Q50. Consider:
1. Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several offices from office-of-profit disqualification.
2. It has been amended several times.
3. The Constitution clearly defines “office of profit”.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2019)]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All three
Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation: The 1959 Act exempts certain positions from office-of-profit disqualification and has been amended repeatedly. The Constitution itself does not provide an exhaustive definition of office of profit, leaving interpretation to legislation and judicial decisions.
Q49. Who may review independent regulators in telecommunications, insurance and electricity:
1. Ad hoc parliamentary committees
2. Department-related parliamentary standing committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2019)]
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) 2 and 5
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Parliamentary ad hoc committees and department-related standing committees can scrutinise sector regulators and their functioning. The Finance Commission, Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission and NITI Aayog do not perform this specific parliamentary oversight role.
Q48. Which Article formerly empowered the President to nominate Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha?
[SSC CGL (12 June 2019)]
(A) Article 331
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 108
(D) Article 125
Answer: (A) Article 331
Explanation: Article 331 historically allowed the President to nominate Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha if the community lacked adequate representation. This special nomination provision subsequently ceased following the 104th Constitutional Amendment.
Q47. Which statement concerning Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?
[UPSC NDA I (2019)]
(A) Members are elected by State MLAs
(B) Its election uses proportional representation through single transferable vote
(C) Approximately one-third retire every two years
(D) It is permanent but may be dissolved early by the President
Answer: (D) It is permanent but may be dissolved early by the President
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a permanent House that cannot be dissolved, even by the President. State representatives are elected indirectly through proportional representation, and members normally serve six-year terms, with staggered retirements every two years.
Q46. Who normally presides over a joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
[SSC CGL (12 June 2019)]
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Lok Sabha Speaker
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C) Lok Sabha Speaker
Explanation: A joint sitting is ordinarily presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, with alternate presiding arrangements if unavailable. The joint sitting mechanism addresses certain legislative deadlocks and operates under Article 108.
Q45. The first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was established in which year?
[RPF Constable (20 January 2019)]
(A) 2003
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Answer: (B) 2005
Explanation: The Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was formed in 2005 as the first parliamentary forum of its kind. Forums support informed discussion among MPs and connect them with subject experts and government programmes.
Q44. In which year was the Indian Parliamentary Group formed?
[RPF Constable (24 January 2019)]
(A) 1935
(B) 1949
(C) 1952
(D) 1977
Answer: (B) 1949
Explanation: The Indian Parliamentary Group was established in 1949 to foster communication among parliamentarians and with legislatures abroad. Its ex officio President is the Lok Sabha Speaker, and its members include eligible serving and former MPs.
Q43. Which parliamentary committee checks whether delegated regulations, rules and bye-laws remain within the authority granted by Parliament?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2018)]
(A) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: (A) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Explanation: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation scrutinises rules, regulations and other instruments issued under powers delegated by Parliament. It considers whether subordinate law remains within legislative authority and accords with the intent of the parent statute.
Q42. Regarding Money Bills, which statement is NOT correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2018)]
(A) Taxation provisions may fall within a Money Bill
(B) Custody of the Consolidated Fund or Contingency Fund may be addressed in a Money Bill
(C) A Money Bill appropriates money out of the Contingency Fund
(D) Regulation of government borrowing may be covered by a Money Bill
Answer: (C) A Money Bill appropriates money out of the Contingency Fund
Explanation: Article 110 specifies Money Bill subjects. Appropriation ordinarily concerns moneys from the Consolidated Fund, whereas custody or payment into or withdrawal from the Contingency Fund is separately described. Thus statement C wrongly describes appropriation from that Fund.
Q41. Consider:
1. A State Assembly Speaker vacates office on ceasing to be an Assembly member.
2. The Speaker vacates office immediately on dissolution of the Assembly.
Which statement is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2018)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: The Speaker ordinarily vacates office upon ceasing to be a member, but a dissolution does not end the Speaker’s tenure immediately. The Constitution provides continuity until immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected Assembly.
