Q200. Which river is at the centre of the interstate dispute for which a tribunal was directed in February 2026?
[RRB Group D, 2025 cycle (held 2026)]
A. Krishna
B. Pennaiyar
C. Godavari
D. Cauvery
Answer: (B) Pennaiyar
Explanation: The Pennaiyar dispute concerns Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. In February 2026, the Supreme Court asked the Union government to constitute an interstate water-disputes tribunal. Such specialized adjudication is governed by the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
Q199. What best describes the role played by tribunals in India’s judicial framework?
[DSSSB MTS, Shift 1, 2026]
A. Speedy and specialist dispute resolution
B. Exclusive jurisdiction over all crimes
C. Complete replacement of ordinary courts
D. Enacting delegated statutes
Answer: (A) Speedy and specialist dispute resolution
Explanation: Tribunals adjudicate designated disputes with a focus on specialized expertise and efficient procedure. They do not wholly supersede constitutional courts. Judicial review and supervisory safeguards remain important aspects of India’s institutional arrangement.
Q198. For what principal purpose are tribunals constituted in India?
[DSSSB MTS, Shift 3, 2026]
A. Conducting elections
B. Resolving specific classes of disputes
C. Issuing ordinances
D. Formulating national policy
Answer: (B) Resolving specific classes of disputes
Explanation: Tribunals focus on disputes requiring specialized expertise, including service, tax and technical matters. They provide an alternative adjudicatory forum, distinct from legislative and electoral institutions. Part XIV-A supplies constitutional provisions for administrative tribunals and certain other tribunals.
Q197. Which law grants Lok Adalats their statutory recognition?
[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 2026]
A. Indian Penal Code, 1860
B. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
C. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
D. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Answer: (D) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Explanation: The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides the legal foundation for Lok Adalats and legal aid bodies. Lok Adalats emphasize amicable settlement through conciliation. Their awards have binding legal force under the conditions established by that statute.
Q196. The Legal Services Authorities Act that recognized Lok Adalats was enacted in which year?
[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 2026]
A. 1977
B. 1997
C. 1967
D. 1987
Answer: (D) 1987
Explanation: Parliament enacted the Legal Services Authorities Act in 1987. It provided statutory recognition to Lok Adalats and established the framework for organized legal-aid services. The enactment year must be distinguished from the legislation’s later commencement in 1995.
Q195. In which year did Parliament enact the Family Courts Act?
[DSSSB Court Attendant, 2026]
A. 1984
B. 1992
C. 2002
D. 1980
Answer: (A) 1984
Explanation: The Family Courts Act was passed in 1984 to encourage conciliation and prompt resolution of disputes arising from marriage and family relationships. It provides for specialized courts to handle specified matrimonial, custody and maintenance matters.
Q194. Which constitutional article supplies the basis for equal justice and free legal aid associated with Lok Adalats?
[DSSSB Court Attendant, Shift 2, 2026]
A. Article 32
B. Article 30A
C. Article 226
D. Article 39A
Answer: (D) Article 39A
Explanation: Article 39A is a Directive Principle requiring equal opportunity in accessing justice and the provision of free legal aid where needed. It supports statutory legal-services institutions, including Lok Adalats, to reduce obstacles caused by economic disadvantage.
Q193. Which law constitutes the National Legal Services Authority?
[DSSSB Court Attendant, Shift 2, 2026]
A. Consumer Protection Act, 2019
B. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
C. Advocates Act, 1961
D. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Answer: (D) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Explanation: NALSA derives its authority from the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. It formulates legal-aid policies and supports implementation by legal-services institutions across India. Its statutory basis is distinct from legislation governing advocates or consumer disputes.
Q192. Who appoints judges serving in Family Courts in India?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 2026]
A. Governor
B. President
C. State Government
D. Union Home Minister
Answer: (C) State Government
Explanation: Section 4 of the Family Courts Act, 1984 empowers the state government to appoint Family Court judges with the concurrence of the High Court. This safeguard joins state administrative responsibility with judicial oversight in appointments.
Q191. Who may establish administrative tribunals under Article 323A?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, Shift 2, 2026]
A. Only High Courts
B. Only Parliament
C. Only state legislatures
D. Only Supreme Court
Answer: (B) Only Parliament
Explanation: Article 323A authorizes Parliament to provide for administrative tribunals dealing with recruitment and conditions of service of public employees. Article 323B is different, permitting appropriate legislatures to create tribunals for specified other matters.
Q190. Which High Court upheld the Sahyog portal’s takedown mechanism in September 2025?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, Shift 1, 2026]
A. Bombay High Court
B. Delhi High Court
C. Karnataka High Court
D. Calcutta High Court
Answer: (C) Karnataka High Court
Explanation: The Karnataka High Court considered the legal challenge to the government’s Sahyog portal in September 2025. The issue concerned the administration of online takedown requests. This was a contemporary decision-based question rather than an article-number question.
Q189. Under which year’s Legal Services Authorities Act can legal-services authorities organize Lok Adalats?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, Shift 3, 2026]
A. 1977
B. 1987
C. 1967
D. 1957
Answer: (B) 1987
Explanation: Section 19 of the 1987 Act enables designated legal-services authorities and committees to organize Lok Adalats. The statute institutionalizes conciliatory resolution at different territorial levels. It is not the same as the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.
Q188. How many benches of the Central Administrative Tribunal were reported as of September 2025?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, Shift 1, 2026]
A. 19
B. 10
C. 22
D. 15
Answer: (A) 19
Explanation: The cited examination used nineteen benches as the count for September 2025. CAT is a specialized service-law adjudicatory institution operating under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. Such bench-count questions must be read against their stated reference date.
Q187. In which year was the Gram Nyayalayas Act enacted?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, Shift 2, 2026]
A. 2006
B. 2005
C. 2002
D. 2008
Answer: (D) 2008
Explanation: The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 provides for village-level courts intended to make justice affordable and accessible in rural areas. These forums deal with specified civil and criminal matters and can adopt less formal procedures.
Q186. Which description best fits proceedings before a Lok Adalat?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, Shift 2, 2026]
A. Counsel is compulsory in every dispute
B. Strict evidence rules always apply
C. Informal, flexible and less technical process
D. Only Supreme Court judges may preside
Answer: (C) Informal, flexible and less technical process
Explanation: Lok Adalats prioritize consensual settlement through informal conciliation. They do not operate exactly like conventional trials with rigid procedural and evidentiary rules. Their purpose is to provide accessible resolution of suitable pending or pre-litigation disputes.
Q185. A Sessions Court’s death sentence must receive confirmation from which court?
[DSSSB Court Attendant, Shift 2, 2026]
A. Lok Adalat
B. Magistrate’s Court
C. High Court
D. District Court
Answer: (C) High Court
Explanation: Under the criminal procedural framework, a sentence of death imposed by a Sessions Court requires High Court confirmation before execution. This extra review is an important safeguard in capital cases and reflects the High Court’s supervisory judicial role.
Q184. Apart from the Chief Justice of India, whom must the President consult when appointing High Court judges?
[DSSSB MTS, Shift 2, 2026]
A. State Governor
B. Prime Minister
C. Parliament
D. Election Commission
Answer: (A) State Governor
Explanation: Article 217 prescribes consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned state in High Court appointments. For appointment of judges other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of that High Court is also consulted.
Q183. What article gives a High Court general superintendence over courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction?
[DSSSB MTS, Shift 2, 2026]
A. Article 32
B. Article 227
C. Article 141
D. Article 226
Answer: (B) Article 227
Explanation: Article 227 confers superintendence over courts and tribunals within the High Court’s territorial jurisdiction, excluding those constituted under laws relating to the Armed Forces. This differs from Article 226, which covers writ directions, orders and remedies.
Q182. Which authority principally controls posting, promotion and leave of eligible subordinate judicial officers?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, Shift 3, 2026]
A. High Court
B. President
C. Union Ministry of Law
D. Parliament
Answer: (A) High Court
Explanation: Article 235 gives High Courts control over district courts and the courts subordinate to them. The power concerns aspects of the judicial service including posting, promotions and leave, supporting independence from executive directions.
Q181. Consider four pairs of High Courts and territories:
(1) Calcutta—Lakshadweep;
(2) Madras—Puducherry;
(3) Gauhati—Manipur;
(4) Kerala—Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
How many of these pairs correctly indicate territorial jurisdiction?
[UPSC NDA I General Ability Test, 2026]
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation: Only the Madras–Puducherry pair is correctly matched. Lakshadweep is within Kerala High Court jurisdiction, while Andaman and Nicobar Islands fall under Calcutta High Court. Manipur has had its own High Court since 2013, so Gauhati–Manipur is incorrect.
Q180. NALSA was constituted under which statute?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 2026]
A. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
B. Advocates Act, 1961
C. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
D. Legal Aid and Advice Act, 1972
Answer: (A) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Explanation: NALSA operates under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 and supports free and competent legal services for eligible people. Its statutory network promotes implementation of Article 39A’s principle of equal justice and legal assistance.
Q179. Which Act gives Lok Adalats statutory standing in India?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 2026]
A. Constitution of India alone
B. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
C. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
D. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Answer: (B) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Explanation: The 1987 legal-services legislation authorizes Lok Adalats and regulates their settlement awards. The system operates as an alternative dispute-resolution mechanism. Successful consensual awards are treated as binding, thereby promoting an efficient route outside ordinary contested litigation.
Q178. Under which article may a High Court issue writs for purposes beyond enforcing Fundamental Rights?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 2026]
A. Article 226
B. Article 245
C. Article 227
D. Article 32
Answer: (A) Article 226
Explanation: Article 226 permits High Courts to issue writs to enforce Fundamental Rights and for other lawful purposes. Supreme Court writ jurisdiction under Article 32 is specifically connected with enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Thus their constitutional scopes differ.
Q177. On which date did the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 come into force?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 2026]
A. 15 August 1947
B. 1 April 1988
C. 9 November 1995
D. 26 January 1950
Answer: (C) 9 November 1995
Explanation: The Act was enacted in 1987 but commenced on 9 November 1995. That distinction frequently appears in examinations. Its coming into force established a statutory national legal-services framework intended to help people secure access to justice.
Q176. Which article empowers Parliament to constitute a High Court for a Union territory?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, Shift 3, 2026]
A. Article 241
B. Article 239
C. Article 238
D. Article 240
Answer: (A) Article 241
Explanation: Article 241 permits Parliament to constitute a High Court for a Union territory or declare an existing court there to be a High Court. This provision is separate from state High Court provisions in Articles 214 to 231.
Q175. India’s first state-level electronic Lok Adalat was held in which year?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, Shift 1, 2026]
A. 2012
B. 2016
C. 2020
D. 2014
Answer: (C) 2020
Explanation: The first state-level E-Lok Adalat took place in 2020, using remote arrangements during the pandemic. It was conducted in Chhattisgarh to maintain access to dispute resolution while conventional in-person court activity was disrupted.
Q174. What is the highest judicial forum at the district level?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, Shift 3, 2026]
A. District Court
B. Family Court
C. High Court
D. Munsif Court
Answer: (A) District Court
Explanation: The District Court is the chief judicial institution of a district, with civil and criminal judicial functions. Its presiding officer is called a District Judge in civil cases and a Sessions Judge when exercising sessions jurisdiction.
Q173. What statute established the Central Administrative Tribunal’s legal framework?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, Shift 1, 2026]
A. Tribunals Reforms Act, 1980
B. Service Matters Act, 1990
C. Judiciary Act, 1971
D. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
Answer: (D) Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
Explanation: The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 gives practical effect to Article 323A. CAT hears specified disputes about recruitment and service conditions of public servants. It was created to provide a specialist forum for public-service litigation.
Q172. In which year was the National Green Tribunal constituted?
[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 2026]
A. 2010
B. 2000
C. 2015
D. 2005
Answer: (A) 2010
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal began operating in October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act of the same year. It addresses environmental protection, forests and associated legal rights through a specialized adjudicatory process guided by natural justice.
Q171. Which article places subordinate courts under the control of High Courts?
[DSSSB MTS, Shift 2, 2026]
A. Article 225
B. Article 228
C. Article 235
D. Article 224
Answer: (C) Article 235
Explanation: Article 235 confers control over district and subordinate courts on the High Court. It covers relevant aspects of posting, promotion and leave for members of subordinate judicial service, helping protect the judicial administration from executive influence.
Q170. In what year was the Act enacted that gave Lok Adalats statutory status?
[DSSSB Primary Teacher, Shift 2, 2026]
A. 1977
B. 1967
C. 1987
D. 1997
Answer: (C) 1987
Explanation: Lok Adalats were formalized by the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Act established a broader legal-aid system and defined the status of awards arising from amicable settlement. The institution itself had begun functioning before the statute.
Q169. Which constitutional amendment revised judicial salary provisions concerning the Supreme Court and High Courts?
[DSSSB Primary Teacher, Shift 1, 2026]
A. 54th Amendment
B. 15th Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment
D. 44th Amendment
Answer: (A) 54th Amendment
Explanation: The Fifty-fourth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1986 revised salaries of judges in constitutional courts through relevant amendments to Articles 125 and 221 and the Second Schedule. The Fifteenth Amendment instead raised High Court judges’ retirement age.
Q168. Which High Court bench had its view on artificial lakes upheld by the Supreme Court in October 2025?
[RRB Group D, Shift 2, 2026]
A. Jaipur Bench, Rajasthan
B. Madurai Bench, Madras
C. Nagpur Bench, Bombay
D. Lucknow Bench, Allahabad
Answer: (C) Nagpur Bench, Bombay
Explanation: The question refers to litigation about the public-trust doctrine and artificial water bodies. The relevant High Court forum was the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court. Judicial decisions concerning environmental protection can examine man-made as well as natural resources.
Q167. Arrange Wildlife Protection Act, Air Act, Biological Diversity Act, National Environment Policy and NGT in time order.
[UGC NET Public Administration, 2026]
A. Wildlife, Air, Biodiversity, Policy, NGT
B. NGT, Policy, Biodiversity, Air, Wildlife
C. Policy, Wildlife, Air, NGT, Biodiversity
D. Wildlife, Policy, Air, Biodiversity, NGT
Answer: (A) Wildlife, Air, Biodiversity, Policy, NGT
Explanation: The relevant dates are 1972 for wildlife legislation, 1981 for the Air Act, 2002 for biodiversity legislation, 2006 for national environmental policy and 2010 for NGT. Correct chronology follows the dates of adoption.
Q166. Which is the enactment order of the Wildlife Act, Forest Conservation Act, Air Act, Environment Protection Act and NGT Act?
[UGC NET Paper 1, 2026]
A. Forest, Wildlife, Environment, Air, NGT
B. Wildlife, Forest, Air, Environment, NGT
C. Wildlife, Air, Forest, NGT, Environment
D. Air, Forest, Wildlife, NGT, Environment
Answer: (B) Wildlife, Forest, Air, Environment, NGT
Explanation: The five relevant enactment years are 1972, 1980, 1981, 1986 and 2010. Therefore wildlife protection preceded forest conservation; the air-pollution and environment-protection laws came later, followed by the specialized environmental tribunal statute.
Q165. Which amendment inserted Articles 323A and 323B establishing provisions for tribunals?
[Delhi Police Constable, Shift 3, 2026]
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 48th Amendment
D. 52nd Amendment
Answer: (A) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The Forty-second Amendment of 1976 inserted Part XIV-A into the Constitution. Its Article 323A addresses administrative tribunals, while Article 323B concerns tribunals for enumerated other subjects. They were not part of the original constitutional text.
Q164. Which chronology correctly orders
Dadra and Nagar Haveli incorporation,
Goa incorporation,
High Court retirement-age rise,
Sindhi recognition
Abolition of privy purses?
[UGC NET Political Science, 2026]
A. Dadra, Goa, retirement rise, Sindhi, privy purses
B. Dadra, Goa, Sindhi, privy purses, retirement rise
C. Privy purses, Goa, retirement rise, Sindhi, Dadra
D. Goa, Dadra, retirement rise, Sindhi, privy purses
Answer: (A) Dadra, Goa, retirement rise, Sindhi, privy purses
Explanation: The respective amendments were the Tenth, Twelfth, Fifteenth, Twenty-first and Twenty-sixth. Their chronology places the 1963 increase in the High Court retirement age before inclusion of Sindhi and before abolition of privy purses.
Q163. On what date did the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 come into effect?
[UGC NET Law, December 2025]
A. 18 October 2010
B. 18 November 2010
C. 8 October 2010
D. 8 November 2010
Answer: (A) 18 October 2010
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal Act entered into force on 18 October 2010. It created a specialist judicial forum to handle substantial environmental questions. Distinguish the effective date of the statute from other enactment and notification dates.
Q162. Justice Shree Chandrashekhar was appointed Chief Justice of which High Court in 2025?
[RRB Group D, 2025]
A. Rajasthan High Court
B. Calcutta High Court
C. Delhi High Court
D. Bombay High Court
Answer: (D) Bombay High Court
Explanation: The current-affairs item concerned Justice Shree Chandrashekhar’s appointment as Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court. Chief Justices of High Courts are appointed by the President under Article 217, following the constitutionally required consultation process.
Q161. Which constitutional article allows one High Court to serve two or more states?
[Delhi Police Constable, 2025]
A. Article 231
B. Article 232
C. Article 233
D. Article 235
Answer: (A) Article 231
Explanation: Article 231 empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states, or for two or more states and a Union territory. The Punjab and Haryana High Court is a prominent example.
Q160. Which appointments can the state Governor make:
(a) High Court judges,
(b) District judges,
(c) Advocate General?
[EMRS TGT, 2025]
A. Only b and c
B. Only c
C. Only a
D. Only a and b
Answer: (A) Only b and c
Explanation: Under Articles 233 and 165, the Governor appoints district judges, following High Court consultation, and appoints the Advocate General. High Court judges are appointed instead by the President, after requisite consultation under Article 217.
Q159. Ashish Naithani was appointed a judge of which High Court?
[MP Police Constable, Memory-Based, 2025]
A. Uttarakhand High Court
B. Punjab and Haryana High Court
C. Rajasthan High Court
D. Patna High Court
Answer: (A) Uttarakhand High Court
Explanation: The reported appointment of Ashish Naithani was to the Uttarakhand High Court. High Court appointments under Article 217 are made by the President. This is a historical personnel question, not an assertion about later judicial postings.
Q158. Who was Chief Justice of the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court as of 31 July 2025?
[SSC CHSL Tier I, 2025]
A. Justice Arun Palli
B. Justice B. R. Gavai
C. Justice Dinesh Maheshwari
D. Justice Kaveri Baweja
Answer: (A) Justice Arun Palli
Explanation: Justice Arun Palli was serving as Chief Justice of the High Court for Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh on the specified date. That High Court has jurisdiction over both Union territories; the officeholder answer is date-specific.
Q157. Tribunals in India often handle which type of disputes requiring particular expertise?
[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Examination, 2025]
A. Personal preferences
B. Political party nominations
C. Religious worship only
D. Technical and administrative matters
Answer: (D) Technical and administrative matters
Explanation: Tribunals are specialized adjudicatory bodies for subjects such as public service, taxation and environmental disputes. Their composition and procedures reflect relevant legal or technical expertise. They should not be confused with legislatures, executive offices or election commissions.
Q156. What is the principal statutory focus of the National Green Tribunal?
[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Examination, 2025]
A. Environment protection and conservation of forests and resources
B. Interstate political boundaries
C. All industrial employment disputes
D. Acquisition of agricultural land exclusively
Answer: (A) Environment protection and conservation of forests and resources
Explanation: The NGT adjudicates environmental cases involving protection of the environment, forests and other natural resources. Established under the 2010 legislation, it may provide relief and compensation in relevant disputes, subject to the statutory jurisdiction.
Q155. Which subject is not enumerated for tribunals under Article 323B?
[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Examination, 2025]
A. Elections to legislative bodies
B. Marriage and divorce
C. Rent and tenancy matters
D. Ceiling on urban property
Answer: (B) Marriage and divorce
Explanation: Article 323B lists matters such as taxation, industrial and labour disputes, land reform, property ceilings, elections and rent. Marriage and divorce are not among the listed subjects. This differs from Family Courts’ statutory jurisdiction over family matters.
Q154. Why are specialized tribunals established?
[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Examination, 2025]
A. To try all offences exclusively
B. To legislate on all subjects
C. To decide specified categories of disputes
D. To administer national elections
Answer: (C) To decide specified categories of disputes
Explanation: Legislatures create tribunals to adjudicate particular disputes that may benefit from focused procedure or expertise. Service-law and environmental cases are examples. Ordinary constitutional courts still perform vital supervisory and judicial-review roles.
Q153. Which disputes are primarily handled by the Central Administrative Tribunal?
[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Examination, 2025]
A. Appeals from all High Courts
B. Every corruption trial
C. Recruitment and service matters of specified public employees
D. Disputes only between private companies
Answer: (C) Recruitment and service matters of specified public employees
Explanation: CAT principally addresses recruitment and conditions of service of employees falling within its statutory jurisdiction. Article 323A and the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 furnish the framework. It does not replace every court for all kinds of disputes.
Q152. In which part of the Constitution are provisions for tribunals found?
[OSSSC Combined Recruitment Examination, 2025]
A. Part XIV-A
B. Part IX
C. Part IV-B
D. Part III
Answer: (A) Part XIV-A
Explanation: Part XIV-A consists of Articles 323A and 323B, inserted by the 42nd Amendment. The former deals with administrative tribunals; the latter provides for tribunals concerning specified other subjects. Fundamental Rights instead appear in Part III.
Q151. Who became Chief Justice of the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court in April 2025?
[SSC CGL, 2025]
A. Justice Hima Kohli
B. Justice Dinesh Maheshwari
C. Justice Arun Palli
D. Justice Joymalya Bagchi
Answer: (C) Justice Arun Palli
Explanation: Justice Arun Palli was appointed Chief Justice of the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court in 2025. The joint court serves the two Union territories, demonstrating how one High Court can exercise jurisdiction over multiple territories.
Q150. Under the BNSS, which judicial authority ordinarily grants statutory default bail following expiration of the investigation period?
[SSC CGL, 2025]
A. District Court only
B. Magistrate
C. High Court exclusively
D. Gram Nyayalaya exclusively
Answer: (B) Magistrate
Explanation: Default bail arises when statutory investigation periods expire without timely filing of the required report and conditions for the right are satisfied. The competent Magistrate ordinarily deals with the application. The question concerns subordinate criminal court powers.
Q149. Consider:
(1) The Supreme Court can transfer certain cases between High Courts;
(2) Article 139A was added by the 42nd Amendment.
Which is correct?
[SSC CGL, 2025]
A. Statement 1 alone
B. Statement 2 alone
C. Both statements
D. Neither statement
Answer: (C) Both statements
Explanation: Article 139A enables the Supreme Court to withdraw and transfer specified cases involving substantial legal questions. It was inserted through the 42nd Amendment. The provision is distinct from a High Court’s own transfer and superintendence powers.
Q148. Who has the constitutional authority to transfer a High Court judge to another High Court?
[BPSC Assistant Section Officer, 2025]
A. Prime Minister’s Office
B. President of India
C. Chief Justice of that High Court
D. Parliament
Answer: (B) President of India
Explanation: Under Article 222, the President may transfer a High Court judge after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. The executive order is constitutionally constrained by the consultation requirement and the jurisprudence governing judicial independence.
Q147. Which pair of constitutional articles deals expressly with tribunals?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 2025]
A. Articles 323A and 323B
B. Articles 32 and 226
C. Articles 356 and 360
D. Articles 14 and 15
Answer: (A) Articles 323A and 323B
Explanation: Article 323A deals with tribunals for public-service recruitment and service conditions. Article 323B permits tribunals for various enumerated subjects. Both are contained in Part XIV-A, unlike Articles 32 and 226 concerning writ remedies.
Q146. Which tribunal primarily adjudicates public servants’ central-government service grievances?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 2025]
A. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
B. Armed Forces Tribunal
C. National Green Tribunal
D. Central Administrative Tribunal
Answer: (D) Central Administrative Tribunal
Explanation: The Central Administrative Tribunal hears eligible recruitment and service-condition disputes involving Central government employees and certain other personnel. It was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, not under environmental or taxation legislation.
Q145. Article 129 expressly describes which institution as a court of record?
[UPSSSC PET, 2025]
A. Supreme Court
B. Gram Nyayalayas
C. District Courts
D. High Courts
Answer: (A) Supreme Court
Explanation: Article 129 declares the Supreme Court a court of record. High Courts separately possess that status through Article 215. Such courts preserve authoritative records and enjoy constitutionally recognized power to punish for contempt of themselves.
Q144. Which statements about NALSA are correct:
(I) formed under the 1987 Legal Services Act;
(II) issues the Naya Deep newsletter;
(III) CJI is Patron-in-Chief?
[DSSSB TGT Sanskrit, 2025]
A. I and III only
B. I, II and III
C. III alone
D. II alone
Answer: (B) I, II and III
Explanation: All three statements identify NALSA correctly. It is a statutory legal-aid body under the 1987 Act; Naya Deep is its newsletter; and the Chief Justice of India serves as Patron-in-Chief, providing institutional linkage with the judiciary.
Q143. Regarding judicial review:
(1) the phrase is expressly defined in the Constitution;
(2) judicial review forms part of the basic structure;
(3) an ordinary law may eliminate the power.
Which holds?
[Andhra Pradesh High Court Junior Assistant, 2025]
A. 2 and 3
B. 2 alone
C. 1 alone
D. All three
Answer: (B) 2 alone
Explanation: Judicial review is a basic-structure feature protected against destruction. The Constitution supplies the judicial-review power through provisions such as Articles 13, 32 and 226 without using it as an express definition. Ordinary legislation cannot extinguish that power.
Q142. Which feature of the 2021 Tribunals Ordinance was invalidated by the Supreme Court?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 2025]
A. Complete elimination of appeals
B. Mandatory retired High Court judges alone
C. Authority to create service tribunals
D. A fixed four-year tenure for tribunal members
Answer: (D) A fixed four-year tenure for tribunal members
Explanation: The Supreme Court disapproved a four-year tenure restriction affecting tribunal members’ institutional independence. Tribunal tenure and appointment conditions must conform to constitutional requirements ensuring meaningful adjudicatory autonomy and judicial-review safeguards.
Q141. Which constitutional principle governs the independence of tribunals from executive interference?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, Shift 3, 2025]
A. They must always be chaired by serving High Court judges
B. Their decisions may be dictated by executive departments
C. They must remain independent in adjudication like courts
D. The sponsoring ministry may direct case outcomes
Answer: (C) They must remain independent in adjudication like courts
Explanation: The Supreme Court has emphasized that tribunals discharging adjudicatory functions require independence from executive interference. Appointment structures, tenure and administrative arrangements must preserve impartial decision-making and effective judicial review rather than subject tribunals to departmental control.
Q140. Which function belongs to district-level subordinate courts?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 2025]
A. Deciding civil and criminal cases within their assigned jurisdiction
B. Signing international treaties
C. Reviewing Supreme Court judgments
D. Drafting parliamentary legislation
Answer: (A) Deciding civil and criminal cases within their assigned jurisdiction
Explanation: District and subordinate courts are the main trial-level judicial institutions handling civil and criminal matters within defined jurisdictions. They operate under the relevant High Court’s constitutional control, unlike central executive or legislative institutions.
Q139. What is the principal objective of the National eCourts Project for district and subordinate courts?
[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, Shift 3, 2025]
A. Creating new administrative tribunals
B. Constructing rural courthouses only
C. Establishing police telephone networks
D. Digitizing and upgrading court processes
Answer: (D) Digitizing and upgrading court processes
Explanation: The national eCourts initiative seeks to modernize district and subordinate court processes through information technology, digitized records and better case-management tools. It is not a scheme for creating Central Administrative Tribunals or replacing judicial adjudication.
Q138. Put Articles 124, 131, 213, 222 and 225 of the Constitution in ascending numerical order.
[UGC NET Law, June 2025]
A. 124, 131, 213, 222, 225
B. 131, 124, 213, 225, 222
C. 213, 124, 131, 222, 225
D. 124, 213, 131, 225, 222
Answer: (A) 124, 131, 213, 222, 225
Explanation: Article 124 concerns the Supreme Court; 131 its original jurisdiction; 213 the Governor’s ordinance-making power; 222 transfers of High Court judges; and 225 existing jurisdiction of High Courts. Ascending numerical order is the first sequence.
Q137. Which category of criminal matters can be resolved by an ordinary Lok Adalat?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 2025]
A. Murder trials
B. Constitutional references
C. Public-interest petitions as such
D. Compoundable offences
Answer: (D) Compoundable offences
Explanation: Lok Adalats may settle compoundable criminal offences through mutual agreement as permitted by law. Non-compoundable criminal offences are excluded. The conciliatory setting can also address many civil disputes and suitable cases before litigation.
Q136. Which statute established the National Legal Services Authority?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 2025]
A. Public Interest Litigation Act, 1990
B. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
C. Advocates Act, 1961
D. Indian Bar Councils Act, 1926
Answer: (B) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Explanation: NALSA is established by the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. It supports free legal services and legal-awareness initiatives through national, state and district bodies, furthering the constitutional directive of equal justice in Article 39A.
Q135. Under Section 23 of the Senior Citizens Act, 2007, what remedy may a tribunal grant if a transferee fails to provide agreed essential care?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, Shift 2, 2025]
A. It cannot intervene after a gift deed
B. It must automatically punish imprisonment
C. It may only order police investigation
D. It may declare the transfer void where statutory conditions are met
Answer: (D) It may declare the transfer void where statutory conditions are met
Explanation: Section 23 of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act allows a qualifying property transfer to be declared void if stipulated maintenance or basic amenities are not supplied. The specialized tribunal may provide the statutory remedy.
Q134. Why is no ordinary appeal available from a Lok Adalat’s compromise award?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 2025]
A. The parties must appeal to Supreme Court
B. Every award can be reviewed
C. An appeal lies to High Court
D. The award is final and binding under the statute
Answer: (D) The award is final and binding under the statute
Explanation: Section 21 treats an ordinary Lok Adalat’s settlement award as a civil-court decree or equivalent order and makes it final and binding. The prohibition of appeals supports finality where the parties have voluntarily reached compromise.
Q133. Apart from the Chief Justice of India and the concerned High Court Chief Justice, whom is the President required to consult when appointing an ordinary High Court judge?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 2025]
A. State Governor
B. District Magistrate
C. State Assembly Members
D. Union Cabinet alone
Answer: (A) State Governor
Explanation: The consultation requirements of Article 217 include the Governor of the concerned state. For appointments other than that of the High Court Chief Justice, the High Court Chief Justice is also consulted along with the Chief Justice of India.
Q132. High Courts derive their writ-issuing power from which constitutional provision?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 2025]
A. Article 245
B. Article 231
C. Article 226
D. Article 32
Answer: (C) Article 226
Explanation: Article 226 authorizes High Courts to issue specified writs and orders for Fundamental Rights and other purposes. This is wider in subject matter than Article 32, which principally enables direct Supreme Court enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Q131. Which statement about Permanent Lok Adalats for public utility services was given as correct in the exam?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 2025]
A. Their awards are not binding
B. They have pecuniary jurisdiction up to one crore rupees
C. They can only conciliate and never adjudicate
D. They decide serious criminal offences
Answer: (B) They have pecuniary jurisdiction up to one crore rupees
Explanation: The examination described a one-crore-rupee monetary threshold for Permanent Lok Adalats handling public-utility disputes. Their statutory scheme permits conciliation and, in eligible cases, a decision on merits. Pecuniary limits should always be checked against the operative notification.
Q130. What is the predominant mode of proceedings in an ordinary Lok Adalat?
[RRB NTPC Graduate, 2025]
A. Conciliatory
B. Investigative
C. Adversarial
D. Inquisitorial
Answer: (A) Conciliatory
Explanation: Lok Adalats encourage parties to resolve disputes voluntarily with the assistance of conciliators. Their principal function is consensual settlement, not determining contested facts through a full adversarial trial. This feature distinguishes ordinary Lok Adalats from some Permanent Lok Adalats.
Q129. A High Court supervises courts and tribunals in its jurisdiction under which provision?
[Punjab Police Constable, 2025]
A. Article 50
B. Article 227
C. Article 124
D. Article 356
Answer: (B) Article 227
Explanation: Article 227 confers territorial superintendence over courts and tribunals on a High Court, with the exception stated for bodies governed by laws relating to the armed forces. Supervisory jurisdiction differs from ordinary appellate review.
Q128. Lok Adalat is an example of which dispute-resolution mechanism?
[Punjab Police Constable, 2025]
A. Alternative legal nomination procedure
B. Alternative dispute resolution
C. Criminal punishment scheme
D. Direct legislative review
Answer: (B) Alternative dispute resolution
Explanation: Lok Adalats are a statutory form of alternative dispute resolution. They help parties reach amicable settlements of pending or suitable pre-litigation disputes. A resulting award is treated as a final and binding civil-court decree under the Legal Services Authorities Act.
Q127. Which institution coordinates organization of Lok Adalats within India’s national legal-aid framework?
[Punjab Police Constable, 2025]
A. District executive administration
B. Supreme Court acting alone
C. National Legal Services Authority
D. State Cabinet alone
Answer: (C) National Legal Services Authority
Explanation: NALSA oversees and guides legal-services activities, including Lok Adalat programmes, through its statutory network. State and district legal-services bodies and specified court legal-services committees organize Lok Adalats under the 1987 Act.
Q126. Who presides over a Gram Nyayalaya and how is that person appointed?
[RPF Constable, 2025]
A. A judicial Nyayadhikari appointed by the state in consultation with High Court
B. District Magistrate appointed by High Court
C. Panchayat Samiti representative
D. Village Panchayat head without judicial appointment
Answer: (A) A judicial Nyayadhikari appointed by the state in consultation with High Court
Explanation: A Gram Nyayalaya is presided over by a Nyayadhikari appointed by the state government in consultation with the High Court. This official exercises prescribed civil and criminal jurisdiction under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008.
Q125. Which composition is commonly prescribed for a Lok Adalat sitting?
[RPF Constable, 2025]
A. Judicial officer and two lawyers
B. Judicial officer, lawyer and social worker
C. Only a judicial officer
D. A judge and unspecified legal experts
Answer: (B) Judicial officer, lawyer and social worker
Explanation: Lok Adalat benches ordinarily combine judicial experience with a lawyer and a social worker or other designated participant. This mixed composition reflects the emphasis on practical conciliation rather than technical court proceedings alone.
Q124. Under whose control do ordinary district and subordinate courts function?
[RPF Constable, 2025]
A. Independent of any High Court
B. Directly under the Supreme Court
C. The High Court of the state
D. As a division of the Union executive
Answer: (C) The High Court of the state
Explanation: Article 235 vests control of district courts and subordinate courts in the relevant High Court. This institutional arrangement reinforces autonomy of the subordinate judiciary and helps distinguish judicial supervision from ordinary executive administration.
Q123. Appeals against appealable Family Court judgments ordinarily lie before which court?
[RPF Constable, 2025]
A. District Court
B. Family Tribunal
C. High Court
D. Supreme Court alone
Answer: (C) High Court
Explanation: Section 19 of the Family Courts Act sets out appellate access to the High Court, subject to statutory limitations and exceptions. Family Courts are specialized institutions and are not automatically the last judicial forum for all family disputes.
Q122. What kinds of civil jurisdiction can a District Judge exercise, subject to law?
[RPF Constable, Shift 3, 2025]
A. Deciding without hearing parties
B. Appeals alone
C. Original and appellate jurisdiction
D. Only very small claims
Answer: (C) Original and appellate jurisdiction
Explanation: A District Judge exercises civil jurisdiction as allocated by legislation, which can encompass cases initiated before that court and appeals from lower civil courts. The District Court occupies a senior position within the subordinate judicial hierarchy.
Q121. A Nyayadhikari presiding over a Gram Nyayalaya holds a status equivalent to which magistrate?
[RPF Constable, 2025]
A. Judicial Magistrate of First Class
B. Non-judicial Revenue Officer
C. Retired civil servant
D. Judicial Magistrate of Third Class
Answer: (A) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
Explanation: Under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, a Nyayadhikari is appointed to preside over a rural court and has powers and status corresponding to a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class. The institution may hear specified civil and criminal disputes.
Q120. Under the Family Courts Act, cities and towns above which population threshold must have a Family Court established?
[RPF Constable, 2025]
A. Five lakh
B. Thirty lakh
C. Twenty lakh
D. Ten lakh
Answer: (D) Ten lakh
Explanation: Section 3 of the 1984 Act provides for Family Courts in areas of cities or towns whose population exceeds one million, subject to statutory terms. State governments may also establish such courts in other places after consulting the High Court.
Q119. Which 1945 committee’s recommendations influenced provisions on appointments to the Supreme Court and High Courts?
[MPPSC State Service Preliminary, 2025]
A. Harendra Kumar Committee
B. Usha Nath Sen Committee
C. S. Varadachari Committee
D. Tej Bahadur Sapru Committee
Answer: (D) Tej Bahadur Sapru Committee
Explanation: The Sapru Committee, associated with Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, examined constitutional reform during 1944–45. Its work informed debates on judicial structure, appointments and independence leading toward the post-independence constitutional framework.
Q118. Who appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of a High Court?
[SSC GD Constable, 2025]
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. President
D. Prime Minister
Answer: (C) President
Explanation: Article 217 vests High Court judicial appointments in the President, following required consultations. The Governor plays a consultative role rather than being the appointing authority. The rule also applies to High Court Chief Justices.
Q117. Which article declares each High Court to be a court of record?
[MPSC Group B, 2025]
A. Article 215
B. Article 216
C. Article 217
D. Article 218
Answer: (A) Article 215
Explanation: Article 215 makes every High Court a court of record and gives it power to punish for contempt of itself. This is an inherent constitutional judicial power and a significant feature of the High Court’s authority.
Q116. Which authority appoints district judges after consulting the High Court?
[MPSC Group B, 2024 cycle (held 2025)]
A. High Court Chief Justice alone
B. State Public Service Commission
C. Chief Minister
D. State Governor
Answer: (D) State Governor
Explanation: Article 233 provides that the Governor appoints district judges in consultation with the state’s High Court. The provision is a notable exception to the rule that High Court judges themselves are appointed by the President.
Q115. Under which subsection is a Lok Adalat award final and binding on the parties?
[UPHESC Assistant Professor Law, 2025]
A. Section 21(2)
B. Section 20(2)
C. Section 22(2)
D. Section 23(2)
Answer: (A) Section 21(2)
Explanation: Section 21(2) of the Legal Services Authorities Act declares a Lok Adalat award final and binding on the parties, with no appeal lying against it. The settlement’s consensual nature is central to this statutory finality.
Q114. Which section gives Lok Adalats certain civil-court powers while conducting proceedings?
[UPHESC Assistant Professor Law, 2025]
A. Section 27
B. Sections 28 and 29
C. Section 29A
D. Section 22
Answer: (D) Section 22
Explanation: Section 22 of the Legal Services Authorities Act grants specified civil-court powers to Lok Adalats, such as summoning witnesses and receiving documents. The procedural powers support conciliation; they do not turn an ordinary Lok Adalat into a conventional trial court.
Q113. Under which law are Lok Adalats regulated?
[UPHESC Assistant Professor Law, 2025]
A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
B. Indian Contract Act, 1872
C. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
D. Specific Relief Act, 1963
Answer: (C) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Explanation: Lok Adalats have statutory recognition under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Act defines how they are organized, what disputes may be taken up and the legal effect of awards reached through settlement.
Q112. How many High Courts were there in India in 2025?
[Telangana High Court Record Assistant, 2025]
A. 36
B. 23
C. 35
D. 25
Answer: (D) 25
Explanation: As described in the 2025 exam, India had twenty-five High Courts. Some courts exercise jurisdiction over more than one state or Union territory. The number of High Courts therefore does not equal the number of states.
Q111. Which former IPC provisions were referred to for treating Lok Adalat proceedings as judicial proceedings?
[UPHESC Assistant Professor Law, 2025]
A. Sections 193, 219 and 228
B. Sections 193, 220 and 227
C. Sections 193, 221 and 228
D. None of the stated groups
Answer: (A) Sections 193, 219 and 228
Explanation: Section 22(3) of the Legal Services Authorities Act treated Lok Adalat proceedings as judicial proceedings for specified IPC provisions, including Sections 193, 219 and 228. The reference reflects the legal seriousness of evidence and conduct during those proceedings.
Q110. What provision of the Code of Civil Procedure facilitates referral to settlement mechanisms including Lok Adalats?
[UPHESC Assistant Professor Law, 2025]
A. Section 83
B. Section 89
C. Section 85
D. Section 84
Answer: (B) Section 89
Explanation: Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure enables courts to consider settlement outside regular proceedings, including referral to Lok Adalat where applicable. It encourages alternative dispute resolution when the nature of a dispute makes settlement suitable.
Q109. Which of these is not a legal-services committee specifically empowered to organize a Lok Adalat under Section 19?
[UPHESC Assistant Professor Law, 2025]
A. High Court Legal Services Committee
B. Taluk Legal Services Committee
C. Village Legal Services Committee
D. Supreme Court Legal Services Committee
Answer: (C) Village Legal Services Committee
Explanation: Section 19 names designated authorities and committees, including Supreme Court, High Court and Taluk Legal Services Committees. A ‘Village Legal Services Committee’ is not separately among the bodies expressly listed under that organizing provision.
Q108. Which constitutional amendment increased High Court judges’ retirement age from sixty to sixty-two?
[BPSC Assistant Engineer, 2024]
A. 20th Amendment
B. 18th Amendment
C. 16th Amendment
D. 15th Amendment
Answer: (D) 15th Amendment
Explanation: The Fifteenth Amendment Act, 1963 raised the retirement age of permanent High Court judges from sixty to sixty-two years. Supreme Court judges retire at sixty-five, so the two constitutional courts have different retirement-age rules.
Q107. Regarding Lok Adalats, consider:
(1) they have historical roots in Indian settlement traditions;
(2) they reflect Gandhian conciliation;
(3) India’s first was in Madhya Pradesh in 1982;
(4) their awards are not binding.
Which are correct?
[RPF Sub-Inspector, Shift 3, 2024]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Lok Adalats reflect indigenous conciliatory traditions and Gandhian ideas of resolving disputes peacefully. The modern movement began with an early Lok Adalat in Gujarat, while settlement awards have statutory binding force. Consequently, statements three and four are incorrect.
Q106. Which district-level court hears appeals from specified lower courts in the district?
[RPF Sub-Inspector, Shift 2, 2024]
A. Prime Minister’s Office
B. President’s Secretariat
C. Vice-President’s Office
D. District Court
Answer: (D) District Court
Explanation: The District Court occupies a leading place in the district judicial hierarchy. Besides exercising original jurisdiction, it hears appeals where procedural laws assign them. Matters may subsequently reach the High Court subject to applicable appellate rules.
Q105. Which High Court invalidated the Centre’s amended fact-checking rules in September 2024?
[RRB ALP, 2024]
A. Delhi High Court
B. Patna High Court
C. Bombay High Court
D. Madras High Court
Answer: (C) Bombay High Court
Explanation: The Bombay High Court struck down the challenged 2023 Information Technology rules relating to a government fact-checking unit in September 2024. The question concerns a judicial-review decision rather than a standing constitutional article.
Q104. In which year did the Delhi High Court issue notice concerning a plea for 33 percent women’s representation in Bar Council elections?
[RRB ALP, 2024]
A. 2023
B. 2021
C. 2024
D. 2022
Answer: (C) 2024
Explanation: The Delhi High Court issued the relevant notice in 2024. The underlying request concerned representation of women lawyers in Bar Council elections. A judicial notice does not itself mean the court had finally resolved the substantive claim.
Q103. Which article regulates appointment of judges to High Courts?
[SSC MTS, 2024]
A. Article 252
B. Article 202
C. Article 217
D. Article 119
Answer: (C) Article 217
Explanation: Article 217 sets out appointment of High Court judges by the President and the requisite consultations. It also contains constitutional rules concerning their tenure and qualifications. Related provisions address oath, transfer and removal separately.
Q102. Who was reappointed Chairperson of the Armed Forces Tribunal in November 2023?
[SSC MTS, 2024]
A. Justice Rajendra Menon
B. Justice S. A. Bobde
C. Justice R. F. Nariman
D. Justice N. V. Ramana
Answer: (A) Justice Rajendra Menon
Explanation: This current-affairs question referred to Justice Rajendra Menon’s renewed tenure as Chairperson of the Armed Forces Tribunal. That specialist tribunal addresses service disputes and specified appeals involving armed-forces personnel under its governing law.
Q101. Articles 214 through 231 of the Constitution primarily concern which institution?
[SSC CGL, 2024]
A. High Courts
B. District Panchayats
C. Subordinate civil courts alone
D. Supreme Court
Answer: (A) High Courts
Explanation: The High Court chapter of Part VI covers establishment, composition, appointment, salaries, transfer and jurisdiction through Articles 214 to 231. Separate constitutional provisions deal with the Supreme Court and subordinate judiciary.
Q100. Which amendment raised the upper age limit for High Court judges to sixty-two years?
[RPSC Assistant Professor, 2024]
A. 15th Amendment
B. 17th Amendment
C. 26th Amendment
D. 28th Amendment
Answer: (A) 15th Amendment
Explanation: The Fifteenth Constitutional Amendment of 1963 modified Article 217 by increasing High Court judges’ retirement age to sixty-two. The amendment also made several other judiciary-related changes. The Supreme Court’s age of retirement remains sixty-five.
Q99. Anna Chandy, India’s first female High Court judge, served on which High Court?
[SSC CGL, 2024]
A. Calcutta
B. Kerala
C. Madras
D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (B) Kerala
Explanation: Anna Chandy joined the Kerala High Court as a judge in 1959 after an earlier judicial career. Her appointment marked a breakthrough in women’s representation in the higher judiciary and is frequently examined as an important legal-history fact.
Q98. How many High Courts existed in India as of March 2023?
[SSC CGL, 2024]
A. 25
B. 35
C. 30
D. 20
Answer: (A) 25
Explanation: India had twenty-five High Courts at the stated reference date. Some High Courts exercise jurisdiction over more than one state or Union territory. Therefore the number is lower than the aggregate count of territorial units.
Q97. Which writ enables a superior court to quash an unlawful order of an inferior judicial or quasi-judicial body?
[DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 2024]
A. Prohibition
B. Mandamus
C. Quo warranto
D. Certiorari
Answer: (D) Certiorari
Explanation: Certiorari is used to quash decisions of inferior courts or tribunals for jurisdictional or significant legal errors. Prohibition generally restrains continuation of proceedings beyond jurisdiction, while mandamus compels performance of a public duty.
Q96. Which article states that there shall be a High Court for each state?
[SSC CPO, 2024]
A. Article 214
B. Article 125
C. Article 245
D. Article 275
Answer: (A) Article 214
Explanation: Article 214 provides that each state shall have a High Court. However, Article 231 enables Parliament to provide a common High Court serving two or more states or states and Union territories. Both provisions must be read together.
Q95. At which Maharashtra location was the first Gram Nyayalaya established?
[Bombay High Court Peon, 2024]
A. Niphad
B. Yeola
C. Ralegan Siddhi
D. Ashti
Answer: (B) Yeola
Explanation: The reported first Gram Nyayalaya in Maharashtra was established at Yeola in Nashik district. These village-level courts were introduced under the 2008 Act to improve access to affordable justice in rural and relatively remote areas.
Q94. Who was serving as Chief Justice of Calcutta High Court at the time of the 2024 examination?
[WBPSC Food Sub-Inspector, 2024]
A. Justice Surya Kant
B. Justice D. Y. Chandrachud
C. Justice T. S. Sivagnanam
D. None of these
Answer: (C) Justice T. S. Sivagnanam
Explanation: Justice T. S. Sivagnanam was Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court at the time referred to in the examination. Chief Justice appointments are constitutional appointments under Article 217, and names must be interpreted in their historical context.
Q93. In which year was the Bombay High Court established?
[SSC GD Constable, 2024]
A. 1863
B. 1862
C. 1861
D. 1864
Answer: (B) 1862
Explanation: The Bombay High Court was established in August 1862 under the Indian High Courts Act of 1861. It was among the three historic Presidency High Courts with Calcutta and Madras. Establishment followed the enabling legislation.
Q92. How does the Constitution characterize the process for removing higher-court judges?
[SSC GD Constable, 2024]
A. A removal process only for High Court judges
B. A stringent removal procedure
C. No procedure exists
D. A flexible ordinary removal process
Answer: (B) A stringent removal procedure
Explanation: The Constitution protects superior judges through a demanding removal process involving special parliamentary majorities and specified grounds. High Court judges are removed in the same manner as Supreme Court judges, reinforcing security of tenure and judicial independence.
Q91. Who was the inaugural Chief Justice of the Chhattisgarh High Court?
[CGPSC State Service Preliminary, 2024]
A. Justice W. A. Shishak
B. Justice Ramesh Sinha
C. Justice A. K. Patnaik
D. Justice A. S. V. Moorthy
Answer: (A) Justice W. A. Shishak
Explanation: Justice W. A. Shishak became the first Chief Justice of the Chhattisgarh High Court when the state and its High Court were formed in 2000. The court’s principal seat is at Bilaspur.
Q90. What was the prescribed monetary ceiling for Permanent Lok Adalats in the examination’s 2024 reference?
[UP Police Assistant Operator, 2024]
A. One crore rupees
B. Twenty crore rupees
C. None of these
D. One lakh rupees
Answer: (A) One crore rupees
Explanation: The examination gave one crore rupees as the pecuniary limit for disputes handled by Permanent Lok Adalats. These forums deal with eligible public-utility service disputes. Monetary limits depend on statutory notifications and should be read with their historical reference.
Q89. Which chapter of Part VI of the Constitution contains provisions for subordinate courts?
[BHEL Supervisor Trainee, 2024]
A. Chapter V
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter IV
D. Chapter VI
Answer: (D) Chapter VI
Explanation: Chapter VI of Part VI contains Articles 233 to 237 addressing subordinate courts. They cover the appointment of district judges, recruitment of other judicial officers and High Court control over the subordinate judiciary.
Q88. A writ of prohibition issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court typically commands which action?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2024]
A. Forbidding a government officer from any future action
B. Directing Parliament to pass a prohibition law
C. Stopping an inferior court from continuing particular proceedings
D. Ordering the executive to suspend a policy
Answer: (C) Stopping an inferior court from continuing particular proceedings
Explanation: Prohibition is a preventive writ issued to restrain an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its legal jurisdiction. It prevents continuation of proceedings rather than quashing a completed decision, which is generally associated with certiorari.
Q87. Where is the principal seat of the National Green Tribunal?
[MPPSC State Service Preliminary, 2023]
A. Kolkata
B. New Delhi
C. Mumbai
D. Chennai
Answer: (B) New Delhi
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal’s principal bench is situated in New Delhi. Other benches make environmental adjudication regionally accessible. NGT was constituted under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for specialized environmental disputes.
Q86. Arrange the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Central Administrative Tribunal, Competition Appellate Tribunal and NGT in establishment chronology.
[UGC NET Public Administration, 2023]
A. CAT, ITAT, NGT, COMPAT
B. ITAT, COMPAT, CAT, NGT
C. ITAT, CAT, COMPAT, NGT
D. NGT, ITAT, CAT, COMPAT
Answer: (C) ITAT, CAT, COMPAT, NGT
Explanation: The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal dates to 1941, CAT to 1985, COMPAT to 2009, and the National Green Tribunal to 2010. Establishment chronology therefore follows ITAT, CAT, COMPAT and NGT.
Q85. The Gram Nyayalayas Act was enacted by Parliament in which year?
[Delhi Police Constable, 2023]
A. 2006
B. 2008
C. 2000
D. 2004
Answer: (B) 2008
Explanation: The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 was designed to extend accessible and affordable justice to rural areas. Gram Nyayalayas hear specified civil and criminal matters and can use procedures that simplify participation for litigants.
Q84. What article authorizes a High Court to supervise courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction?
[Bihar Police Constable, 2023]
A. Article 226
B. Article 227
C. Article 228
D. Article 229
Answer: (B) Article 227
Explanation: Article 227 gives a High Court supervisory powers over courts and tribunals subject to its territorial jurisdiction, with a constitutional exception for armed-forces tribunals. It is distinct from Article 226, which deals with writ remedies.
Q83. Who inaugurated the digital Lok Adalat in Jaipur in July 2022?
[SSC MTS, 2023]
A. Justice R. N. Mishra
B. Justice D. Y. Chandrachud
C. Justice A. S. Anand
D. Justice U. U. Lalit
Answer: (D) Justice U. U. Lalit
Explanation: Justice U. U. Lalit inaugurated the digital Lok Adalat in Jaipur in July 2022. Such initiatives employ technology to support conciliatory dispute resolution. Lok Adalats otherwise rest on the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Q82. The High Court’s supervisory jurisdiction over subordinate courts arises under which article?
[Punjab Police Constable, 2023]
A. Article 231
B. Article 227
C. Article 219
D. Article 228A
Answer: (B) Article 227
Explanation: Article 227 gives each High Court superintendence over the courts and tribunals in its territory, subject to stated exceptions. Article 219 concerns a High Court judge’s oath, while Article 231 concerns common High Courts.
Q81. Which statements describe the Family Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022:
(1) introduced 18 July;
(2) amends the 1984 Act;
(3) concerns creation of Family Courts;
(4) excludes Punjab and Tamil Nadu?
[SSC Selection Post, 2023]
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The bill, introduced in July 2022, amended the Family Courts Act, 1984 and addressed its application and validation of family courts. The assertion that Punjab and Tamil Nadu were categorically excluded was incorrect.
Q80. Regarding the NGT:
(A) began in 2010;
(B) guided by natural justice;
(C) bound strictly by CPC procedure;
(D) aims to dispose of cases within six months.
Which are true?
[UGC NET Public Administration, 2023]
A. A and C only
B. A, B and C
C. A, B and D
D. All four
Answer: (C) A, B and D
Explanation: NGT was established in 2010, applies natural justice and is expected to strive for disposal within six months. The statute expressly frees it from strict application of the Code of Civil Procedure, while preserving procedural fairness.
Q79. Which courts may interpret the Constitution in their cases?
[SSC MTS, 2022 cycle (held 2023)]
A. Both Supreme Court and High Courts
B. Supreme Court alone
C. High Courts alone
D. President only
Answer: (A) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation: High Courts and the Supreme Court interpret constitutional provisions when adjudicating disputes. The Supreme Court’s judgments have binding nationwide authority under Article 141, whereas High Court rulings ordinarily bind within the applicable judicial territory.
Q78. Which Union territory has its own High Court?
[SSC MTS, 2022 cycle (held 2023)]
A. Chandigarh
B. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
C. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
D. Delhi
Answer: (D) Delhi
Explanation: The Delhi High Court is constituted for the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Chandigarh instead falls within the jurisdiction of the Punjab and Haryana High Court. Territorial arrangements for Union territories are governed in part by Article 241.
Q77. Which assertion about High Court judges is incorrect?
[MPSC Group B and C, 2023]
A. High Courts may hear public-interest litigation
B. The President appoints High Court judges
C. The Governor appoints High Court judges
D. A permanent High Court judge normally retires at sixty-two
Answer: (C) The Governor appoints High Court judges
Explanation: The President, not the Governor, appoints High Court judges under Article 217. The Governor of the relevant state is consulted. High Court judges normally retire at sixty-two years, and writ litigation may include properly maintainable public-interest cases.
Q76. Under which article can a High Court issue writs?
[SSC CHSL, 2022 cycle (held 2023)]
A. Article 32
B. Article 126
C. Article 76
D. Article 226
Answer: (D) Article 226
Explanation: Article 226 enables High Courts to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. These powers protect Fundamental Rights and serve other legal purposes within the limits of jurisdiction.
Q75. Where is the principal bench of the Securities Appellate Tribunal located?
[KVS Junior Secretariat Assistant, 2023]
A. New Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Pune
D. Mumbai
Answer: (D) Mumbai
Explanation: The principal seat of the Securities Appellate Tribunal is Mumbai. SAT is a specialized appellate forum in securities regulation. It is institutionally separate from the Central Administrative Tribunal and the National Green Tribunal.
Q74. Who appoints the judges of a High Court under the Constitution?
[Rajasthan CET, 2023]
A. President of India
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Chief Minister
D. Governor
Answer: (A) President of India
Explanation: The President appoints High Court judges under Article 217 after constitutionally prescribed consultations. The Governor is among those consulted, but does not exercise the appointment power. This distinction is tested regularly in competitive examinations.
Q73. Who assumed the Chief Justiceship of the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court in October 2022?
[SSC GD Constable, 2022 cycle (held 2023)]
A. Justice Jaishree Thakur
B. Justice Pankaj Mithal
C. Justice Ali Mohammad Magrey
D. Justice P. B. Varale
Answer: (C) Justice Ali Mohammad Magrey
Explanation: Justice Ali Mohammad Magrey became Chief Justice of the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court in October 2022 and retired later that year. The exam asked about that particular appointment, so subsequent officeholder changes are irrelevant.
Q72. Which statement correctly captures the structure of the Indian judiciary?
[CTET, 2023]
A. All courts are legally unrelated
B. Chief Justice of a High Court heads the entire national judiciary
C. High Courts hear appeals against Supreme Court decisions
D. Different judicial levels are linked through appeals
Answer: (D) Different judicial levels are linked through appeals
Explanation: The judiciary has a hierarchy connecting trial courts, High Courts and the Supreme Court. Appellate and supervisory powers allow correction of decisions subject to procedural limitations. Decisions of the Supreme Court are not appealable to a High Court.
Q71. Which authority is chiefly conferred on High Courts by Article 227?
[WBCS Mains Polity, 2023]
A. Superintendence over subordinate courts and tribunals
B. Control over parliamentary budgets
C. Election of Vice-President
D. Power to legislate on states
Answer: (A) Superintendence over subordinate courts and tribunals
Explanation: Article 227 places courts and tribunals within the High Court’s territorial jurisdiction under its superintendence, except constitutionally excluded bodies. This facilitates supervisory correction and accountability without converting the High Court into the initial forum for every dispute.
Q70. Which article addresses appointment of District Judges in a state?
[Telangana Police Constable Mains, 2023]
A. Article 243
B. Article 233
C. Article 320
D. None of these
Answer: (B) Article 233
Explanation: Article 233 vests appointment, posting and promotion of District Judges in the Governor, acting in consultation with the High Court. The provision safeguards judicial participation in selecting the highest level of district judicial officers.
Q69. India’s general judicial hierarchy comprises how many principal levels?
[SSC CGL, 2022]
A. Four
B. Two
C. Three
D. Five
Answer: (C) Three
Explanation: The broad court structure has three tiers: Supreme Court, High Courts and subordinate or district courts. Specialized tribunals also adjudicate certain matters, but do not replace this principal hierarchy of constitutional and ordinary courts.
Q68. Which statement incorrectly describes the High Courts in India?
[SSC CPO, 2022]
A. They may issue writs under Article 226
B. Their judges normally retire at sixty-two
C. They are courts of record
D. They give constitutional advisory opinions to the President
Answer: (D) They give constitutional advisory opinions to the President
Explanation: Presidential advisory references are addressed to the Supreme Court under Article 143, not to High Courts. High Courts do possess writ jurisdiction, court-of-record status and the constitutional retirement age of sixty-two for permanent judges.
Q67. High Court judges are formally appointed by which authority?
[OSSC CGL, 2022]
A. Chief Justice of India
B. State Governor
C. High Court Chief Justice
D. President of India
Answer: (D) President of India
Explanation: Article 217 provides for High Court judicial appointments by the President. The Chief Justice of India and state Governor are consulted, as is the Chief Justice of the relevant High Court for appointments other than its Chief Justice.
Q66. At what age does a permanent High Court judge normally retire?
[OSSC CGL, 2022]
A. Sixty-five
B. Sixty-two
C. Fifty-five
D. Sixty
Answer: (B) Sixty-two
Explanation: Article 217 fixes the retirement age for a permanent High Court judge at sixty-two. Supreme Court judges have a different age limit of sixty-five under Article 124. The 1963 Fifteenth Amendment increased the earlier High Court limit.
Q65. Which judge took office as Chief Justice of the Madras High Court in February 2022?
[RRB Group D, 2022]
A. Justice Gita Mittal
B. Justice Munishwar Nath Bhandari
C. Justice T. Raja
D. Justice M. Duraiswamy
Answer: (B) Justice Munishwar Nath Bhandari
Explanation: Justice Munishwar Nath Bhandari took office as Chief Justice of the Madras High Court in 2022. This is a date-specific current-affairs question; later changes in officeholders do not alter the historical examination answer.
Q64. Who may extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to a Union territory through legislation?
[RRB Group D, 2022]
A. State Legislature
B. Parliament
C. President acting alone
D. Chief Justice of India
Answer: (B) Parliament
Explanation: Article 230 provides for Parliament to extend or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court over a Union territory by law. The constitutional allocation of territorial jurisdiction is not a unilateral decision of the state’s legislature.
Q63. In which year was the Delhi High Court established?
[RRB Group D, 2022]
A. 1966
B. 1948
C. 1956
D. 1862
Answer: (A) 1966
Explanation: The Delhi High Court was established in 1966 under the Delhi High Court Act, 1966. It is distinct from the nineteenth-century Presidency High Courts originally established at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
Q62. Who was Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court in March 2022?
[RRB Group D, 2022]
A. Justice B. Veerappa
B. Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi
C. Justice S. Sujatha
D. Justice Alok Aradhe
Answer: (B) Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi
Explanation: Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi served as Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court during the specified reference month. Officeholder questions must be anchored to their dates, since the Chief Justice of a High Court changes over time.
Q61. Which matters are ordinarily tried by subordinate courts?
[RRB Group D, 2022]
A. Civil and criminal cases
B. Only writ petitions for Fundamental Rights
C. Appeals from High Courts
D. Transfer of constitutional amendments
Answer: (A) Civil and criminal cases
Explanation: Subordinate courts hear civil and criminal disputes in accordance with their respective jurisdiction. High Courts retain supervisory authority and can hear appeals where permitted. Constitutional writs under Article 226 are ordinarily within High Court jurisdiction.
Q60. At which city is the Punjab and Haryana High Court located?
[RRB Group D, 2022]
A. Firozpur
B. Karnal
C. Chandigarh
D. Faridabad
Answer: (C) Chandigarh
Explanation: The Punjab and Haryana High Court has its principal seat at Chandigarh and serves both Punjab and Haryana as well as Chandigarh. It illustrates the common High Court arrangement contemplated by Article 231.
Q59. Under which article does the Constitution provide for a High Court for every state?
[RRB NTPC, 2022]
A. Article 214
B. Article 248
C. Article 188
D. Article 148
Answer: (A) Article 214
Explanation: Article 214 establishes the constitutional baseline that every state has a High Court. Article 231 qualifies the territorial scheme by enabling Parliament to establish a common High Court for multiple states or states and a Union territory.
Q58. Which article concerns a High Court for a Union territory?
[RRB NTPC, 2022]
A. Article 241
B. Article 221
C. Article 263
D. Article 189
Answer: (A) Article 241
Explanation: Article 241 allows Parliament to create a High Court for a Union territory or designate an existing court as one. By contrast, Article 221 addresses salaries and other conditions of service of High Court judges.
Q57. As of December 2021, how many High Courts functioned across India?
[RRB NTPC, 2022]
A. 25
B. 30
C. 28
D. 20
Answer: (A) 25
Explanation: Twenty-five High Courts functioned in India in December 2021. Several exercised jurisdiction over multiple territorial units. A count tied to a historical date should be used exactly as framed, rather than assumed to represent all future periods.
Q56. Which article empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
[SSC CHSL, 2021 cycle (held 2022)]
A. Article 226
B. Article 235
C. Article 230
D. Article 242
Answer: (A) Article 226
Explanation: Article 226 authorizes High Courts to issue writs and directions for Fundamental Rights and other purposes. Article 235 instead gives High Courts control over subordinate courts. The two powers serve distinct constitutional functions.
Q55. In Aparna Bhat v State of Madhya Pradesh, which bail condition imposed by the High Court was set aside?
[SSC CHSL, 2021 cycle (held 2022)]
A. Paying money
B. Getting married
C. Tying a rakhi
D. Obtaining a job
Answer: (C) Tying a rakhi
Explanation: The Supreme Court set aside an inappropriate condition requiring an accused to have a rakhi tied in connection with bail. The judgment emphasized that courts must avoid stereotyped reasoning when handling allegations involving sexual offences.
Q54. Which listed High Court is the oldest in India?
[SSC CHSL, 2021 cycle (held 2022)]
A. Karnataka High Court
B. Calcutta High Court
C. Allahabad High Court
D. Delhi High Court
Answer: (B) Calcutta High Court
Explanation: The Calcutta High Court began functioning in July 1862, making it the oldest among the listed courts. Other early chartered High Courts were formed at Bombay and Madras under the 1861 Indian High Courts Act.
Q53. A High Court judge normally holds office until attaining what age?
[HP High Court Clerk, 2022]
A. Sixty
B. Sixty-three
C. Sixty-two
D. Sixty-five
Answer: (C) Sixty-two
Explanation: The ordinary retirement age of a permanent High Court judge is sixty-two years under Article 217. Supreme Court judges retire at sixty-five, while an additional High Court judge may serve a shorter appointed term.
Q52. Which section of the Legal Services Authorities Act provides for establishment of Permanent Lok Adalats?
[NHPC Junior Engineer Civil, 2022]
A. Section 22E
B. Section 22D
C. Section 22B
D. Section 22A
Answer: (C) Section 22B
Explanation: Section 22B empowers specified legal-services authorities to establish Permanent Lok Adalats for public utility services. Other provisions define their cognizance of disputes, procedure and effect of awards. These institutions differ from conventional compromise-based Lok Adalats.
Q51. What article empowers a High Court to issue writs?
[WBCS Mains, 2021 cycle (held 2022)]
A. Article 32
B. Article 220
C. Article 226
D. Article 344
Answer: (C) Article 226
Explanation: Article 226 authorizes High Courts to issue writs and orders for enforcing Fundamental Rights and other purposes. The power is territorially conditioned and is distinct from Supreme Court remedies under Article 32.
Q50. What constitutional article enjoins the state to ensure equal justice and free legal aid?
[WBCS Mains, 2021 cycle (held 2022)]
A. Article 39A
B. Article 110
C. Article 50
D. Article 263
Answer: (A) Article 39A
Explanation: Article 39A, part of the Directive Principles, requires the state to secure equal opportunities for justice and promote free legal assistance. The Legal Services Authorities Act creates institutional means to support that principle.
Q49. Which statements about contempt of court are correct:
(1) the 1971 Act followed the H. N. Sanyal Committee;
(2) Supreme Court and High Courts can punish contempt;
(3) Constitution defines civil and criminal contempt;
(4) Parliament can legislate on contempt?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2022]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 3 only
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 followed reform recommendations, and both the Supreme Court and High Courts possess constitutional contempt powers. Parliament may regulate contempt by law. The Constitution does not itself define civil and criminal contempt.
Q48. Under the judicial-transfer consultation process, how many senior Supreme Court judges does the Chief Justice of India ordinarily consult?
[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 2021]
A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Five
Answer: (B) Four
Explanation: The judicial collegium practice requires the Chief Justice of India to consult the four senior-most Supreme Court judges for proposals transferring High Court judges. The transfer order itself is issued by the President under Article 222.
Q47. What is the literal meaning of the term Lok Adalat?
[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 2021]
A. People’s court
B. Revenue tribunal
C. Court of foreign law
D. Highest appellate court
Answer: (A) People’s court
Explanation: Lok Adalat literally means people’s court. It operates through conciliation and settlement rather than conventional adjudication of contested claims. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gives statutory recognition to its organization and the effect of its awards.
Q46. A permanent High Court judge’s retirement age is how many years?
[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 2021]
A. Sixty-five
B. Sixty-two
C. Fifty-five
D. Sixty
Answer: (B) Sixty-two
Explanation: The Constitution fixes the retirement age of a High Court judge at sixty-two years. The age rose from sixty through the Fifteenth Amendment in 1963. Supreme Court judges normally retire at sixty-five.
Q45. Which article deals with the oath or affirmation of a High Court judge?
[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 2021]
A. Article 110
B. Article 219
C. Article 200
D. Article 210
Answer: (B) Article 219
Explanation: Article 219 requires High Court judges to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before entering office. The oath follows the Third Schedule and is made before the Governor or a person appointed by the Governor.
Q44. Which of the listed cities was home to an early Presidency High Court established in 1862?
[SSC MTS, 2020 cycle (held 2021)]
A. Gwalior
B. Delhi
C. Madras
D. Jhansi
Answer: (C) Madras
Explanation: Madras was among the three original Presidency High Courts established in 1862, along with Calcutta and Bombay. This question’s options included only Madras from that historical group, so the examination answer is not a claim that Madras preceded Calcutta.
Q43. Who appoints a High Court Chief Justice after consultation with constitutionally specified authorities?
[RPSC Assistant Professor, 2021]
A. President of India
B. State Council of Ministers
C. Chief Justice of the state alone
D. Legislative Assembly Speaker
Answer: (A) President of India
Explanation: High Court Chief Justices are appointed by the President under Article 217. The constitutional process includes consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the relevant state. Judicial appointment conventions further inform this process.
Q42. Which power is exercised both by the Supreme Court and High Courts?
[UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandant, 2021]
A. Giving advisory opinion to President
B. Passing orders for complete justice under Article 142
C. Acting as courts of record
D. Granting special leave under Article 136
Answer: (C) Acting as courts of record
Explanation: The Supreme Court is a court of record under Article 129, and each High Court has that status under Article 215. The other listed powers are specifically associated with the Supreme Court under their respective provisions.
Q41. Which city had the first High Court established in British India?
[SSC CHSL, 2020 cycle (held 2021)]
A. Madras
B. Bombay
C. Delhi
D. Calcutta
Answer: (D) Calcutta
Explanation: The Calcutta High Court was founded in 1862 and is commonly recognized as India’s oldest High Court. Bombay and Madras also received High Courts in 1862 under the Indian High Courts Act, 1861.
Q40. Who was appointed Chief Justice of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in January 2021?
[SSC CHSL, 2020 cycle (held 2021)]
A. Justice Rajan Datta
B. Justice Arup Kumar Goswami
C. Justice S. A. Bobde
D. Justice Hima Kohli
Answer: (B) Justice Arup Kumar Goswami
Explanation: Justice Arup Kumar Goswami became Chief Justice of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in January 2021 following earlier service in other High Courts. The question is a date-specific personnel item and does not imply a continuing officeholder.
Q39. Who became Chief Justice of Orissa High Court in January 2021?
[SSC CHSL, 2020 cycle (held 2021)]
A. Justice S. Muralidhar
B. Justice Pankaj Mithal
C. Justice Sanjib Banerjee
D. Justice Hima Kohli
Answer: (A) Justice S. Muralidhar
Explanation: Justice S. Muralidhar took charge as Chief Justice of the Orissa High Court in January 2021. The appointment illustrates movement of judges within the higher judiciary, but the correct response refers to the specified historical month.
Q38. Which institution may create a common High Court for multiple states under Article 231?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 2021]
A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court
C. President acting alone
D. Union Cabinet acting alone
Answer: (A) Parliament
Explanation: Article 231 permits Parliament to establish a common High Court serving two or more states or two or more states and a Union territory. It is a legislative power exercised within the Constitution’s judicial framework.
Q37. How many High Courts operated in India as of November 2020?
[RRB NTPC CBT I, 2020]
A. 15
B. 29
C. 21
D. 25
Answer: (D) 25
Explanation: The examination reported twenty-five High Courts as of November 2020. India’s constitutional scheme permits common High Courts serving more than one state or Union territory, so numerical counts require attention to the reference date.
Q36. Parliament enacted the Family Courts Act in which year?
[Delhi Police Constable, 2020]
A. 1948
B. 1984
C. 1964
D. 2004
Answer: (B) 1984
Explanation: The Family Courts Act was enacted in 1984 to encourage conciliation and speedy handling of disputes about marriage, families, guardianship and maintenance. It authorizes specialized courts with procedures responsive to the nature of such cases.
Q35. Which constitutional article enables creation of administrative tribunals?
[Delhi Police Constable, 2020]
A. Article 323A
B. Article 271
C. Article 290A
D. Article 307
Answer: (A) Article 323A
Explanation: Article 323A empowers Parliament to enact legislation establishing administrative tribunals for service-related matters. It was inserted by the Forty-second Amendment and is part of Part XIV-A of the Constitution.
Q34. Which courts are constitutionally empowered to issue writs in India?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 2020]
A. Supreme Court alone
B. High Courts alone
C. Supreme Court and High Courts
D. Every subordinate court
Answer: (C) Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights through appropriate remedies, including writs. Article 226 equips High Courts with writ jurisdiction for Fundamental Rights and other purposes. Subordinate courts do not share that general constitutional power.
Q33. In which year was the National Green Tribunal established?
[UPPSC Review Officer / Assistant Review Officer, 2020]
A. 2007
B. 2008
C. 2009
D. 2010
Answer: (D) 2010
Explanation: NGT was created in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act. Its jurisdiction includes specified environmental disputes and related relief and compensation. The specialist forum aims to provide effective environmental adjudication using technical and legal expertise.
Q32. By which constitutional method can a common High Court be created for two or more Indian states?
[UPSC NDA I & II Combined General Ability Test, 2020]
A. By a law enacted by Parliament
B. By an order of the Supreme Court
C. By an order of the President
D. Only by a constitutional amendment
Answer: (A) By a law enacted by Parliament
Explanation: Article 231 empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for multiple states, or for states and a Union territory, through ordinary legislation. Neither a presidential order nor a judicial directive independently establishes such a High Court.
Q31. Which article authorizes legislation for administrative tribunals?
[Telangana High Court Junior Stenographer, 2019]
A. Article 348
B. Article 323A
C. Article 324
D. Article 349
Answer: (B) Article 323A
Explanation: Article 323A enables Parliament to provide administrative tribunals for recruitment and service matters. The 42nd Amendment inserted it into Part XIV-A of the Constitution. Article 324 instead concerns the Election Commission.
Q30. Assess statements:
(1) the Attorney General is appointed by the Chief Justice;
(2) High Courts possess original, appellate and presidential advisory jurisdiction.
Which are correct?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 2019]
A. Statement 1 only
B. Statement 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: (D) Neither
Explanation: The President appoints the Attorney General under Article 76; the Chief Justice does not. High Courts exercise original and appellate jurisdiction but do not give presidential advisory opinions, which are sought from the Supreme Court under Article 143.
Q29. Under which article is the Governor consulted when High Court judges are appointed?
[Maharashtra Talathi, 2019]
A. Article 112
B. Article 400
C. Article 217
D. Article 356
Answer: (C) Article 217
Explanation: Article 217 calls for consultation with the Governor when the President appoints a High Court judge. In appointments other than the Chief Justice, consultation also includes the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.
Q28. Lok Adalats receive legal recognition principally through which enactment?
[SSC CGL, 2019]
A. Arbitration Act
B. Administration of Justice Act
C. Legal Services Authorities Act
D. Legal Conciliation Act
Answer: (C) Legal Services Authorities Act
Explanation: The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 formally governs Lok Adalats. It provides for their organization and states that settlement awards have the force of civil-court decrees, making such awards final and binding on the parties.
Q27. Which writ can quash an unlawful decision of a lower court or tribunal?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 2019]
A. Mandamus
B. Prohibition
C. Quo warranto
D. Certiorari
Answer: (D) Certiorari
Explanation: Certiorari is a judicial writ used to quash certain unlawful decisions of inferior courts or tribunals. A writ of prohibition ordinarily stops proceedings beyond jurisdiction before their conclusion. Both help courts enforce legal limits on authority.
Q26. Consider:
(1) High Courts cannot invalidate central legislation;
(2) Supreme Court cannot examine constitutional amendments.
Which statement is correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2019]
A. Statement 1 alone
B. Statement 2 alone
C. Both statements
D. Neither statement
Answer: (D) Neither statement
Explanation: High Courts may examine central legislation for constitutional validity where jurisdiction and maintainability requirements are met. Constitutional amendments are also subject to Supreme Court review under the basic-structure doctrine. Both proposed prohibitions are therefore incorrect.
Q25. Consultation with which judicial office is required for appointment of a specified judicial member of a State Human Rights Commission?
[MPPSC State Service, 2018]
A. Governor alone
B. Chief Justice of the High Court
C. Chief Justice of India
D. President
Answer: (B) Chief Justice of the High Court
Explanation: State Human Rights Commission appointments follow the Protection of Human Rights Act’s prescribed selection and consultation framework. The role of the High Court Chief Justice helps preserve judicial input when eligible judicial members are considered.
Q24. Who was appointed Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court in 2018?
[CGPSC State Service, 2018]
A. Justice Devvrat
B. Justice Surya Kant
C. Justice Girish Sahni
D. Justice Shekhar Mande
Answer: (B) Justice Surya Kant
Explanation: Justice Surya Kant was appointed Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court in 2018. This is an officeholder question tied to the relevant appointment year rather than a statement of the present composition of the court.
Q23. Who administered the oath of office to Chhattisgarh Governor Anandiben Patel in 2018?
[CGPSC State Service, 2018]
A. Justice Ajay Kumar Tripathi
B. Justice Prashant Kumar Mishra
C. Justice M. M. Shrivastava
D. Justice Sanjay K. Agrawal
Answer: (A) Justice Ajay Kumar Tripathi
Explanation: Justice Ajay Kumar Tripathi administered the gubernatorial oath in Chhattisgarh in 2018. The Chief Justice of the High Court, or an appropriate senior judge, administers the Governor’s oath under Article 159.
Q22. Which amendment increased the retirement age of High Court judges from sixty to sixty-two years?
[SSC CGL, 2017]
A. 10th Amendment
B. 12th Amendment
C. 15th Amendment
D. 24th Amendment
Answer: (C) 15th Amendment
Explanation: The Fifteenth Amendment of the Constitution, enacted in 1963, increased High Court judges’ retirement age to sixty-two years. The constitutional retirement age for Supreme Court judges, by contrast, is sixty-five years.
Q21. Regarding judicial independence and executive influence, which is correct:
assertion that the judiciary is independent;
reason that government may direct courts to favor executive plans
[RRB NTPC, 2016]
A. Assertion true, reason false
B. Both true and reason explains assertion
C. Both true but reason does not explain assertion
D. Assertion false, reason true
Answer: (A) Assertion true, reason false
Explanation: Judicial independence prevents the executive from instructing judges how to decide legal disputes. The Constitution protects courts through appointments, tenure and related safeguards. Hence independence is true while a purported government right to direct decisions is false.
Q20. When is a writ of prohibition appropriate:
(1) directed against a judicial or quasi-judicial body;
(2) stops an inferior forum acting outside jurisdiction;
(3) determines eligibility for public office?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 2016]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. All three
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Prohibition is a preventive writ restraining an inferior judicial or quasi-judicial forum from continuing beyond its lawful jurisdiction. Public-office eligibility is primarily tested through quo warranto. Therefore the first two statements identify prohibition correctly.
Q19. Which statements hold:
(1) Article 44 concerns a uniform civil code;
(2) High Courts have broader writ purposes than the Supreme Court;
(3) Supreme Court began functioning in 1950?
[UPSC CDS General Knowledge, 2016]
A. All three
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 3 only
Answer: (A) All three
Explanation: Article 44 describes the Directive Principle concerning a uniform civil code. Article 226 permits High Court writs for Fundamental Rights and other purposes, while Article 32 focuses on Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court commenced functioning in 1950.
Q18. About Gram Nyayalayas:
(1) they hear only civil cases, excluding criminal ones;
(2) the Gram Nyayalayas Act provides for social workers as conciliators.
Which is correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2016]
A. Statement 1 only
B. Statement 2 only
C. Both statements
D. Neither statement
Answer: (B) Statement 2 only
Explanation: Gram Nyayalayas have jurisdiction over specified civil and criminal cases, disproving the first statement. The statute also provides for the use of conciliators, including suitably selected social workers, to encourage settlement where appropriate.
Q17. Which writ is principally invoked to secure the liberty of someone unlawfully detained?
[UPPSC Combined State / Upper Subordinate Services, 2015]
A. Mandamus
B. Quo warranto
C. Habeas corpus
D. Prohibition
Answer: (C) Habeas corpus
Explanation: Habeas corpus safeguards personal liberty by requiring a detaining authority to bring a detained person before court and justify detention. High Courts may issue this writ under Article 226, and the Supreme Court may do so under Article 32.
Q16. Which High Court was first reported to launch dedicated commercial benches among the listed courts?
[UPPSC Combined State / Upper Subordinate Services, 2015]
A. Allahabad High Court
B. Gujarat High Court
C. Rajasthan High Court
D. Delhi High Court
Answer: (D) Delhi High Court
Explanation: The examination identified Delhi High Court with an early initiative for dedicated commercial benches. Specialized commercial case-management seeks to deal efficiently with substantial business disputes. The question is historically framed, not a claim about later national commercial-courts legislation.
Q15. What is the longest normal term for which an Additional Judge of a High Court may initially be appointed under Article 224?
[Karnataka Police Constable, 2014]
A. Two years
B. Three years
C. One year
D. Two and a half years
Answer: (A) Two years
Explanation: Article 224 permits appointment of additional High Court judges for a temporary period not exceeding two years, subject to the age limit prescribed for High Court judges. This helps address temporary increases in judicial business or arrears.
Q14. The Indian High Courts Act, which authorized the first Presidency High Courts, was passed in which year?
[UPPSC Combined State / Upper Subordinate Services, 2013]
A. 1861
B. 1851
C. 1871
D. 1881
Answer: (A) 1861
Explanation: The Indian High Courts Act was enacted in 1861, authorizing Crown-established High Courts in the Presidencies. The High Courts at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras actually came into existence in 1862, so enactment and inauguration dates differ.
Q13. Which statement about the judiciary is constitutionally incorrect?
[Rajasthan 3rd Grade Teacher, 2013]
A. Every Act of Parliament requires Supreme Court approval before taking effect
B. Courts can invalidate unconstitutional laws
C. The judiciary is institutionally independent
D. Courts provide remedies for legal violations
Answer: (A) Every Act of Parliament requires Supreme Court approval before taking effect
Explanation: Parliamentary Acts do not require advance approval from the Supreme Court. Judicial review permits courts to examine and, where justified, invalidate laws during appropriate proceedings. Independent courts also provide remedies for infringements of constitutional or legal rights.
Q12. Consider Lok Adalats:
(1) they settle only cases already before courts;
(2) they can handle civil but no compoundable criminal matters;
(3) only serving or retired judicial officers may participate.
Which statement is correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2010]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of them
Answer: (D) None of them
Explanation: Lok Adalats can consider pre-litigation disputes as well as pending matters, and may handle compoundable criminal cases. They are not restricted exclusively to serving or retired judicial officers. Thus all three statements overstate the limits of Lok Adalats.
Q11. Regarding CAT:
(1) it was created during Lal Bahadur Shastri’s premiership;
(2) it has administrative and judicial members.
Which is correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2009]
A. Statement 1 only
B. Statement 2 only
C. Both statements
D. Neither statement
Answer: (B) Statement 2 only
Explanation: The Central Administrative Tribunal was established in 1985, not during Lal Bahadur Shastri’s premiership in the 1960s. Its composition includes judicial and administrative expertise to adjudicate specified government service disputes.
Q10. Regarding Lok Adalats:
(1) their awards are deemed civil-court decrees and are not appealable;
(2) matrimonial or family disputes are excluded entirely.
Which is true?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2009]
A. Statement 1 only
B. Statement 2 only
C. Both statements
D. Neither statement
Answer: (A) Statement 1 only
Explanation: Section 21 gives a settlement award the effect of a civil-court decree and bars appeals against that award. Eligible family or matrimonial disputes may also be settled in Lok Adalats, so they are not excluded categorically.
Q9. In 2008, how many High Courts exercised jurisdiction over more than one state, excluding arrangements concerning Union territories alone?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2008]
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: (B) Three
Explanation: The 2008 examination counted three such courts: Bombay, Gauhati, and Punjab and Haryana High Courts. These arrangements illustrated how a single High Court could serve more than one state rather than each state possessing a separate court.
Q8. Which statement is right:
(1) a High Court judge is removed by the same method as a Supreme Court judge;
(2) a retired permanent High Court judge cannot practise before any court in India without exception?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2007]
A. 1 alone
B. 2 alone
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: (A) 1 alone
Explanation: High Court and Supreme Court judges face constitutionally equivalent removal procedures. Article 220, however, permits a retired permanent High Court judge to practise before the Supreme Court and other High Courts, excluding the court in which the judge served.
Q7. Assertion: Every state physically contains a distinct High Court.
Reason: Article 214 provides that each state shall have a High Court.
Choose the correct combination.
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2006]
A. Both true, reason explains assertion
B. Both true, reason unrelated
C. Assertion true, reason false
D. Assertion false, reason true
Answer: (D) Assertion false, reason true
Explanation: Article 214 provides for a High Court for each state, but Article 231 permits common High Courts for multiple states. Therefore the constitutional statement is true while the claim of a physically separate court in every state is false.
Q6. Consider:
(1) retired permanent High Court judges may practise only in the Supreme Court;
(2) five years in judicial office suffices for High Court judgeship.
Which is correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2006]
A. Statement 1 only
B. Statement 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: (D) Neither
Explanation: Article 220 allows former permanent High Court judges to practise before the Supreme Court and other High Courts, subject to restrictions. Article 217 requires ten years of judicial office or High Court advocacy, not merely five years in judicial office.
Q5. Lok Adalats may be organized for which disputes:
(1) mobile-phone service,
(2) motor-accident cases,
(3) pension matters?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2005]
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. All three
Answer: (D) All three
Explanation: Suitable telecommunications, motor-accident compensation and pension disputes may be brought before Lok Adalats for amicable settlement, subject to statutory requirements. Their jurisdiction is not confined to one narrow category of private civil disagreements.
Q4. Consider:
(1) Parliament can never expand Supreme Court jurisdiction beyond the Constitution’s initial grant;
(2) Supreme Court and High Court staff costs are both charged to India’s Consolidated Fund.
Which is correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2005]
A. Statement 1 alone
B. Statement 2 alone
C. Both statements
D. Neither statement
Answer: (D) Neither statement
Explanation: Parliament can confer certain additional jurisdiction on the Supreme Court within constitutional limits. Financial treatment also differs: Supreme Court expenses are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India, while High Court administrative expenses generally charge the state fund.
Q3. Which are correct:
(1) Sessions Court heads district criminal judiciary;
(2) Governor appoints District Judges after consulting High Court;
(3) seven years’ advocacy is an eligibility route;
(4) High Court must confirm Sessions Court death sentences?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2004]
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. All four
Answer: (D) All four
Explanation: District and Sessions Judges lead the district-level judiciary. Article 233 governs appointment and the seven-year advocacy eligibility route for persons outside judicial service. A Sessions Court death sentence needs confirmation by the High Court before execution.
Q2. Which High Court exercises territorial jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2003]
A. Andhra Pradesh High Court
B. Calcutta High Court
C. Madras High Court
D. Orissa High Court
Answer: (B) Calcutta High Court
Explanation: The Calcutta High Court’s territorial jurisdiction extends to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The arrangement shows how a Union territory may fall under a High Court based in another territorial unit rather than possessing a separate High Court.
Q1. The salaries and allowances of judges of a state High Court are charged upon which fund?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary, 2002]
A. Consolidated Fund of India
B. Consolidated Fund of the State
C. Contingency Fund of India
D. Contingency Fund of the State
Answer: (B) Consolidated Fund of the State
Explanation: Article 221 and the relevant financial provisions protect judicial remuneration. Salaries and allowances of High Court judges are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the state, insulating them from an ordinary legislative vote on those expenditure items.