Q150. For parliamentary starred and unstarred questions, consider:
1. Unstarred questions require oral replies.
2. Starred questions require written replies.
3. Supplementary questions cannot be asked on unstarred questions.
How many statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2026)]
(A) All three
(B) Two, including statement 2
(C) Only one
(D) None
Answer: (C) Only one
Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. Starred questions receive oral answers and permit supplementary questions; unstarred questions receive written answers and do not permit supplementaries. The first two statements deliberately interchange these two types of parliamentary questions.
Q149. About the Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, consider:
1. Rajya Sabha Chairman appoints its chairperson.
2. Rajya Sabha elects 20 members, Lok Sabha 10.
3. One Union Minister may join.
4. Members serve two years.
How many statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2026)]
(A) Four
(B) Only statement 2
(C) Two, including statement 1
(D) None
Answer: (D) None
Explanation: None is correct. The Committee has 20 Lok Sabha and 10 Rajya Sabha members; its chairperson is appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker. Ministers cannot join it. Members are elected for a term not exceeding one year.
Q148. How many Lok Sabha seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes?
[SSC MTS 2025 (9 February 2026)]
(A) 84
(B) 54
(C) 56
(D) 92
Answer: (A) 84
Explanation: Eighty-four Lok Sabha constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Castes under the delimitation arrangement currently in force. These reservations provide representation for Scheduled Castes in the directly elected House. Scheduled Tribe reserved constituencies form a separate category.
Q147. What is the objective of a cut motion in the Lok Sabha?
[SSC MTS 2025 (10 February 2026)]
(A) To reduce a demand for grants
(B) To remove a judge
(C) To amend the Constitution
(D) To dissolve the Lok Sabha
Answer: (A) To reduce a demand for grants
Explanation: A cut motion is moved during the discussion of demands for grants. It seeks a reduction in the amount demanded by a ministry, allowing MPs to register a policy objection, recommend economy, or ventilate a specific grievance.
Q146. Under which Article may Parliament legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency?
[SSC MTS 2025 (10 February 2026)]
(A) Article 282
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 173
Answer: (B) Article 250
Explanation: Article 250 enables Parliament to legislate on State List matters while a National Emergency operates. Such legislation generally ceases to have effect six months after the Emergency ends, except for things previously done or omitted under that law.
Q145. Which Article deals with the introduction and passing of Bills in Parliament?
[SSC MTS 2025 (9 February 2026)]
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 105
(C) Article 107
(D) Article 103
Answer: (C) Article 107
Explanation: Article 107 contains constitutional rules for the introduction and passage of ordinary Bills in Parliament. It also deals with the effect of prorogation and dissolution on pending Bills, subject to special provisions applying to other categories of legislation.
Q144. Consider:
I. The Lok Sabha Speaker continues until immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected House.
II. The Constitution requires the Speaker to resign from the political party.
III. Removal requires a majority of all then members and 14 days’ notice.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2025)]
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III
Answer: (C) I and III
Explanation: Statements I and III are correct under Article 94. The Speaker holds office across dissolution until the new House first meets and can be removed through a prescribed majority after fourteen days’ notice. Party resignation is not constitutionally mandatory.
Q143. Consider:
I. A presidential ordinance can amend a Central Act.
II. An ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An ordinance can operate retrospectively.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2025)]
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III
Answer: (C) I and III
Explanation: An ordinance has legislative force and can amend ordinary Central legislation, including with retrospective effect when permissible. It remains subject to the Constitution, however, and cannot violate or abridge Fundamental Rights. Thus statements I and III alone are correct.
Q142. Consider:
I. Disqualification of a Lok Sabha member under the Tenth Schedule is finally decided by the President on ministerial advice.
II. The phrase “political party” does not appear in the Constitution.
Which is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims (2025)]
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer: (D) Neither
Explanation: Neither statement is correct. Tenth Schedule defection cases are decided by the Speaker of the House, subject to judicial review. The Constitution expressly mentions political parties, including in the Tenth Schedule dealing with disqualification for defection.
Q141. What is the minimum age required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha?
[SSC CHSL (15 November 2025, Shift 2)]
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 21 years
Answer: (B) 30 years
Explanation: Article 84 prescribes a minimum age of thirty years for membership of the Council of States, or Rajya Sabha. The corresponding minimum for Lok Sabha is twenty-five years. Other citizenship and legal qualifications also apply.