelims, Paper I, 2019]
(A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer: (B) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
Explanation: Both statements are factually true. The 42nd Amendment inserted the two terms into the Preamble. However, the historical fact of their insertion alone does not explain the complete constitutional character asserted, which also includes sovereignty, democracy and republicanism.
Q8. Which system of government was adopted by India?
[CTET Paper II, Social Studies, December 2018]
(A) Parliamentary and unitary
(B) Presidential and federal
(C) Presidential and unitary
(D) Parliamentary and federal
Answer: (D) Parliamentary and federal
Explanation: India follows parliamentary government, with a Council of Ministers accountable to the directly elected House, alongside a federal division of governmental powers. The Constitution also includes substantial unitary characteristics, so its federal arrangement is not identical to the American model.
Q7. In which case did the Supreme Court first hold that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution’s basic structure?
[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Political Science II, 11 July 2017]
(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: The Kesavananda Bharati judgment of 1973 established the basic structure doctrine. It recognised broad parliamentary power to amend the Constitution while protecting its foundational characteristics from destruction. Judicial review, constitutional supremacy and democratic principles are among recognised basic features.
Q6. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Indian federalism?
[UPSC CSE Prelims, General Studies Paper I, 2017]
(A) An independent judiciary exists
(B) Powers are divided between Centre and States
(C) States have unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha
(D) The federation arose from an agreement among States
Answer: (D) The federation arose from an agreement among States
Explanation: India’s federation was not created by a compact between previously independent States. Article 1 therefore describes an enduring Union of States. Its independent judiciary, divided constitutional powers and unequal State representation in the Rajya Sabha are all consistent with India’s distinctive federal arrangement.
Q5. Which of these are unitary elements in Indian federalism: (i) written Constitution, (ii) rigid Constitution, (iii) constitutional supremacy, (iv) Governor’s appointment, (v) decentralisation, (vi) President’s assent to State bills, (vii) constitutional emergencies, (viii) one Supreme Court?
[CGPSC State Services Prelims, Paper I, 2017]
(A) i, iii and vii
(B) ii, v and viii
(C) i, ii and v
(D) iv, vi and vii
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) iv, vi and vii
Explanation: The centrally appointed Governor, presidential consideration of certain State bills and emergency powers strengthen the Union’s control and represent unitary elements. Written constitutional rules, division of powers and constitutional supremacy are usually associated with federalism rather than its centralising characteristics.
Q4. Consider: (1) Article 368 provides the procedure for constitutional amendment. (2) Every constitutional amendment requires the consent of the States. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
[UPSC NDA-I, General Ability Test, 17 April 2016]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: Article 368 sets out the constitutional amendment mechanism, making statement 1 correct. State ratification is necessary only for specified amendments affecting federal provisions, and approval by at least half the States suffices. Therefore, not every constitutional amendment needs State consent.
Q3. Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Constitution of India?
[UPSC NDA-I, General Ability Test, 19 April 2015]
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Independence of the judiciary
(C) Federalism
(D) Parliament’s unquestioned right to amend every part of the Constitution
Answer: (D) Parliament’s unquestioned right to amend every part of the Constitution
Explanation: Parliament has wide powers under Article 368 but cannot destroy the Constitution’s basic structure. The judiciary established this limitation in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Constitutional fundamentals such as federalism, judicial independence and protection of essential rights cannot be eliminated through amendment.
Q2. Consider: (1) A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (2) Changes affecting the federal character require ratification by all State legislatures. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims, General Studies Paper I, 2013]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Constitution Amendment Bills can originate in either House of Parliament, so statement 1 is false. For specified federal provisions, approval by at least half of the State legislatures is required, not every State. Consequently both statements are incorrect.
Q1. In Indian polity, which one is supreme?
[45th BPSC Prelims, held in 2002]
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Constitution
(C) Parliament
(D) Religion
Answer: (B) Constitution
Explanation: The Constitution is India’s supreme legal authority. Parliament legislates within constitutional limits, while courts interpret and enforce those limits through judicial review. Neither institution is sovereign above the Constitution. This supremacy is central to constitutional government and the rule of law.