President of India

VidyaarOctober 16, 20260124 views

Q150. Consider the former Presidents of India:
1. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan;
2. Dr. Zakir Hussain;
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy.

How many of them also served as Vice-President of India?

[UPSC CDS-I 2026, General Knowledge (12 April 2026)]

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

Answer: (C) Two

Explanation: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and Zakir Hussain both served as Vice-President before becoming President. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy did not hold the vice-presidency; he earlier served as Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Thus exactly two names meet the condition.

Q149. Arrange the following in order of precedence:
1. Chief Justice of India;
2. Governors within their respective States;
3. Former Presidents;
4. Deputy Prime Minister.

[UPSC CDS-I 2026, General Knowledge (12 April 2026)]

(A) 1, 3, 4, 2

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(D) 2, 3, 1, 4

Answer: (B) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation: The official Table of Precedence ranks Governors within their own States ahead of former Presidents, followed by the Deputy Prime Minister and the Chief Justice of India. This table determines ceremonial precedence and does not define constitutional authority.

Q148. The President of India can be impeached for violation of the Constitution under which Article?

[SSC MTS 2025, held 6 February 2026 (Shift 1)]

(A) Article 60

(B) Article 61

(D) Article 55

Answer: (B) Article 61

Explanation: Article 61 prescribes the procedure for impeaching the President for violating the Constitution. Either House of Parliament may initiate the charge, subject to constitutional notice and majority requirements. Article 60 instead concerns the presidential oath or affirmation.

Q147. Under which Article was Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai appointed to perform the duties of Chief Justice of the Sikkim High Court in December 2025?

[RRB Group D, held 6 February 2026 (Shift 1)]

(A) Article 223

(B) Article 217

(D) Article 124

Answer: (A) Article 223

Explanation: Article 223 authorises the President to appoint an acting Chief Justice of a High Court when that office is vacant or its holder cannot perform duties. It differs from Article 217, which governs appointments of High Court judges generally.

Q146. The President is elected by an electoral college, whereas the Governor of a State is ______.

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II, held 19 January 2026]

(A) Directly elected by the people

(B) Appointed by the President

(D) Chosen by the State Legislative Assembly

Answer: (B) Appointed by the President

Explanation: The President of India appoints State Governors under Article 155. A Governor is not chosen through a direct popular vote or a State Assembly election. Presidential elections, by contrast, involve elected legislators through a constitutionally specified electoral college.

Q145. What is the minimum age required to contest an election for the office of President of India?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II, held 19 January 2026]

(A) 35 years

(B) 30 years

(D) 40 years

Answer: (A) 35 years

Explanation: Article 58 requires a presidential candidate to have completed 35 years of age, hold Indian citizenship and be qualified for election to the Lok Sabha. Holding a disqualifying office of profit ordinarily prevents eligibility, subject to specified exceptions.

Q144. Consider the statements:
1. C. P. Radhakrishnan took charge as Vice-President on 12 September 2025.
2. Unlike the presidential electoral college, the vice-presidential electoral college includes nominated members of Parliament.

Which is correct?

[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II, held 19 January 2026]

(A) Both statements

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Statement 1 only

Answer: (A) Both statements

Explanation: The Vice-President is elected by members of both parliamentary Houses, including nominated members, under Article 66. The presidential electoral college excludes nominated MPs. C. P. Radhakrishnan assumed the vice-presidency on 12 September 2025, making both statements correct.

2025

Q143. Consider the following statements about the pardoning power of the President of India:
I. Its exercise can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise it without the advice of the Central Government.

Which is/are correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2025]

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Answer: (A) I only

Explanation: Presidential clemency under Article 72 is normally exercised on the Union Council of Ministers’ advice. Courts may review a decision on limited grounds such as mala fides, arbitrariness or irrelevant considerations; they do not ordinarily reassess the merits of the punishment.

Q142. Consider these statements about the Central Vigilance Commission:
1. Its Commissioner is appointed by the President.
2. The Union Home Minister sits on the recommending committee.
3. In specified circumstances, the leader of the largest opposition group in the Lok Sabha may sit on that committee.

How many are correct?

[UPSC CDS-I 2025, General Studies (13 April 2025)]

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

Answer: (D) Three

Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President on a recommendation from a committee led by the Prime Minister. The committee includes the Home Minister and the recognised opposition leader, or an eligible largest-opposition-group leader where the relevant office is vacant.

Q141. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can President’s Rule be proclaimed in a State?

[SSC CGL 2025, 26 September (Shift 1)]

(A) Article 352

(B) Article 356

(D) Article 371

Answer: (B) Article 356

Explanation: Article 356 enables the President to issue a proclamation when constitutional governance in a State cannot be carried on according to the Constitution. Such a proclamation is subject to parliamentary approval. Article 352 concerns national emergencies, not ordinary President’s Rule.

Q140. What is the constitutional implication of Article 356 concerning the President’s power and parliamentary safeguards?

[SSC CGL 2025, 26 September (Shift 1)]

(A) Dissolution of Parliament without approval

(B) Assumption of State-government functions subject to parliamentary approval within two months

(D) Suspension of all fundamental rights with Supreme Court approval

Answer: (B) Assumption of State-government functions subject to parliamentary approval within two months

Explanation: Article 356 permits a presidential proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in a State. It must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months, subject to the constitutional exception where the Lok Sabha stands dissolved.

Q139. Which constitutional Article enables the President to establish an Inter-State Council?

[SSC CGL 2025, 13 September (Shift 1)]

(A) Article 263

(B) Article 264

(D) Article 262

Answer: (A) Article 263

Explanation: Article 263 authorises the President to establish an Inter-State Council when public interest would be served. The council can investigate disputes, discuss shared subjects and recommend coordinated policy. Article 262, by contrast, addresses inter-State water disputes.

Q138. Consider the statements:
1. The Solicitor General of India is appointed by the President.
2. A presidential candidate must deposit ₹15,000 as security.

Which is correct?

[SSC CGL 2025, 14 September (Shift 1)]

(A) Statement 1 only

(B) Statement 2 only

(D) Neither statement

Answer: (B) Statement 2 only

Explanation: The Solicitor General is a government law officer appointed under executive arrangements, not a constitutional officer appointed by the President. A candidate for President must lodge a ₹15,000 security deposit when filing the nomination papers, making only the second statement correct.

Q137. Under Article 255, what is the effect of not obtaining a required prior presidential recommendation before a law is passed?

[SSC CGL 2025, 13 September (Shift 2)]

(A) The law is automatically void

(B) The recommendation must always be repeated verbatim in the Act

(D) The President must assent before Parliament passes the Bill

Answer: (C) The procedural omission need not invalidate the Act when the required assent is eventually given

Explanation: Article 255 treats specified requirements of previous recommendation or sanction as procedural. An Act is not invalid solely because the recommendation was missing, provided the appropriate constitutional assent is ultimately given. This protects legislation from certain procedural defects.

Q136. Consider the statements:
1. A State law on a Concurrent List subject, reserved for and assented to by the President, may prevail over an earlier conflicting Union law within that State.
2. Parliament may subsequently override it.

Which is correct?

[SSC CGL 2025, 15 September (Shift 2)]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Article 254(2) permits a State law on a Concurrent List subject to operate despite repugnancy to an earlier central law if presidential assent is obtained. Parliament retains power to enact a later law overriding or modifying that State provision.

Q135. For how many years does the President of India hold office?

[SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-I, 17 November (Shift 1)]

(A) Three years

(B) Four years

(D) Six years

Answer: (C) Five years

Explanation: Article 56 fixes the presidential term at five years from the date of entering office. The President can be re-elected and ordinarily continues until a successor assumes office, preventing a vacancy merely because the term has expired.

Q134. What is the normal term of office of the President of India?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 14 August (Shift 3)]

(A) Five years

(B) Until removed by Parliament

(D) Four years

Answer: (A) Five years

Explanation: The Constitution establishes a five-year term for the President under Article 56. Removal before completion is possible through the special impeachment procedure, but this does not make the tenure indefinite. Re-election for another term is constitutionally permissible.

Q133. Which Article establishes the office of the President of India?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 4 September (Shift 3)]

(A) Article 75

(B) Article 53

(D) Article 52

Answer: (D) Article 52

Explanation: Article 52 explicitly provides that India shall have a President. Article 53 then vests the Union’s executive power in that office. The two provisions are related but distinct: one establishes the constitutional post and the other sets out executive authority.

Q132. For the President of India, the advice of the Union Cabinet is generally ______.

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 13 June (Shift 2)]

(A) Overruled by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(B) Binding

(D) Limited to economic matters

Answer: (B) Binding

Explanation: Article 74 requires the President to act according to the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The President may request reconsideration once, but must act on the reconsidered advice, maintaining the accountability of the elected government.

Q131. For which kind of Bills may the President summon a joint sitting?
1. Ordinary Bills;
2. Money Bills;
3. Constitutional Amendment Bills.

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 18 June (Shift 3)]

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C) 1 only

Explanation: Article 108 provides a joint sitting to resolve certain disagreements over ordinary legislation. It does not apply to Money Bills or constitutional amendment Bills. The President summons a joint sitting, which is normally presided over by the Lok Sabha Speaker.

Q130. While appointing High Court judges, which official does the President consult in addition to the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 13 June (Shift 3)]

(A) The Governor of the State

(B) District Magistrates

(D) The Union Cabinet Secretary

Answer: (A) The Governor of the State

Explanation: Article 217 provides for presidential appointment of High Court judges after the constitutionally required consultations. These include the Chief Justice of India and the State Governor, along with the High Court Chief Justice when a judge other than that Chief Justice is appointed.

Q129. Who is the fifteenth President of India?

[SSC Selection Post 2025, Higher Secondary Level (2 August, Shift 2)]

(A) Pratibha Patil

(B) Ram Nath Kovind

(D) Pranab Mukherjee

Answer: (C) Droupadi Murmu

Explanation: Droupadi Murmu became India’s fifteenth President on 25 July 2022. Before her election, she served as Governor of Jharkhand. Her election was also historic because she became the first President from a Scheduled Tribe community.

Q128. Which Article of the Constitution states that there shall be a Vice-President of India?

[SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-I, 27 November (Shift 1)]

(A) Article 62

(B) Article 63

(D) Article 65

Answer: (B) Article 63

Explanation: Article 63 establishes the office of Vice-President, whose holder acts as President during certain vacancies and absences under Article 65. The vice-presidency also carries the ex officio chairmanship of Rajya Sabha under Article 64.

2024

Q127. Consider the statements:
1. The President can prorogue either House without the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. A House is usually prorogued after adjournment sine die but may be prorogued while sitting.
3. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the President is normally on ministerial advice.

Which statements are correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024]

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) 3 only

Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Presidential prorogation ordinarily operates on ministerial advice, so the first statement is incorrect. A House is commonly prorogued after adjournment sine die but may be prorogued sooner. Dissolution of Lok Sabha is also normally based on the Council’s advice.

Q126. Consider the statements about the Union Budget:
1. The Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement.
2. No demand for a grant may be made except on the recommendation of the President.

Which statement is correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation: Article 112 requires the President to cause the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before Parliament; it is not presented on the Prime Minister’s behalf as asserted. Article 113 requires presidential recommendation before a demand for a grant is made.

Q125. Consider:
1. The President is not a member of either House of Parliament.
2. Parliament consists of the President and both Houses.

Which statement is correct?

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary Examination 2024]

(A) 2 only

(B) Neither 1 nor 2

(D) 1 only

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Under Article 79, Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The President is therefore a constituent of Parliament but not a member of either House. This distinction explains presidential functions in legislation without parliamentary membership.

Q124. Which persons are members of the selection committee for appointment of the Lokpal:
1. Chief Justice of India or nominee;
2. Chairman of Rajya Sabha;
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha;
4. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha?

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary Examination 2024]

(A) 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: The Lokpal selection committee includes the Prime Minister, Lok Sabha Speaker, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India or nominee and an eminent jurist. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a prescribed member; the President makes the appointment.

Q123. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the election of the President?

[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 24 September (Shift 1)]

(A) Article 72

(B) Article 54

(D) Article 66

Answer: (B) Article 54

Explanation: Article 54 creates the electoral college for electing the President. Article 55 separately regulates the election method and voting value. Article 66 governs the vice-presidential election, while Article 72 grants the President specified powers of clemency.

Q122. Which Article provides that the President of India is eligible for re-election?

[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 11 September (Shift 2)]

(A) Article 58

(B) Article 56

(D) Article 57

Answer: (D) Article 57

Explanation: Article 57 expressly makes a person who holds or has held the presidential office eligible for another election. No constitutional limit restricts the number of presidential terms. Article 56, in contrast, concerns tenure, resignation and removal.

Q121. Which constitutional authority possesses the ordinance-making power under Article 123?

[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 13 September (Shift 3)]

(A) The President of India

(B) The Rajya Sabha

(D) The Chief Justice of India

Answer: (A) The President of India

Explanation: Article 123 permits the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not fully in session and immediate action is necessary. Ordinances have the force of law but must be laid before Parliament and remain subject to constitutional time limits.

Q120. Which of the following is NOT a valid condition concerning the office of President of India?

[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 9 September (Shift 1)]

(A) The President cannot use the official residence without payment of rent

(B) The President cannot be a member of either House while in office

(D) The President cannot hold another office of profit

Answer: (A) The President cannot use the official residence without payment of rent

Explanation: Article 59 entitles the President to use official residences without paying rent. The office also carries restrictions on legislative membership and other offices of profit, while emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during the presidential term.

Q119. By whom is the oath of office administered to the Vice-President of India?

[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 19 September (Shift 1)]

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) President of India

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: Article 69 requires the Vice-President to make an oath or affirmation before the President or a person appointed by the President. This is different from the presidential oath, normally administered by the Chief Justice of India.

Q118. Which Article provides for appointment of the Prime Minister by the President?

[SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I, 19 September (Shift 1)]

(A) Article 71

(B) Article 66

(D) Article 62

Answer: (C) Article 75

Explanation: Article 75(1) specifies that the President appoints the Prime Minister and appoints other ministers on the Prime Minister’s advice. In parliamentary practice, the appointee must be capable of commanding the confidence of the Lok Sabha.

Q117. The President of India is generally described as the ______ executive.

[SSC MTS 2024, 11 November (Shift 3)]

(A) Dictatorial

(B) Nominal

(D) Monarchical

Answer: (B) Nominal

Explanation: India’s parliamentary system separates the formal head of State from the politically responsible executive. The President is the nominal executive, while the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister exercises real executive authority subject to constitutional rules.

Q116. Which is NOT a qualification for election to the office of the President of India?

[SSC MTS 2024, 22 October (Shift 3)]

(A) Indian citizenship

(B) Qualification for election to Lok Sabha

(D) Holding an office of profit

Answer: (D) Holding an office of profit

Explanation: Article 58 requires citizenship, attainment of 35 years and eligibility for Lok Sabha election. Holding a disqualifying office of profit is a bar rather than a qualification. Certain offices, including that of Governor or minister, are expressly exempted.

Q115. Which Article stipulates that all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President?

[SSC MTS 2024, 18 October (Shift 2)]

(A) Article 71(1)

(B) Article 75(1A)

(D) Article 78(2)

Answer: (C) Article 77(1)

Explanation: Article 77(1) provides the formal rule for expressing Union executive action in the President’s name. This does not mean the President personally decides each matter; government business is conducted through ministers and departments under constitutional rules.

Q114. Which Article states that Parliament consists of the President and two Houses?

[SSC MTS 2024, 18 October (Shift 3)]

(A) Article 62

(B) Article 79

(D) Article 73

Answer: (B) Article 79

Explanation: Article 79 defines Parliament as consisting of the President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. Although the President does not sit as a member of either House, assent and other constitutional responsibilities make the office part of Parliament.

Q113. In which Article are the qualifications for election as President of India specified?

[SSC MTS 2024, 1 October (Shift 2)]

(A) Article 50

(B) Article 56

(D) Article 60

Answer: (C) Article 58

Explanation: Article 58 lists presidential-election eligibility requirements, including citizenship, minimum age of 35 and qualification for Lok Sabha membership. Article 56 governs the term, while Article 60 provides for the oath or affirmation before entering office.

Q112. Which statement is NOT a feature of the Contingency Fund of India?

[SSC MTS 2024, 28 October (Shift 3)]

(A) It is established under Article 267

(B) It is held on behalf of the President

(D) Presidential allowances are charged to this Fund

Answer: (D) Presidential allowances are charged to this Fund

Explanation: The Contingency Fund is established under Article 267 for unforeseen expenditure pending legislative authorisation. It is placed at the President’s disposal under statutory arrangements. Presidential emoluments and allowances are charged to the Consolidated Fund, not the Contingency Fund.

Q111. Who heads the Council of Ministers referred to in Article 74(1)?

[SSC MTS 2024, 30 September (Shift 3)]

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Prime Minister

(D) President

Answer: (B) Prime Minister

Explanation: Article 74 establishes a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head to aid and advise the President. This constitutional arrangement places day-to-day political responsibility with ministers answerable to the Lok Sabha, rather than the President.

Q110. Which is NOT an essential constitutional qualification for the President of India?

[RRB Junior Engineer CBT-I, 17 December (Shift 1)]

(A) Qualification for election to Lok Sabha

(B) Being highly educated

(D) Indian citizenship

Answer: (B) Being highly educated

Explanation: India’s Constitution specifies citizenship, age and Lok Sabha eligibility, but imposes no formal university-degree or higher-education requirement on presidential candidates. The qualification test therefore concerns legal eligibility and office-of-profit restrictions, not academic credentials.

Q109. Consider:
1. The Attorney-General advises the Government on legal matters assigned by the President.
2. The Solicitor-General is the second law officer and is assisted by Additional Solicitors-General.

Which statements are correct?

[UPSC NDA-II 2024, General Ability Test (1 September 2024)]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Article 76 provides for the Attorney-General, appointed by the President, to perform legal duties referred or assigned by the President. The Solicitor-General and Additional Solicitors-General are supporting law officers arranged through executive appointments, so both statements are correct.

Q108. Who appoints the Acting Chief Justice of India when the Chief Justice cannot perform the duties of office?

[SSC MTS 2024, 23 October (Shift 3)]

(A) President of India

(B) Senior-most Supreme Court judge automatically

(D) Council of Ministers

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: Article 126 authorises the President to appoint a Supreme Court judge to perform the Chief Justice of India’s duties when that office is vacant or its holder cannot act. Seniority is a convention, not automatic appointment by itself.

Q107. Under Article 280, the President should normally constitute a Finance Commission every ______.

[SSC MTS 2024, 12 November (Shift 3)]

(A) Two years

(B) Five years

(D) Three years

Answer: (B) Five years

Explanation: The President normally constitutes a Finance Commission every five years under Article 280, though earlier constitution is possible when considered necessary. The Commission recommends sharing of divisible Union taxes and other specified fiscal transfers.

Q106. Which leader inaugurated the first Akhil Bharatiya Kalidas Samman Samaroh at Ujjain in 1958?

[SSC MTS 2024, 11 November (Shift 3)]

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (C) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: India’s first President, Dr Rajendra Prasad, inaugurated the inaugural Kalidas cultural gathering at Ujjain in 1958. The programme celebrated the literary legacy of Sanskrit poet and playwright Kalidasa, closely associated with the cultural history of Ujjain.

Q105. Which constitutional Articles primarily cover the election, qualifications and removal of the Vice-President of India?

[RRB Junior Engineer CBT-I, 16 December 2024 (Shift 1)]

(A) Articles 224–245

(B) Articles 68–75

(D) Articles 63–71

Answer: (D) Articles 63–71

Explanation: Articles 63 through 71 address establishment, duties, election, term, vacancies, oath and election disputes related to the Vice-President. Article 65 specifically provides for acting as President when the presidential office is vacant or its duties cannot be performed.

Q104. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by
1. Lok Sabha;
2. Rajya Sabha;
3. State Legislatures;
4. President.

Which are correct?

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary Examination 2024]

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation: Under Article 368 a constitutional amendment Bill can originate in either House of Parliament. The President does not initiate such Bills and must give assent once duly passed. Some amendments additionally require ratification by at least half the States.

2023

Q103. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider:
1. Nominated MPs are in the electoral college.
2. More Assembly seats always make an MLA vote worth more.
3. Each MLA of Madhya Pradesh has a greater vote value than an MLA of Kerala.
4. The value of a Puducherry MLA vote is greater than an Arunachal Pradesh MLA vote.

How many statements are correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2023]

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) All four

Answer: (A) Only one

Explanation: Nominated legislators do not vote in presidential elections. MLA vote value depends on the 1971 population figure divided by elected Assembly seats, not seats alone. The Puducherry-versus-Arunachal statement is correct, while the other three are incorrect.

Q102. Consider:
1. If the Supreme Court invalidates the presidential election, all prior presidential acts are invalid.
2. Presidential election can be postponed because some State Assemblies are dissolved.
3. The Constitution specifies a time limit for presidential assent to Bills.

How many statements are correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2023]

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) None

Answer: (D) None

Explanation: Article 71 protects presidential acts performed before an election is declared void. Vacancies in electoral colleges arising from dissolved State Assemblies do not necessarily halt presidential elections. The Constitution also specifies no general deadline for presidential assent to ordinary Bills.

Q101. Which statement about the presidential election is NOT correct?

[UPSC CDS-I 2023, General Knowledge (16 April 2023)]

(A) A Union Minister is ineligible to be elected President

(B) Elected members of Parliament and eligible Legislative Assemblies form the electoral college

(D) Proportional representation with single transferable vote is used

Answer: (A) A Union Minister is ineligible to be elected President

Explanation: Union ministers are not automatically disqualified from contesting the presidential election merely because they are ministers; Article 58 expressly exempts specified ministerial offices from the office-of-profit bar. Elected MPs and designated Assembly members vote through proportional representation.

Q100. To whom does a judge of the Supreme Court of India address a resignation letter?

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary Examination 2023]

(A) President of India

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Senior-most Supreme Court judge

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: Article 124(2) allows a Supreme Court judge to resign by a written communication addressed to the President. This constitutional route differs from submitting a resignation to the Chief Justice, who heads the Court but does not receive such resignations.

Q99. If the Supreme Court declares the election of the Vice-President void, which is correct?
1. Earlier official acts remain valid.
2. Earlier official acts automatically become invalid.

[UPPSC PCS Preliminary Examination 2023]

(A) Both 1 and 2

(B) 1 only

(D) Neither

Answer: (B) 1 only

Explanation: Article 71 safeguards acts performed by a President or Vice-President before the Supreme Court declares the election void. A later adverse election decision therefore does not retrospectively invalidate official acts carried out during the period in office.

Q98. For impeachment of the President, consider:
A. Proceedings may begin in either House.
B. One-third majority is sufficient to admit a charge.
C. Thirty days’ notice is mandatory.
D. Each House must pass the required resolution by two-thirds of its total membership.

Which statements are correct?

[SSC CGL 2023 Tier-II, 26 October]

(A) B and C

(B) A, B and C

(D) A and D

Answer: (D) A and D

Explanation: Article 61 permits impeachment to begin in either House and requires a two-thirds majority of the House’s total membership. The initiating notice is at least fourteen days and must be signed by at least one-fourth of the members.

Q97. Who has constitutional powers to grant pardons, reprieves, respites and remissions, or suspend, remit or commute certain sentences?

[SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I, 27 July]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Attorney-General

(D) Vice-President

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Article 72 grants the President power to grant several forms of clemency, particularly in court-martial cases, matters under Union executive power and death sentences. The President generally exercises this power on ministerial advice, with limited judicial review available.

Q96. Who was the first President of India to inaugurate the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1953?

[SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I, 25 July]

(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(B) M. Hidayatullah

(D) Zakir Hussain

Answer: (C) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: Dr Rajendra Prasad was India’s first President and inaugurated the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1953. The Akademi was established to support and promote Indian performing arts, particularly music, dance and theatre, as a national cultural institution.

Q95. Who is regarded as the nominal executive in the Union Government of India?

[SSC MTS 2023, 5 September]

(A) Vice-President

(B) Attorney-General

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (C) President

Explanation: The President is India’s constitutional head of State and formal executive. In the parliamentary system, real executive responsibility lies with the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, whose continuation in office depends on parliamentary confidence.

Q94. Who nominates persons with distinguished experience in specified fields as members of the Rajya Sabha?

[SSC MTS 2023, 6 September]

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) President of India

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: Article 80 provides for twelve nominated Rajya Sabha members chosen by the President for distinction in literature, science, art and social service. This provision broadens the upper House’s expertise beyond members elected by State and Union Territory representatives.

Q93. Which former President of India wrote the autobiography Wings of Fire?

[SSC MTS 2023, 12 September]

(A) Shankar Dayal Sharma

(B) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(D) V. V. Giri

Answer: (B) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

Explanation: A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, India’s eleventh President, co-authored Wings of Fire with Arun Tiwari. The autobiography recounts his early life, education and scientific career, notably his contributions to India’s space and missile programmes.

Q92. Consider the Rajasthan Public Service Commission:
1. Its chairperson and members are appointed by the Governor.
2. They can be removed by the President under prescribed conditions.

Which statements are correct?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2023]

(A) Neither

(B) Both statements

(D) 1 only

Answer: (B) Both statements

Explanation: Article 316 places appointment of State Public Service Commission members with the Governor. Article 317 provides for removal by the President in specified circumstances, with Supreme Court inquiry required for particular charges. Appointment and removal thus involve different constitutional authorities.

Q91. In appointing a judge of a High Court, whom does the President consult under Article 217?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2023]

(A) High Court Chief Justice and Attorney-General

(B) Governor of the State, Chief Justice of India and concerned High Court Chief Justice

(D) Chief Justice of India and Governor alone in every case

Answer: (B) Governor of the State, Chief Justice of India and concerned High Court Chief Justice

Explanation: High Court judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the State Governor; the High Court Chief Justice is also consulted for appointments other than that of the Chief Justice. The Article specifies these constitutional consultations.

Q90. After what interval does the President ordinarily constitute the Finance Commission under Article 280?

[WBCS Mains 2023, Polity and Economy]

(A) Ten years

(B) Five years

(D) Twelve years

Answer: (B) Five years

Explanation: Article 280 directs the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier if necessary. It recommends how divisible Union tax revenues should be distributed and addresses specified fiscal relations between the Union and States.

Q89. Which Article provides for impeachment of the President of India?

[MPPSC State Service 2022, held 21 May 2023]

(A) Article 53

(B) Article 73

(D) Article 72

Answer: (C) Article 61

Explanation: Article 61 lays down the special parliamentary process for removing the President for constitutional violation. Article 53 instead concerns the Union’s executive power, and Article 72 confers powers to grant pardons and other forms of clemency.

Q88. Which Article empowers the President to transfer a judge from one High Court to another?

[MPPSC State Service 2022, held 21 May 2023]

(A) Article 222

(B) Article 227

(D) Article 237

Answer: (A) Article 222

Explanation: Article 222 permits the President, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, to transfer a judge between High Courts. This differs from Article 217, which provides for the appointment and conditions of office of High Court judges.

Q87. Who is the constitutional head of the Union Executive?

[SSC MTS 2022, examination held in 2023]

(A) President

(B) Vice-President

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (A) President

Explanation: The President is the constitutional head of the Union Executive under Articles 52 and 53. Ministers led by the Prime Minister exercise executive functions in practice through a parliamentary system based on ministerial advice and collective responsibility.

Q86. Who is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Defence Forces?

[SSC MTS 2022, examination held in 2023]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President of India

(D) Chief of Army Staff

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: Article 53(2) vests the supreme command of the Union defence forces in the President. The exercise of that command is regulated by law and operates within the parliamentary executive framework, rather than creating an independent military executive.

Q85. How many members can the President nominate to the Rajya Sabha?

[SSC MTS 2022, examination held in 2023]

(A) Twelve

(B) Twenty-five

(D) Ten

Answer: (A) Twelve

Explanation: Article 80 allows the President to nominate twelve members to the Council of States. Selection recognises special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service, enriching parliamentary debates with specialist perspectives.

Q84. Who was the President of India in January 2023?

[Indian Air Force Agniveer Vayu (Group Y), 19 January 2023, memory-based paper]

(A) Ram Nath Kovind

(B) Droupadi Murmu

(D) M. Venkaiah Naidu

Answer: (B) Droupadi Murmu

Explanation: Droupadi Murmu took office as the fifteenth President on 25 July 2022, succeeding Ram Nath Kovind. Jagdeep Dhankhar became Vice-President in August 2022. Murmu had previously served as Governor of Jharkhand.

Q83. Before becoming the President of India, Droupadi Murmu served as a ______.

[Indian Air Force Agniveer Vayu (Group Y), 18 January 2023, memory-based paper]

(A) Governor

(B) Chief Minister

(D) Election Commissioner

Answer: (A) Governor

Explanation: Droupadi Murmu served as Governor of Jharkhand from 2015 until 2021 before being elected President of India in 2022. Earlier, she served in Odisha’s State Government. Her presidential election was a landmark in representation.

Q82. Which assertion about election of the President of India is NOT true?

[CGPSC Preliminary Examination, General Studies 2023]

(A) The election method is described in Article 55

(B) A candidate needs fifty proposers and fifty seconders

(D) None of these assertions

Answer: (D) None of these assertions

Explanation: All three statements are accurate: Article 55 regulates the presidential election method; nomination requires fifty electors each as proposers and seconders; and the calculation of MLA vote value uses 1971 population figures until the constitutionally specified future Census adjustment.

Q81. Consider:
(i) The final session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 24 January 1950.
(ii) Dr Rajendra Prasad was declared elected to the office of President of India during that session.

Which statement is correct?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2023]

(A) Neither (i) nor (ii)

(B) Both (i) and (ii)

(D) Only (i)

Answer: (B) Both (i) and (ii)

Explanation: The Constituent Assembly met for its last session on 24 January 1950, when Rajendra Prasad’s election as first President of the Republic was announced. India’s Constitution came fully into force two days later, on 26 January 1950.

Q80. Which of the following is NOT a constitutional eligibility condition for becoming President of India?

[SSC CHSL, memory-based paper, 18 August 2023 (Shift 1)]

(A) Qualification for election to Lok Sabha

(B) Possession of a graduate degree

(D) Completion of 35 years of age

Answer: (B) Possession of a graduate degree

Explanation: Article 58 sets citizenship, minimum age of 35 years and Lok Sabha eligibility as qualifications. It contains no requirement of a university degree. A disqualifying office of profit is normally barred, subject to specified constitutional exceptions.

2022

Q79. Which method is followed for electing the President of India?

[UPSC CDS-I 2022, General Knowledge (10 April 2022)]

(A) Proportional representation only

(B) First-past-the-post only

(D) Proportional representation with first-past-the-post

Answer: (C) Proportional representation by the single transferable vote

Explanation: Article 55 requires proportional representation through the single transferable vote, with voting by secret ballot. The electoral college includes elected MPs and eligible elected Assembly members. A direct first-past-the-post election is not used for the President.

Q78. Which of the following is NOT a field used for presidential nominations to the Rajya Sabha?

[UPSC CDS-II 2022, General Knowledge (4 September 2022)]

(A) Literature

(B) Science

(D) State service

Answer: (D) State service

Explanation: The four constitutionally listed fields for nomination to the Rajya Sabha are literature, science, art and social service. Article 80 does not list State service as a separate field. The President may nominate up to twelve such members.

Q77. Which statement about a constitutional amendment Bill is NOT correct?

[UPSC CDS-I 2022, General Knowledge (10 April 2022)]

(A) It is governed by Article 368(2)

(B) A joint sitting can pass a constitutional amendment Bill

(D) Prior presidential sanction is unnecessary for its introduction

Answer: (B) A joint sitting can pass a constitutional amendment Bill

Explanation: Constitutional amendment Bills must be passed separately by each parliamentary House using the majorities specified in Article 368. There is no joint-sitting mechanism for resolving disagreement on such Bills, unlike the process applicable to certain ordinary legislation.

Q76. Which statement concerning the Union executive is NOT correct?

[UPSC CDS-I 2022, General Knowledge (10 April 2022)]

(A) Executive actions are expressed in the President’s name

(B) The President appoints the Attorney-General subject to constitutional qualifications

(D) The President generally acts on the Council of Ministers’ advice

Answer: (C) The Council of Ministers cannot exceed ten percent of the Lok Sabha’s membership

Explanation: The Ninety-first Constitutional Amendment limits the total number of Union ministers, including the Prime Minister, to fifteen percent of Lok Sabha strength, not ten percent. Article 74 also requires the President to follow the Council’s advice after any reconsideration.

Q75. When the Vice-President acts as President, which statements are true?
(i) The Vice-President simultaneously remains Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
(ii) The Vice-President receives presidential emoluments.
(iii) If the acting President also becomes unavailable, the Chief Justice may discharge presidential duties.

[CGPSC Preliminary Examination 2021, held 13 February 2022]

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (i) only

Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation: Article 65 disallows the Vice-President from acting as Rajya Sabha Chairman while performing presidential duties, but provides the President’s emoluments. Under the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969, the Chief Justice can discharge the functions if both offices are unavailable.

Q74. Which statement about the Forty-fourth Constitutional Amendment is NOT true?

[CGPSC Preliminary Examination 2021, held 13 February 2022]

(A) It was enacted by the Janata government

(B) It changed provisions inserted by the Forty-second Amendment

(D) It permits the President to return ministerial advice repeatedly until satisfied

Answer: (D) It permits the President to return ministerial advice repeatedly until satisfied

Explanation: The Forty-fourth Amendment gave the President power to return ministerial advice for reconsideration once. After reconsideration, the advice becomes binding. The Amendment therefore does not permit unlimited repetitions, preserving the parliamentary principle of ministerial responsibility.

Q73. Which statements about the Finance Commission are true?
(i) It has five members.
(ii) At least one member must be a serving Supreme Court or High Court judge.
(iii) Its Chairperson cannot be reappointed.
(iv) K. Santhanam was the first Chairperson.

[CGPSC Preliminary Examination 2021, held 13 February 2022]

(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) Only (i)

Answer: (D) Only (i)

Explanation: The Finance Commission consists of a chairperson and four other members, making five in all. Judicial office is not mandatory for a member, reappointment is permissible, and K. C. Neogy, not K. Santhanam, chaired the first Commission.

Q72. Which constitutional authority promulgates an ordinance under Article 123?

[RRB Group D, 19 September 2022]

(A) Vice-President

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Lok Sabha Speaker

Answer: (C) President

Explanation: The President may issue an ordinance under Article 123 when Parliament is not fully in session and urgent legislative action is necessary. An ordinance has temporary legal force and must be placed before Parliament after the Houses reassemble.

Q71. Under Article 53, in whom is the Union’s executive power vested?

[RRB Group D, 24 August 2022]

(A) Governor

(B) Chief Justice of India

(D) President

Answer: (D) President

Explanation: Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, to be exercised directly or through subordinate officers in accordance with the Constitution. Article 74 ensures that political execution normally follows ministerial advice.

Q70. Who is the constitutional head of the Union Executive?

[RRB Group D, 1 September 2022]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(D) President of India

Answer: (D) President of India

Explanation: Articles 52 and 53 establish the President as the formal head of the Union Executive. The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers exercise day-to-day governmental authority, reflecting the distinction between constitutional headship and political executive leadership.

Q69. Who was elected President of the Constituent Assembly of India?

[RRB Group D, 19 September 2022]

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) B. R. Ambedkar

(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Answer: (C) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President of the Constituent Assembly in December 1946. Following commencement of the Constitution, he became the first President of India in 1950. These were distinct offices in different constitutional phases.

Q68. Under which Article does the President exercise assent and veto powers over ordinary parliamentary Bills?

[RRB Group D, 14 September 2022]

(A) Article 145

(B) Article 111

(D) Article 122

Answer: (B) Article 111

Explanation: Article 111 governs presidential assent to Bills passed by Parliament. For a non-Money Bill, the President may return it once for reconsideration; if repassed, assent cannot be withheld. Constitutional amendment Bills follow a different procedure.

Q67. Which Article provides for a Finance Commission appointed by the President?

[RRB Group D, 22 September 2022]

(A) Article 281

(B) Article 280

(D) Article 283

Answer: (B) Article 280

Explanation: Under Article 280 the President constitutes the Finance Commission normally every five years. Article 281 then requires its recommendations and the explanatory memorandum on action taken to be laid before each House of Parliament.

Q66. Under which Article does the President appoint judges of the Supreme Court?

[RRB Group D, 6 October 2022]

(A) Article 127

(B) Article 121

(D) Article 118

Answer: (C) Article 124

Explanation: Article 124 governs establishment and composition of the Supreme Court and presidential appointment of its judges. The constitutional and judicially evolved consultation process applies, with the collegium system playing an important practical role in recommendations.

Q65. In relation to a joint sitting under Article 108, what does the President communicate to summon both Houses?

[MPPSC State Service 2021, held 19 June 2022]

(A) Intention

(B) Satisfaction

(D) Consent

Answer: (A) Intention

Explanation: Article 108 permits the President, after certain deadlocks between parliamentary Houses, to notify the intention to summon a joint sitting. The joint session mechanism is meant for specified Bills and does not extend to Money Bills or constitutional amendment Bills.

Q64. Which of the following Presidents of India did NOT serve as Vice-President before becoming President?

[UPPSC Combined State Examination, 12 June 2022]

(A) Shankar Dayal Sharma

(B) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

(D) R. Venkataraman

Answer: (B) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

Explanation: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as Lok Sabha Speaker and later became President, but was never Vice-President. Shankar Dayal Sharma, Zakir Hussain and R. Venkataraman all held the vice-presidency before ascending to the presidency.

Q63. How many proposers and seconders are required for a valid nomination in a presidential election?

[UPPSC Polytechnic Lecturer Examination, 22 March 2022]

(A) Ten proposers and ten seconders

(B) Fifty proposers and fifty seconders

(D) Fifteen proposers and fifteen seconders

Answer: (B) Fifty proposers and fifty seconders

Explanation: Under the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, a presidential nomination requires at least fifty electors as proposers and fifty as seconders. These requirements discourage frivolous nominations and accompany a prescribed security deposit.

Q62. Whom does a judge of the Supreme Court address when resigning from office?

[SSC CHSL 2021, held in 2022]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President of India

(D) Union Law Minister

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: A Supreme Court judge can resign through a written communication addressed to the President under Article 124(2). This rule is constitutionally fixed and is separate from the judicial process for removal on proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Q61. Who has the constitutional power to establish an Inter-State Council?

[SSC CHSL 2021, held 6 June 2022]

(A) President of India

(B) President and Governors jointly

(D) Prime Minister alone

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: Article 263 allows the President to set up an Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss matters of common inter-State concern. The body promotes coordination and may recommend policies, but it is not a substitute for the Supreme Court.

Q60. Which President gave assent to the Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015?

[SSC CGL 2021 Tier-I, held 12 April 2022]

(A) Ram Nath Kovind

(B) Pratibha Patil

(D) Pranab Mukherjee

Answer: (D) Pranab Mukherjee

Explanation: Pranab Mukherjee was President when the Hundredth Constitutional Amendment received assent in 2015. The amendment implemented the India–Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement, enabling exchange of enclaves and adjustment of specified territorial boundaries.

Q59. Which is NOT a constituent of the Union Executive?

[SSC CHSL 2021, held 25 May 2022]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President of India

(D) Council of Ministers

Answer: (C) Supreme Court

Explanation: The Union Executive includes the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers and Attorney-General. The Supreme Court is part of the independent judiciary, not the executive, even though the President formally appoints its judges.

Q58. Which range of constitutional Articles primarily covers the Union Executive?

[SSC CHSL 2021, held 27 May 2022]

(A) Articles 38–50

(B) Articles 52–78

(D) Articles 112–118

Answer: (B) Articles 52–78

Explanation: Part V of the Constitution places the Union Executive in Articles 52 through 78. They regulate the President, Vice-President, ministerial government and Attorney-General. Subsequent provisions cover Parliament and financial procedure.

Q57. The President of India has almost the same constitutional authority as which of the following?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) President of the United States

(B) British Monarch

(D) President of China

Answer: (B) British Monarch

Explanation: India follows the British-style parliamentary system, where the head of State is normally a ceremonial constitutional authority acting on ministerial advice. The British monarch offers the closest analogy, unlike presidents operating within more strongly presidential systems.

Q56. Under which Article is President’s Rule proclaimed in a State?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) Article 326

(B) Article 370

(D) Article 356

Answer: (D) Article 356

Explanation: Article 356 concerns failure of constitutional machinery in a State and permits the President to issue a proclamation subject to parliamentary checks. It is distinct from national emergency provisions, which appear in Article 352.

Q55. When can the President exercise discretion in appointing a Prime Minister?

[WBCS Mains 2021, held May 2022]

(A) When no political party has a clear Lok Sabha majority

(B) Only after the Lok Sabha is dissolved

(D) Under no circumstances

Answer: (A) When no political party has a clear Lok Sabha majority

Explanation: When no party commands a clear Lok Sabha majority, the President may use judgment to identify a leader capable of obtaining confidence of the House. Under ordinary circumstances, the choice is determined by the established parliamentary majority.

Q54. Droupadi Murmu served as Governor of which State before becoming President of India?

[CISF ASI LDCE, 23 August 2022]

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Odisha

(D) Bihar

Answer: (C) Jharkhand

Explanation: Droupadi Murmu served as Governor of Jharkhand from 2015 to 2021. She subsequently won the 2022 presidential election and assumed office on 25 July 2022, becoming the first person from a Scheduled Tribe community to hold the presidency.

2021

Q53. Which Article of the Constitution defines the term of office of the President?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 31 July 2021]

(A) Article 55

(B) Article 56

(D) Article 54

Answer: (B) Article 56

Explanation: Article 56 fixes a presidential term of five years from assumption of office and deals with resignation and removal. Article 55 instead explains the presidential voting system, while Article 54 identifies the electoral college.

Q52. Which power of the President of India is provided in Article 72?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 21 March 2021]

(A) Composition of the Supreme Court

(B) Freedom of speech in Parliament

(D) Appointment of the Prime Minister

Answer: (C) Granting pardons and related clemency

Explanation: Article 72 gives the President powers of pardon, reprieve, respite, remission, suspension and commutation for specified convictions and sentences. The clemency jurisdiction particularly includes court-martial cases, Union-law offences and cases involving a death sentence.

Q51. Ram Nath Kovind was which numbered President of India?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 13 March 2021]

(A) The seventeenth

(B) The fourteenth

(D) The nineteenth

Answer: (B) The fourteenth

Explanation: Ram Nath Kovind served as the fourteenth President of India from July 2017 until July 2022. He succeeded Pranab Mukherjee, the thirteenth President, and was succeeded by Droupadi Murmu, the fifteenth President.

Q50. Who discharges presidential functions if neither the President nor Vice-President is available?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 12 February 2021]

(A) Cabinet Secretary

(B) Union Home Minister

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (D) Chief Justice of India

Explanation: The President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969 provides that the Chief Justice of India, or the senior-most available Supreme Court judge, may discharge presidential functions if both the President and Vice-President are unavailable.

Q49. Under which constitutional Article is the Finance Commission constituted by the President?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 7 March 2021]

(A) Article 279

(B) Article 282

(D) Article 280

Answer: (D) Article 280

Explanation: Article 280 requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission usually once every five years. Its recommendations address tax sharing and related fiscal arrangements. Article 281 concerns the subsequent presentation of those recommendations before Parliament.

Q48. Who elects the President of India?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 22 August 2021]

(A) Members of Parliament only

(B) Members of State Assemblies only

(D) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the relevant State Assemblies

Answer: (D) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the relevant State Assemblies

Explanation: Article 54 establishes the indirect presidential election by an electoral college consisting of elected MPs and eligible elected Assembly members, including those from Delhi and Puducherry. Nominated members and members of Legislative Councils are excluded.

Q47. Which authority constitutes the Election Commission of India?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 22 August 2021]

(A) Vice-President

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Article 324 establishes the Election Commission and provides for presidential appointments subject to parliamentary law. The commission conducts elections to Parliament, State legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Its independence is constitutionally protected.

Q46. Who may establish an Inter-State Council under the Indian Constitution?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 22 August 2021]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Parliament

(D) President of India

Answer: (D) President of India

Explanation: Article 263 authorises the President to establish an Inter-State Council to investigate disputes and advise on subjects of common concern. Its purpose is cooperative coordination among governments, rather than independent adjudication of inter-State disputes.

Q45. Which institution is popularly described as having a holder called “His Superfluous Highness”?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 22 August 2021]

(A) President of India

(B) Vice-President of India

(D) Lok Sabha Speaker

Answer: (B) Vice-President of India

Explanation: The phrase has been applied critically to the Indian vice-presidency because ordinary executive responsibilities are limited. The Vice-President principally chairs the Rajya Sabha and acts as President only when constitutional circumstances require it.

Q44. Before deciding an ordinary constitutional disqualification question concerning a Lok Sabha member under Article 103, whose opinion must the President obtain?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2021]

(A) Lok Sabha Speaker

(B) Election Commission of India

(D) Attorney-General of India

Answer: (B) Election Commission of India

Explanation: Article 103 assigns the President decisions on specified parliamentary membership disqualifications after obtaining the Election Commission’s opinion, which must be followed. Anti-defection disqualification under the Tenth Schedule instead follows a different procedure involving the presiding officer.

Q43. To which Constitutional Amendment Act did President Ram Nath Kovind give assent in August 2021 concerning State identification of backward classes?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2021]

(A) One Hundred and Sixth

(B) One Hundred and Seventh

(D) One Hundred and Fifth

Answer: (D) One Hundred and Fifth

Explanation: The Constitution (One Hundred and Fifth Amendment) Act, 2021 restored States’ and Union Territories’ authority to identify socially and educationally backward classes for their own lists. It received presidential assent in August 2021.

Q42. Who appoints the Speaker pro tem of the Lok Sabha?

[SSC CGL 2020 Tier-I, held 23 August 2021 (Shift 3)]

(A) President of India

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Chief Election Commissioner

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: The President appoints a temporary Speaker, generally a senior member, to carry out initial duties after a new Lok Sabha election. The pro tem Speaker presides until the House elects its regular Speaker, including during members’ oath-taking.

Q41. Which Article empowers the President to promulgate ordinances?

[SSC CGL 2020 Tier-I, held 13 August 2021 (Shift 3)]

(A) Article 123

(B) Article 143

(D) Article 111

Answer: (A) Article 123

Explanation: Article 123 permits the President to make temporary ordinances when Parliament is not fully in session and immediate action is required. Article 143 instead enables a presidential reference to the Supreme Court for an advisory opinion.

Q40. Who was the first Vice-President of India?

[SSC CGL 2020 Tier-I, held 16 August 2021 (Shift 2)]

(A) Zakir Hussain

(B) Gopal Swarup Pathak

(D) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

Answer: (D) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

Explanation: Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan served as India’s first Vice-President from 1952 to 1962 and then as its second President from 1962 to 1967. Dr Rajendra Prasad was the first President during the same initial period.

Q39. Which Article states that there shall be a Vice-President of India?

[SSC CGL 2020 Tier-I, held 13 August 2021 (Shift 2)]

(A) Article 75

(B) Article 56

(D) Article 63

Answer: (D) Article 63

Explanation: Article 63 establishes the office of Vice-President. Article 64 makes the Vice-President ex officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha, while Article 65 deals with acting as President or discharging presidential functions in particular circumstances.

Q38. Who has the authority under Article 231 to establish a common High Court for two or more States?

[UPSC CDS-I 2021, General Knowledge (7 February 2021)]

(A) Parliament

(B) Supreme Court

(D) Union Cabinet

Answer: (A) Parliament

Explanation: Article 231 empowers Parliament by law to establish a common High Court for two or more States, or States and a Union Territory. Presidential appointment of High Court judges does not confer the separate legislative power to establish such a court.

2020

Q37. Under Article 79, which constitute the Parliament of India? 1. House of the People; 2. Council of States; 3. President of India.

[UPSC NDA, General Ability Test (6 September 2020)]

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Article 79 expressly comprises the President and the two Houses—Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Although not an elected House member, the President performs essential parliamentary functions such as summoning sessions and giving assent to legislation.

Q36. Ram Nath Kovind assumed office on 25 July 2017 as the ______ President of India.

[SSC CHSL, held 14 October 2020 (Shift 1)]

(A) Twelfth

(B) Fifteenth

(D) Thirteenth

Answer: (C) Fourteenth

Explanation: Ram Nath Kovind was sworn in as the fourteenth President on 25 July 2017 and served until July 2022. The ordinal count is of individual Presidents, not presidential election events or uninterrupted periods in office.

Q35. Who was India’s thirteenth President?

[SSC CHSL, held 19 March 2020 (Shift 2)]

(A) Ram Nath Kovind

(B) Pratibha Patil

(D) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

Answer: (C) Pranab Mukherjee

Explanation: Pranab Mukherjee served as India’s thirteenth President from 2012 to 2017. He succeeded Pratibha Patil and was followed by Ram Nath Kovind. He had earlier held major Union Cabinet portfolios, including Finance and Defence.

2019

Q34. Which statements are NOT correct?
1. The President resigns to the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Vice-President resigns to the President.
3. CAG removal follows the same process as removal of the President.
4. A Supreme Court judge resigns to the Chief Justice.

[UPSC CDS-II 2019, General Knowledge (8 September 2019)]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: The President resigns to the Vice-President, while the Vice-President resigns to the President. The CAG is removed like a Supreme Court judge, not the President, and Supreme Court judges address resignations to the President.

Q33. Which reports are laid before Parliament on the President’s authority?
1. Union Finance Commission recommendations;
2. Public Accounts Committee report;
3. Comptroller and Auditor-General report;
4. National Commission for Scheduled Castes report.

[WBCS Preliminary Examination 2019]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: Constitutional reports of the Finance Commission, Comptroller and Auditor-General and National Commission for Scheduled Castes are laid before Parliament through the prescribed presidential process. The Public Accounts Committee is itself a parliamentary committee and follows a different reporting arrangement.

Q32. Impeachment proceedings against the President can be initiated in which House?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination 2019]

(A) Either House of Parliament

(B) A joint sitting of both Houses

(D) Only Rajya Sabha

Answer: (A) Either House of Parliament

Explanation: Article 61 expressly permits either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha to initiate a charge of constitutional violation against the President. The initiating resolution requires prescribed notice, signatures and a two-thirds majority of the total House membership.

Q31. Ram Nath Kovind was the ______ President of India.

[SSC CHSL, held 10 July 2019 (Shift 1)]

(A) Sixteenth

(B) Fourteenth

(D) Thirteenth

Answer: (B) Fourteenth

Explanation: Ram Nath Kovind became the fourteenth President in July 2017. His immediate predecessor was Pranab Mukherjee, the thirteenth President. He subsequently served until the election and inauguration of Droupadi Murmu in July 2022.

Q30. Who finally decides doubts and disputes arising from the election of the President of India?

[SSC CHSL, held 3 July 2019 (Shift 3)]

(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(B) Supreme Court of India

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (B) Supreme Court of India

Explanation: Article 71 gives the Supreme Court exclusive authority to inquire into and decide disputes arising from presidential and vice-presidential elections. The Election Commission administers the electoral process but does not finally adjudicate these constitutional election disputes.

Q29. Who has served the longest term as President of India?

[SSC CHSL, held 9 July 2019 (Shift 2)]

(A) Rajendra Prasad

(B) Shankar Dayal Sharma

(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

Answer: (A) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: Dr Rajendra Prasad served as President from 1950 to 1962, making him the longest-serving President of India. He was elected for two full constitutional terms after initially taking office when the Republic was established.

Q28. Who decides disqualification of a Lok Sabha member under the Tenth Schedule?

[SSC CHSL, held 10 July 2019 (Shift 2)]

(A) Election Commission of India

(B) Lok Sabha Speaker

(D) Vice-President of India

Answer: (B) Lok Sabha Speaker

Explanation: The Lok Sabha Speaker decides anti-defection cases under the Tenth Schedule, subject to judicial review. The President’s Article 103 jurisdiction concerns other constitutionally specified parliamentary disqualifications and requires the Election Commission’s opinion.

Q27. Along with former President Pranab Mukherjee, how many other individuals were awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2019?

[UPSC NDA-II 2019, General Ability Test (17 November 2019)]

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) Four

Answer: (B) Two

Explanation: The 2019 Bharat Ratna recipients were former President Pranab Mukherjee, musician Bhupen Hazarika and social worker Nanaji Deshmukh. Thus two other persons received the honour alongside Mukherjee, who had served as President from 2012 to 2017.

Q26. Which statement about Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?

[UPSC NDA-I 2019, General Ability Test (21 April 2019)]

(A) Members representing States are elected by elected MLAs

(B) Election uses proportional representation and single transferable vote

(D) Rajya Sabha is permanent but can be dissolved early by the President

Answer: (D) Rajya Sabha is permanent but can be dissolved early by the President

Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a continuing House and cannot be dissolved by the President. Its members retire in rotation, generally one-third every second year. The President’s power to dissolve the Lok Sabha does not extend to this upper House.

2018

Q25. Every judge of the Supreme Court of India is appointed by which authority?

[UPSC NDA-II 2018, General Ability Test (9 September 2018)]

(A) Supreme Court Collegium

(B) Union Cabinet

(D) Lok Sabha

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Article 124 provides that Supreme Court judges are appointed by the President under the constitutional framework for judicial appointments. The collegium plays a central role in making recommendations, but formal appointment remains a presidential act.

Q24. The President of India addresses the Parliament under Article 87 of the Indian Constitution ______.

[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2018]

(A) In a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament

(B) In a joint meeting of both Houses of Parliament

(D) With both Houses of Parliament assembled together

Answer: (D) With both Houses of Parliament assembled together

Explanation: Article 87 requires the President to address both Houses assembled together at the beginning of the first session after each Lok Sabha general election and the first session of each year. The address outlines the government’s legislative programme.

Q23. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India may be removed from office in the same manner as which constitutional office-holder?

[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2018]

(A) Lok Sabha Speaker

(B) Attorney-General of India

(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission

Answer: (C) Supreme Court judge

Explanation: Article 148 protects the Comptroller and Auditor-General’s independence by allowing removal only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge. The President performs the formal removal process subject to that demanding constitutional procedure.

2017

Q22. Consider the President’s powers:
1. Union executive power vests in the President.
2. Such power can only be exercised through subordinate officers.
3. Supreme command of Union defence forces vests in the President.

Which are correct?

[UPSC CDS-I 2017, General Knowledge (5 February 2017)]

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) 3 only

Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Article 53 vests executive power and supreme command of defence forces in the President. Executive power may be exercised directly or through subordinate officers according to the Constitution, so the statement restricting its exercise exclusively to officers is incorrect.

Q21. Who settles disputes arising from presidential and vice-presidential elections?

[UPSC CDS-I 2017, General Knowledge (5 February 2017)]

(A) Supreme Court of India

(B) Election Commission of India

(D) Delhi High Court

Answer: (A) Supreme Court of India

Explanation: Under Article 71, the Supreme Court has the final constitutional authority to determine disputes connected with elections of the President and Vice-President. The Election Commission conducts these elections but does not adjudicate the final legal dispute.

Q20. Who is regarded as the first citizen of the Republic of India?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination 2017]

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) President of India

(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: The President, as India’s constitutional head of State, is conventionally referred to as the first citizen. The title signifies the office’s ceremonial precedence within the Republic; executive policy remains chiefly the responsibility of elected ministers.

Q19. Who is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination 2017]

(A) Leader of the Opposition

(B) A person nominated by the President

(D) A person nominated by the Vice-President

Answer: (C) Vice-President of India

Explanation: Article 64 makes the Vice-President the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States, or Rajya Sabha. When the Vice-President performs presidential functions under Article 65, the duties of the chairmanship are suspended during that period.

Q18. Who may establish an Inter-State Council under Article 263?

[UPPSC Preliminary Examination 2017]

(A) Parliament

(B) President of India

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: Article 263 allows the President to create an Inter-State Council when its establishment appears desirable in the public interest. The council facilitates consultation, investigation and recommendations on questions involving States or the Union and States.

Q17. Under which constitutional provision is the President required to act according to the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor (Political Science), 11 July 2017]

(A) Article 74(1)

(B) Article 74(2)

(D) Article 75(2)

Answer: (A) Article 74(1)

Explanation: Article 74(1) establishes a Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. Following reconsideration if requested, ministerial advice binds the President. Article 74(2) concerns the bar on judicial inquiry into advice.

Q16. Who determines the remuneration of the Attorney-General of India?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor (Political Science), 2017]

(A) Parliament

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Article 76 provides that the Attorney-General receives remuneration as the President may determine. The Attorney-General is the Union’s highest law officer, appointed by the President from persons qualified to be Supreme Court judges.

Q15. With respect to a National Emergency under Article 352, which group of propositions is correct:
(i) proclaimed by the President;
(iii) parliamentary approval within one month;
(v) special majority for approval;
(vi) revocation can be secured by simple majority of Lok Sabha?

[CGPSC Civil Service Preliminary Examination 2017]

(A) (i), (ii), (iv), (viii)

(B) (i), (iii), (vi), (viii)

(D) (ii), (iv), (vii), (viii)

Answer: (C) (i), (iii), (v), (vi)

Explanation: Article 352 emergencies are proclaimed by the President on written Cabinet advice, require parliamentary approval within one month by special majority, and may be disapproved by the Lok Sabha through a simple-majority resolution. The rules reflect post-1978 safeguards.

2016

Q14. Which presidential eligibility statements are correct?
1. A person above 35 is eligible.
2. A former President can be re-elected for more than one term.
3. Holding a disqualifying office of profit prevents election.

[UPSC NDA-I 2016, General Ability Test (17 April 2016)]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 only

(D) 3 only

Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Article 58 specifies the minimum age as 35 and generally bars disqualifying offices of profit. Article 57 permits re-election without a fixed constitutional term limit. Certain offices, including ministers, are specifically excluded from the office-of-profit bar.

Q13. Consider the President’s information rights:
1. May seek information concerning ministerial decisions.
2. May call for information on legislative proposals.
3. Cabinet decisions on Union administration must be communicated to the President.

Which statements are correct?

[UPSC CDS-I 2016, General Knowledge (14 February 2016)]

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Article 78 obliges the Prime Minister to inform the President about Cabinet decisions and legislative proposals and to furnish requested information. These duties preserve the head of State’s constitutional awareness without displacing ministerial responsibility.

Q12. Without whose recommendation can a Money Bill not be introduced in the Lok Sabha?

[WBCS Preliminary Examination 2016]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Lok Sabha Speaker

(D) Union Finance Secretary

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: Article 117 and the Money Bill procedure require the President’s recommendation for introducing specified financial legislation. This recommendation is formally presidential but operates within the Council of Ministers’ advice under the parliamentary system.

Q11. Who chaired the Fourteenth Finance Commission appointed by the President?

[UPSC CDS-II 2016, General Knowledge (23 October 2016)]

(A) C. Rangarajan

(B) Vijay Kelkar

(D) Rakesh Mohan

Answer: (C) Y. V. Reddy

Explanation: Y. V. Reddy chaired the Fourteenth Finance Commission, constituted in 2013 under Article 280. The Commission examined Centre–State fiscal relations and recommended major changes in the States’ share of divisible central tax proceeds.

2015

Q10. In whom is the executive power of the Union of India vested?

[UPPSC Preliminary Examination 2015]

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President of India

(D) Parliament

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: Article 53 vests Union executive power in the President. Under Article 74, however, the President ordinarily acts on advice from the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The formal vesting therefore does not produce a presidential system.

Q9. Parliament of India consists of which of the following?

[UPPSC Preliminary Examination 2015]

(A) Lok Sabha only

(B) Rajya Sabha only

(D) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Answer: (D) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Explanation: Article 79 makes the President a constituent of Parliament along with the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The President is not a voting member of either House but participates constitutionally through summons, addresses and assent to Bills.

Q8. Who summons a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?

[UPPSC Preliminary Examination 2015]

(A) President of India

(B) Lok Sabha Speaker

(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Answer: (A) President of India

Explanation: Article 108 empowers the President to notify an intention to summon a joint parliamentary sitting when a qualifying legislative deadlock occurs. The sitting is generally presided over by the Lok Sabha Speaker and is unavailable for Money Bills.

Q7. Which Article governs impeachment of the President of India?

[UPPSC Preliminary Examination 2015]

(A) Article 53

(B) Article 61

(D) Article 13

Answer: (B) Article 61

Explanation: Article 61 establishes the impeachment mechanism for violation of the Constitution. Charges can begin in either parliamentary House, with fourteen days’ notice and heightened voting thresholds to protect the constitutional office from ordinary political removal.

Q6. Who discharges the duties of President if both the President and Vice-President are unable to act?

[UPPSC Preliminary Examination 2015]

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Attorney-General of India

Answer: (A) Chief Justice of India

Explanation: The President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969 enables the Chief Justice of India, or the senior-most available Supreme Court judge, to discharge presidential functions if the offices of President and Vice-President are both unable to function.

2007

Q5. Consider:
1. A Financial Emergency proclamation under Article 360 ceases after two months unless approved by both Houses.
2. During such emergency, the President may reduce Union government salaries but cannot reduce Supreme Court or High Court judges’ salaries.

Which statement is correct?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2007]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: Article 360 imposes parliamentary approval within two months for Financial Emergency. Presidential financial directions may extend to reduction of salaries and allowances, including those of Supreme Court and High Court judges, so the second statement is incorrect.

2004

Q4. Match the books with their authors:
A. My Presidential Years;
B. The Hindu View of Life;
C. Voice of Conscience;
D. Without Fear or Favour.

Authors:
1. S. Radhakrishnan;
2. V. V. Giri;
3. N. Sanjiva Reddy;
4. R. Venkataraman.

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2004]

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3

(B) 4, 3, 2, 1

(D) 4, 1, 2, 3

Answer: (D) 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation: R. Venkataraman authored My Presidential Years, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan wrote The Hindu View of Life, V. V. Giri wrote Voice of Conscience, and Neelam Sanjiva Reddy authored Without Fear or Favour. The resulting sequence is 4–1–2–3.

2003

Q3. Under which Article did the President promulgate the electoral-reforms ordinance in 2002 after the Union Cabinet returned it without changes?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2003]

(A) Article 121

(B) Article 122

(D) Article 124

Answer: (C) Article 123

Explanation: Article 123 grants the President the ordinance-making power when Parliament is not fully in session. The 2002 electoral-reforms ordinance raised questions concerning the President’s ability to seek reconsideration of Cabinet advice, but promulgation was governed by this Article.

Q2. Under which Article did the President refer the question of deferring Gujarat Assembly elections to the Supreme Court for its opinion in 2002?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2003]

(A) Article 142

(B) Article 143

(D) Article 145

Answer: (B) Article 143

Explanation: Article 143 permits the President to refer qualifying questions of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for an advisory opinion. The Gujarat election scheduling controversy resulted in a presidential reference under this special advisory jurisdiction.

2002

Q1. Which Constitutional Amendment empowered the President to send a matter back to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration?

[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2002]

(A) Thirty-ninth Amendment

(B) Fortieth Amendment

(D) Forty-fourth Amendment

Answer: (D) Forty-fourth Amendment

Explanation: The Forty-fourth Constitutional Amendment introduced the President’s express power to request reconsideration of ministerial advice once under Article 74. Once the Council has reconsidered and returned its advice, the President is constitutionally bound to act accordingly.

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