Q140. Unlike the indirectly elected President, how is a State Governor chosen?
[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]
(A) By direct popular election
(B) By appointment of the President
(C) By nomination of the Supreme Court
(D) By election in the Assembly
Answer: (B) By appointment of the President
Explanation: Article 155 states that the President appoints a Governor by warrant under the President’s hand and seal. There is no gubernatorial electoral college or popular election, although the President of India is elected indirectly.
Q139. Under Article 255, what is the effect of obtaining valid assent despite the omission of an earlier required recommendation for a State Bill?
[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]
(A) The Act is automatically void
(B) A written reference in every clause is mandatory
(C) The missing recommendation alone does not invalidate the Act
(D) Presidential assent must precede introduction
Answer: (C) The missing recommendation alone does not invalidate the Act
Explanation: Article 255 treats certain prior recommendation and sanction requirements as matters of procedure. Where constitutionally specified final assent has been given, omission of the earlier recommendation alone does not invalidate the enacted law.
Q138. A State Bill reserved by the Governor is submitted for whose consideration?
[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Assembly Speaker
(C) President of India
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C) President of India
Explanation: Article 200 permits or requires reservation of particular State Bills for the President. Article 201 then governs presidential consideration of such Bills. This differs from the Governor’s ordinary power to grant assent to State legislation.
Q137. Consider:
(1) Article 266 deals with the Consolidated Fund of a State.
(2) The State Contingency Fund is placed at the Governor’s disposal under prescribed rules.
Which statements hold?
[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Article 266 deals with Consolidated Funds and public accounts. Article 267 permits the State Contingency Fund to be placed at the Governor’s disposal for urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending legislative authorisation and subsequent regularisation.
Q136. Which legal principle regarding Governors and Presidents is stated in Article 310, read with Article 311?
[SSC CGL 2025 Tier-II (19 January 2026)]
(A) All officers enjoy absolute tenure
(B) Civil servants hold office during constitutional pleasure, subject to safeguards
(C) Governor alone controls all Union posts
(D) Article 311 abolishes disciplinary proceedings
Answer: (B) Civil servants hold office during constitutional pleasure, subject to safeguards
Explanation: Article 310 expresses the doctrine of pleasure for specified civil services, with State posts held at the pleasure of the Governor. Article 311 imposes procedural safeguards against dismissal, removal and reduction in rank.
Q135. Which Article deals with submitting a Bill passed by a State Legislature to its Governor for assent?
[SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-I (27 November, Shift 2)]
(A) Article 200
(B) Article 201
(C) Article 202
(D) Article 203
Answer: (A) Article 200
Explanation: Article 200 deals with the Governor’s action on State Bills. The options include assent, reservation for the President and, for eligible non-Money Bills, return for legislative reconsideration. Article 201 covers Bills reserved for the President.
Q134. Consider:
(1) The Governor has discretionary power specifically under the Constitution.
(2) The President can independently reserve a State Bill without the Governor.
Which is correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2025]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: The Constitution recognises discretionary functions of Governors, including specified special responsibilities. Reservation of a State Bill under Article 200 is an action of the Governor; the President deals with a Bill once it has been reserved.
Q133. Consider the immunities of a Governor:
(1) Not answerable to court for official duties.
(2) No criminal proceedings during term.
(3) A member has legislative speech protection.
Which are correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2025]
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Article 361 shields the Governor from personal court answerability for official acts and bars criminal proceedings during tenure. Separately, Article 194 protects legislators for speech and votes in the legislature, subject to constitutional rules.
Q132. Consider:
(1) The Governor is the constitutional head of the State.
(2) The Governor must act only upon ministerial advice in every situation.
Which is true?
[SSC Stenographer 2025]
(A) Both statements
(B) Statement 1 only
(C) Statement 2 only
(D) Neither statement
Answer: (B) Statement 1 only
Explanation: The Governor is the constitutional head, while executive governance ordinarily follows advice under Article 163. The word only makes the second statement incorrect because the Constitution permits specified functions involving gubernatorial discretion.
Q131. Which Article provides for the appointment of State Governors by the President?
[SSC Stenographer 2025]
(A) Article 170
(B) Article 154
(C) Article 155
(D) Article 168
Answer: (C) Article 155
Explanation: Article 155 provides the method of appointment: a warrant under the President’s hand and seal. Article 154 concerns State executive power, while Article 168 concerns the constitution of State legislatures.
