Q50. What do the ovary and the ovule generally develop into after fertilisation in a flowering plant?
[RRB Group D, 4 February 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Ovary becomes seed; ovule becomes fruit
(B) Ovary becomes fruit; ovule becomes seed
(C) Ovary becomes radicle; ovule becomes plumule
(D) Both become cotyledons
Answer: (B) Ovary becomes fruit; ovule becomes seed
Explanation: Following double fertilisation, the ovary typically matures into a fruit, while its ovules become seeds. The ovary wall forms the pericarp, and the integuments form seed coats. These changes protect the developing embryo and assist dispersal.
Q49. The pollen tube growing through the style of a flower ultimately reaches which structure first?
[RRB Group D, 5 February 2026, Shift 2]
(A) Petal
(B) Ovary
(C) Filament
(D) Sepal
Answer: (B) Ovary
Explanation: After pollen germinates on a compatible stigma, the pollen tube passes through the style and enters the ovary. It then approaches an ovule, usually through its micropyle, carrying two male gametes for the fertilisation events inside the embryo sac.
Q48. Which plant among the following produces non-albuminous seeds?
[RE-NEET 2026]
(A) Pea
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Barley
Answer: (A) Pea
Explanation: A non-albuminous seed has little or no endosperm remaining at maturity because the developing embryo consumes it. Pea is a standard example, storing reserves in its cotyledons. Wheat, maize and barley retain substantial endosperm and are albuminous.
Q47. Which structures in the female gametophyte guide the incoming pollen tube?
[RE-NEET 2026]
(A) Polar nuclei
(B) Antipodal cells
(C) Synergids
(D) Integuments
Answer: (C) Synergids
Explanation: The two synergids lie beside the egg at the micropylar end of the embryo sac. Their filiform apparatus helps attract and guide the pollen tube. A synergid usually receives the pollen tube and facilitates discharge of the male gametes.
Q46. If an angiosperm has a diploid chromosome number of 36, how many chromosomes normally occur in its endosperm?
[RE-NEET 2026]
(A) 72
(B) 18
(C) 36
(D) 54
Answer: (D) 54
Explanation: In most flowering plants the primary endosperm nucleus is triploid, formed when one male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei. If 2n equals 36, then n equals 18, so the triploid endosperm possesses 54 chromosomes.
Q45. Which type of pollination brings pollen from a genetically different plant of the same species to a stigma?
[NEET 2026]
(A) Autogamy
(B) Geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) Cleistogamy
Answer: (C) Xenogamy
Explanation: Xenogamy transfers pollen between flowers borne on different plants of the same species. Unlike autogamy or geitonogamy, it can introduce genetically distinct pollen. This favours recombination and variation in the offspring, although a compatible pollen–pistil interaction remains necessary.
Q44. Which part of an angiosperm is chiefly responsible for sexual reproduction?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 12 August 2025, Shift 3]
(A) Stem
(B) Leaf
(C) Flower
(D) Root
Answer: (C) Flower
Explanation: Flowers bear the reproductive organs of angiosperms. Their stamens form pollen containing the male gametophyte, while carpels enclose ovules with female gametophytes. Pollination and fertilisation within this floral system eventually produce seeds and usually fruits.
Q43. What is the collective term for the male reproductive whorl of a flower?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 22 August 2025, Shift 3]
(A) Gynoecium
(B) Corolla
(C) Androecium
(D) Calyx
Answer: (C) Androecium
Explanation: The androecium comprises all the stamens in a flower. A typical stamen consists of a filament supporting an anther. Pollen develops in microsporangia within the anther, making the androecium the male reproductive whorl of flowering plants.
Q42. Which floral whorl represents the female reproductive system in angiosperms?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 8 August 2025, Shift 3]
(A) Corolla
(B) Androecium
(C) Gynoecium
(D) Calyx
Answer: (C) Gynoecium
Explanation: The gynoecium consists of one or more carpels or pistils. Each typical carpel includes a stigma, style and ovary. Ovules reside in the ovary, while the receptive stigma receives pollen and supports the start of pollen-tube growth.
Q41. What is the principal role of the pollen tube during fertilisation?
[RRB Group D, 4 December 2025, Shift 2]
(A) Forming the fruit wall
(B) Producing all pollen grains
(C) Transporting the ovule to the stigma
(D) Carrying male gametes towards the female gametophyte
Answer: (D) Carrying male gametes towards the female gametophyte
Explanation: A compatible pollen grain germinates on the stigma and produces a pollen tube. This tube extends through the style towards an ovule and delivers two male gametes to the
Q40. How many meiotic divisions and successive mitotic rounds normally produce the mature female gametophyte from one megaspore mother cell?
[NEET 2025]
(A) One meiosis and three mitotic rounds
(B) Three meioses and one mitotic round
(C) One meiosis and one mitotic round
(D) Two meioses and four mitotic rounds
Answer: (A) One meiosis and three mitotic rounds
Explanation: One megaspore mother cell completes meiosis to yield four haploid megaspores, usually leaving one functional megaspore. That megaspore undergoes three successive mitotic divisions, yielding eight nuclei, which organise into the familiar seven-celled mature embryo sac.
Q39. Which tree has a highly specialised pollination relationship with a coevolved insect that is effectively its specific pollinator?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024, General Studies]
(A) Fig
(B) Mahua
(C) Sandalwood
(D) Silk cotton
Answer: (A) Fig
Explanation: Fig trees and fig wasps demonstrate a specialised mutualism. Female wasps enter fig inflorescences for egg laying while transferring pollen. Many fig species are associated with particular wasp pollinators, making the relationship a classic illustration of coevolution.
Q38. Which of the following is NOT normally a floral whorl or component of a flower?
[SSC CGL Tier I, 13 September 2024, Shift 3]
(A) Androecium
(B) Corolla
(C) Spines
(D) Calyx
Answer: (C) Spines
Explanation: Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium constitute the four principal floral whorls. Spines are usually modified vegetative organs serving protection or reducing browsing. They are not counted among the standard reproductive or accessory whorls of a typical flower.
Q37. Which part of the flower normally develops into a seed following fertilisation?
[SSC MTS, 28 October 2024, Shift 1]
(A) Stamen
(B) Petal
(C) Ovule
(D) Stigma
Answer: (C) Ovule
Explanation: The ovule contains the embryo sac and develops into a seed following fertilisation. Its integuments form the seed coat, while the zygote forms an embryo. The enclosing ovary, rather than the ovule, normally develops into the fruit.
Q36. Why can pollen grains remain preserved for exceptionally long periods as fossils?
[NEET 2024, Re-examination]
(A) Because of lignin in the intine
(B) Because sporopollenin occurs in the exine
(C) Because pollen contains no water
(D) Because pollen is made entirely of cellulose
Answer: (B) Because sporopollenin occurs in the exine
Explanation: Sporopollenin, present in the outer exine wall of pollen grains, is exceptionally resistant to physical, chemical and biological degradation. This durability allows the pollen wall to survive for long periods, providing a useful record for palaeobotanical and environmental studies.
Q35. How does the association between flowers and honeybees chiefly benefit the flowers?
[UPSC NDA II, General Ability, 3 September 2023]
(A) It accelerates vegetative growth
(B) It promotes pollination
(C) It directly causes seed germination
(D) It increases flower size immediately
Answer: (B) It promotes pollination
Explanation: Honeybees visit flowers to collect nectar or pollen. While moving between flowers they can transfer pollen grains from anthers to receptive stigmas. This promotes pollination and, following compatible pollen-tube growth and fertilisation, may result in fruit and seed formation.
Q34. During which of these events is the chromosome number reduced by half in flowering plants?
[UPSC NDA II, General Ability, 3 September 2023]
(A) Seed germination
(B) Fruit ripening
(C) Flower opening
(D) Formation of microspores during pollen development
Answer: (D) Formation of microspores during pollen development
Explanation: Microspore mother cells in the anther undergo meiosis, a reduction division that changes the chromosome number from diploid to haploid. The resulting microspores develop into pollen grains. Germination, flower opening and fruit ripening do not themselves cause this reduction.
Q33. Which process is NOT a form of asexual reproduction in plants?
[SSC CHSL Tier I 2022 cycle, held 10 March 2023, Shift 1]
(A) Vegetative propagation
(B) Spore formation
(C) Pollination
(D) Budding
Answer: (C) Pollination
Explanation: Pollination involves transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma and belongs to the sexual reproductive pathway of flowering plants. Vegetative propagation, budding and many forms of spore reproduction can create new individuals without fusion of male and female gametes.
Q32. What chiefly distinguishes microsporogenesis from megasporogenesis in flowering plants?
[CGPSC Mains 2023, General Science — MCQ adapted from descriptive PYQ]
(A) Microsporogenesis makes pollen precursors; megasporogenesis makes megaspores
(B) Both processes occur only inside mature seeds
(C) Microsporogenesis forms ovaries; megasporogenesis forms petals
(D) Microsporogenesis occurs in the style; megasporogenesis in the stigma
Answer: (A) Microsporogenesis makes pollen precursors; megasporogenesis makes megaspores
Explanation: Microsporogenesis is meiosis in microspore mother cells inside anthers, producing haploid microspores. Megasporogenesis is meiosis in a megaspore mother cell within an ovule, producing megaspores. Their developmental locations and gametophyte pathways differ, although both start with reduction division.
Q31. After fertilisation, which floral structures normally wither, while sepals may sometimes persist?
[RRB Group D, 27 September 2022, Shift 1]
(A) Only stigma, never petals
(B) Petals, stamens, stigma and style
(C) Only ovary and ovules
(D) Entire flower, including developing ovary
Answer: (B) Petals, stamens, stigma and style
Explanation: Following fertilisation, petals, stamens, stigma and style usually senesce because they have completed their roles. The ovary persists and enlarges to form a fruit. Sepals may sometimes remain attached as persistent calyx, as seen in several plant species.
Q30. Which statement about cleistogamous flowers is correct?
[NEET 2022, Phase 1]
(A) They are invariably cross-pollinated
(B) They remain closed and are invariably autogamous
(C) They never form viable seeds
(D) They depend on insect pollinators for seed set
Answer: (B) They remain closed and are invariably autogamous
Explanation: Cleistogamous flowers remain closed, bringing the anther and stigma into close contact within the same flower. Consequently self-pollination is assured without an external pollinating agent. This promotes reliable seed set but generally restricts outcrossing and associated genetic variation.
Q29. After a compatible pollen grain reaches the stigma, what sequence leads most directly to fertilisation?
[CGPSC Mains 2022, General Science — MCQ adapted from descriptive PYQ]
(A) Seed dispersal, embryo formation, pollen growth
(B) Pollen germination, pollen-tube growth, male-gamete delivery
(C) Fruit ripening, meiosis, anther dehiscence
(D) Petal abscission, germination of seed, pollination
Answer: (B) Pollen germination, pollen-tube growth, male-gamete delivery
Explanation: Compatible pollen hydrates and germinates on the stigma, producing a pollen tube that traverses the style. It approaches an ovule and discharges two male gametes into the embryo sac. One fuses with the egg and the other participates in triple fusion.
Q28. The commercial spice clove consists of which plant structure?
[UPPSC Combined State Exam, General Studies, 24 October 2021]
(A) Terminal vegetative bud
(B) Accessory bud
(C) Dried flower bud
(D) Underground root bud
Answer: (C) Dried flower bud
Explanation: Cloves are the dried, unopened aromatic flower buds of Syzygium aromaticum. A flower bud contains structures that would develop into the reproductive flower. This makes clove an example of a commercially used floral part rather than a root or vegetative bud.
Q27. A typical mature angiosperm embryo sac is usually described as which of the following?
[NEET 2021]
(A) Four-nucleate and four-celled
(B) Eight-nucleate and seven-celled
(C) Eight-nucleate and eight-celled
(D) Six-nucleate and seven-celled
Answer: (B) Eight-nucleate and seven-celled
Explanation: The common Polygonum-type embryo sac contains an egg, two synergids, three antipodal cells and one central cell. The central cell houses two polar nuclei, resulting in seven cells but eight nuclei before the fusion of polar nuclei.
Q26. Which sequence correctly shows events from pollination to seedling formation?
[UPSC CDS I 2020, General Knowledge]
(A) Seedling → embryo → pollination → fertilisation
(B) Embryo → seedling → pollination → fertilisation
(C) Pollination → fertilisation → zygote division → embryo → seedling
(D) Seedling → zygote division → pollination → fertilisation
Answer: (C) Pollination → fertilisation → zygote division → embryo → seedling
Explanation: Pollination first places pollen on the stigma. Following pollen-tube growth, fertilisation produces a zygote, which divides and develops into an embryo inside a seed. Under favourable conditions the mature seed germinates to produce a young seedling.
Q25. Which order correctly lists these floral structures roughly from innermost to outermost: ovule (1), ovary (2), stigma (3), petal (4)?
[SSC CHSL, 20 October 2020, Shift 2]
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 3, 2, 4, 1
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation: Ovules are enclosed inside the ovary, which is part of the pistil. The stigma is positioned at the upper end of the pistil, while petals occur in a surrounding floral whorl. Therefore the requested inside-to-outside conceptual order is ovule, ovary, stigma, petal.
Q24. Transfer of pollen from a flower to another flower on the same plant is called what?
[MPPSC State Service, General Studies 2019]
(A) Autogamy
(B) Geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) Apomixis
Answer: (B) Geitonogamy
Explanation: Geitonogamy takes place between different flowers belonging to a single plant. It may require a pollinating agent, resembling cross-pollination functionally. However, its pollen originates from the same individual, making it genetically comparable to self-pollination.
Q23. Double fertilisation is a characteristic reproductive feature of which group?
[RRB JE CBT I, 28 June 2019, Shift 3]
(A) Bryophytes
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Ferns
(D) Angiosperms
Answer: (D) Angiosperms
Explanation: In flowering plants one male gamete unites with the egg to form a diploid zygote, while the other fuses with the two polar nuclei to make the triploid primary endosperm nucleus. Together these events constitute double fertilisation.
Q22. What is the name of the persistent nucellus that remains in some mature seeds?
[NEET 2019]
(A) Perisperm
(B) Pericarp
(C) Endosperm
(D) Coleoptile
Answer: (A) Perisperm
Explanation: Perisperm is residual nucellar tissue retained in a mature seed, such as black pepper or beet. Unlike endosperm, which forms after triple fusion, perisperm comes from the maternal sporophytic tissue already present in the ovule before fertilisation.
Q21. What is the swollen basal portion of a flower’s carpel called?
[SSC CHSL, 26 March 2018, Shift 2]
(A) Ovary
(B) Style
(C) Stigma
(D) Anther
Answer: (A) Ovary
Explanation: The carpel generally consists of stigma, style and ovary. The ovary is its swollen basal region and encloses ovules attached to the placenta. It commonly enlarges into the fruit after fertilisation, whereas its ovules become seeds.
Q20. Which description most accurately defines double fertilisation in angiosperms?
[NEET 2018]
(A) Two eggs fuse with two separate pollen grains
(B) One male gamete fuses with egg and another with the central-cell nuclei
(C) One sperm fuses twice with the same egg
(D) Two male gametes fuse with each other
Answer: (B) One male gamete fuses with egg and another with the central-cell nuclei
Explanation: Angiosperms exhibit two fusion events within the embryo sac. Syngamy produces a diploid zygote from an egg and male gamete. Triple fusion produces the primary endosperm nucleus from the other male gamete and two polar nuclei.
Q19. Cleistogamous flowers are invariably associated with which form of pollination?
[RPSC Senior Teacher Grade II, Science, 1 July 2017]
(A) Autogamy
(B) Geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) Hydrophily
Answer: (A) Autogamy
Explanation: Because cleistogamous flowers never open, the pollen released from their anthers can reach only their own stigmas. They therefore undergo autogamy, producing seeds even without pollinators. The closed floral condition prevents ordinary cross-pollen entry.
Q18. What does the term pollination mean?
[SSC MTS, 18 September 2017, Shift 1]
(A) Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
(B) Germination of pollen alone
(C) Visit of ants to flowers only
(D) Growth of embryo after fertilisation
Answer: (A) Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
Explanation: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma. It precedes fertilisation; pollen must subsequently germinate and deliver male gametes through a pollen tube. Wind, water and animals can act as pollinating agents in different plants.
Q17. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily commonly takes place through which agents?
[NEET 2016, Phase 2]
(A) Bats alone
(B) Water currents exclusively
(C) Insects or wind
(D) Birds exclusively
Answer: (C) Insects or wind
Explanation: Although water hyacinth and water lily are aquatic, their flowers emerge above the water surface. Pollination therefore occurs mainly through insects or wind rather than underwater currents. True hydrophily is relatively uncommon among flowering plants and occurs in species such as Vallisneria.
Q16. The liquid inside a tender coconut is an example of what tissue or developmental stage?
[NEET 2016, Phase 1]
(A) Cellular endosperm
(B) Free-nuclear endosperm
(C) Perisperm
(D) Nucellus
Answer: (B) Free-nuclear endosperm
Explanation: Tender coconut water represents the liquid free-nuclear phase of endosperm development. Nuclear division initially proceeds without immediate cell-wall formation. As the coconut matures, the peripheral endosperm becomes cellular and forms the white edible kernel.
Q15. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of the same flower is called which process?
[WBCS Preliminary Examination 2015]
(A) Allogamy
(B) Geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) Autogamy
Answer: (D) Autogamy
Explanation: Autogamy is pollination within a single flower. It is favoured when pollen release and stigma receptivity overlap and the reproductive structures are close together. It differs from geitonogamy, which involves two flowers on the same plant.
Q14. Which type of pollination may require an external pollinator but is genetically similar to autogamy?
[AIPMT 2015, cancelled-paper question]
(A) Xenogamy
(B) Apogamy
(C) Cleistogamy
(D) Geitonogamy
Answer: (D) Geitonogamy
Explanation: Geitonogamy transfers pollen between separate flowers of the same plant, often using insects or another agent. Because the source and recipient belong to one individual, the pollen is not genetically independent in the way it generally is in xenogamy.
Q13. What is the function of the filiform apparatus in the synergid?
[AIPMT 2014]
(A) Storage of starch
(B) Guidance of pollen tube towards the egg apparatus
(C) Formation of seed coat
(D) Release of pollen from anther
Answer: (B) Guidance of pollen tube towards the egg apparatus
Explanation: The filiform apparatus is a specialised wall thickening near the micropylar tip of a synergid. It plays an important role in attracting and guiding the pollen tube into the embryo sac, where the two male gametes are released.
Q12. Perisperm differs from endosperm mainly because perisperm is what?
[NEET 2013]
(A) Persistent diploid nucellus of maternal origin
(B) Triploid tissue formed by triple fusion
(C) Diploid tissue formed by syngamy
(D) Embryo-derived cotyledonary tissue
Answer: (A) Persistent diploid nucellus of maternal origin
Explanation: Perisperm is persistent nucellus, a maternal diploid tissue present before fertilisation. Endosperm, by contrast, normally develops from the triploid primary endosperm nucleus after triple fusion. The two tissues may both store food, but their developmental origins differ.
Q11. In which condition are both autogamy and geitonogamy prevented?
[AIPMT 2012, Preliminary Examination]
(A) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(B) Dioecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(C) Plant with bisexual cleistogamous flowers
(D) Plant bearing two bisexual flowers
Answer: (B) Dioecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
Explanation: Dioecious plants bear staminate and pistillate flowers on separate individuals. Neither a single flower nor two flowers on the same plant can accomplish both pollen donation and reception. Thus autogamy and geitonogamy are both prevented, making cross-plant pollination obligatory.
Q10. Nucellar polyembryony is particularly reported in which plant genus?
[AIPMT 2011, Preliminary Examination]
(A) Citrus
(B) Wheat
(C) Pea
(D) Sunflower
Answer: (A) Citrus
Explanation: Some Citrus seeds contain several embryos, including adventive embryos that arise directly from nucellar cells rather than a fertilised egg. Such nucellar embryos are maternal clones. Their presence alongside a sexually formed embryo constitutes an important example of polyembryony.
Q9. Which set of adaptations is most typical of wind-pollinated flowers?
[AIPMT 2010, Preliminary Examination]
(A) Bright petals, nectar and sticky heavy pollen
(B) Small inconspicuous flowers, abundant light pollen and feathery stigma
(C) Large nectar guides and very few pollen grains
(D) Submerged flowers and mucilage-bound pollen only
Answer: (B) Small inconspicuous flowers, abundant light pollen and feathery stigma
Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers usually invest little in colour, scent or nectar. They often produce plentiful small, dry pollen that air currents can carry. Exposed anthers release the grains, and broad or feathery stigmas increase the chance of intercepting airborne pollen.
Q8. Vegetative propagation in mint chiefly occurs through which structure?
[AIPMT 2009]
(A) Suckers
(B) Cones
(C) Seeds without embryos
(D) Pollen tubes
Answer: (A) Suckers
Explanation: Mint commonly spreads through suckers arising from underground or basal parts of the plant. These vegetative shoots establish new plants without fertilisation. Such asexual reproduction retains the parent genotype and is distinct from the seed-producing sexual reproduction of flowers.
Q7. Which substance of the pollen exine is notably resistant to enzymatic degradation?
[AIPMT 2008]
(A) Cellulose
(B) Callose
(C) Sporopollenin
(D) Pectin
Answer: (C) Sporopollenin
Explanation: Sporopollenin is a highly stable organic material deposited in the pollen exine. Its resistance to biological and chemical breakdown protects the male gametophyte during dispersal. This stability also contributes to the remarkable preservation of fossil pollen grains.
Q6. Which reproductive cell is typically surrounded by a callose wall during the formation of microspores?
[AIPMT 2007]
(A) Mature egg cell
(B) Pollen mother cell
(C) Synergid
(D) Mature endosperm cell
Answer: (B) Pollen mother cell
Explanation: During microsporogenesis, the diploid pollen mother cell develops a callose wall. Following meiosis the resulting microspores may remain together briefly as a tetrad enclosed by callose. Callase enzymes subsequently help release individual haploid microspores.
Q5. What is the name of the single cotyledon of a typical cereal embryo?
[AIPMT 2006]
(A) Scutellum
(B) Coleorhiza
(C) Coleoptile
(D) Aleurone layer
Answer: (A) Scutellum
Explanation: Monocot cereal embryos possess one cotyledon called the scutellum, positioned against the endosperm. It helps absorb nutrients during germination. The coleoptile and coleorhiza protect the plumule and radicle, while the aleurone is part of the endosperm.
Q4. Through which embryo-sac cell does the pollen tube normally enter and discharge its male gametes?
[AIPMT 2005]
(A) Antipodal cell
(B) Synergid
(C) Egg nucleus
(D) Central-cell nucleus directly
Answer: (B) Synergid
Explanation: The pollen tube usually penetrates one of the synergids at the micropylar end of the female gametophyte. Its contents are discharged there, making the male gametes available for fertilisation. The egg and central cell participate in the two subsequent fusion events.
Q3. If a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male plant, what is the expected ploidy of the endosperm?
[AIPMT 2004]
(A) Tetraploid (4n)
(B) Pentaploid (5n)
(C) Diploid (2n)
(D) Triploid (3n)
Answer: (A) Tetraploid (4n)
Explanation: The diploid female contributes two haploid polar nuclei, together equivalent to 2x. The tetraploid male forms diploid gametes, contributing another 2x. Triple fusion therefore gives a 4x primary endosperm nucleus rather than the usual 3x endosperm.
Q2. In a flowering-plant anther, the archesporial cell ultimately gives rise to which tissues?
[AIPMT 2003]
(A) Only the sporangium wall
(B) Both sporangium wall tissues and sporogenous cells
(C) Only wall and mature pollen grains directly
(D) Only tapetum and pollen tubes
Answer: (B) Both sporangium wall tissues and sporogenous cells
Explanation: An archesporial cell undergoes periclinal division, producing an outer primary parietal cell and an inner primary sporogenous cell. The parietal derivatives contribute to the anther wall layers, whereas sporogenous derivatives become the pollen mother-cell lineage.
Q1. In a typical anatropous ovule, the micropyle is directed which way?
[AIPMT 2002]
(A) Upwards
(B) Downwards
(C) Towards the right only
(D) Towards the left only
Answer: (B) Downwards
Explanation: An anatropous ovule becomes inverted during development, bringing the micropyle close to the funicle and hilum. In the conventional diagram its micropyle points downward. This inverted arrangement is widespread in angiosperms and differs from the straight orthotropous condition.