Q10. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 10 October 2021]
(A) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded
(B) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
(C) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
(D) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law
Answer: (A) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded
Explanation: An independent judiciary can enforce the constitutional distribution of powers and resolve disagreements between governments. Representation in a legislative chamber alone is not decisive, since its structure may vary. Judicial independence is an essential safeguard of constitutional federalism.
Q9. India is a:
[WBCS Preliminary Examination, 22 August 2021]
(A) Union of States
(B) Federation
(C) Confederation of States
(D) Unitary State
Answer: (A) Union of States
Explanation: Article 1 expressly declares India, that is Bharat, to be a Union of States. This wording underscores that the Union is not founded on a secession-permitting treaty among sovereign States, even though constitutional powers are distributed federally.
Q8. Which among the following is INCORRECT in the context of federalism?
[RRB NTPC CBT-I, 21 March 2021, Shift 1]
(A) There is no scope of dual citizenship in the case of federal countries
(B) To prevent conflicts between Centre and States, an independent judiciary settles disputes
(C) Each government is autonomous in its own sphere
(D) Federalism accommodates polities at regional and national levels
Answer: (A) There is no scope of dual citizenship in the case of federal countries
Explanation: Dual citizenship is possible in some federations, notably the United States, although India follows single citizenship. The other statements describe common federal attributes: constitutionally distinct spheres of authority, multiple levels of government and judicial resolution of jurisdictional disagreements.
Q7. When was the third tier added to the Indian federal system?
[UPPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2020]
(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1993
Answer: (C) 1992
Explanation: The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts were enacted in 1992, granting constitutional recognition to Panchayats and Municipalities. Most substantive provisions came into force in 1993. Since the question concerns the amendment year, the correct choice is 1992.
Q6. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and a detached figure without intense political links or recent political participation?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2019]
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(B) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(D) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission proposed safeguards for selecting Governors, including public distinction, independence and distance from recent partisan activity. These recommendations sought to protect the impartiality of the gubernatorial office, which has a sensitive role in Union-State constitutional relations.
Q5. With reference to the federal system in India, which statements are correct?
1. States have no right to secede from the Union under the Constitution.
2. Mere advocacy of secession is protected by freedom of expression.
[UPPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2019]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: The Constitution does not give States a right to withdraw from India. The second statement is not accepted in the official answer: advocacy promoting secession can fall within legally imposed restrictions related to sovereignty and integrity, subject to constitutional free-speech standards.
Q4. Which unitary elements are found in the Indian federal system?
i. Written Constitution
ii. Rigid Constitution
iii. Supremacy of Constitution
iv. Appointment of Governor
v. Decentralisation of powers
vi. President’s approval on State bills
vii. Constitutional crises
viii. One Supreme Court
[CGPSC Civil Service Preliminary Examination, 2017]
(A) i, iii, vii
(B) ii, v, viii
(C) i, ii, v
(D) iv, vi, vii
Answer: (D) iv, vi, vii
Explanation: Union appointment of Governors, presidential consideration of certain State bills and emergency provisions are centralising features. By contrast, a supreme written Constitution, its relative rigidity and constitutionally divided powers are usually treated as federal rather than unitary characteristics.
Q3. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains:
[UPSC NDA General Ability Test, 19 April 2015]
(A) Provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(B) The Union List, State List and Concurrent List
(C) A list of recognised languages
(D) Provisions about disqualification on grounds of defection
Answer: (B) The Union List, State List and Concurrent List
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative subjects through three lists and gives practical effect to Union-State federalism. Tribal-area administration appears in the Fifth and Sixth Schedules, recognised languages in the Eighth, and anti-defection provisions in the Tenth Schedule.
Q2. Assertion (A): The primary objective of India’s federal design was to weave a nation out of diverse parts and protect national integration.
Reason (R): Accommodation of diversities has built a stronger, not weaker, Indian nationhood.
[RPSC RAS Preliminary Examination 2015, re-examination of 2013]
(A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
Explanation: India’s federal arrangement accommodates linguistic, cultural and regional differences within a common political framework. Protecting regional identity while maintaining nationwide institutions strengthens unity. Therefore, both the assertion and reason are accepted as true, and the reason explains the assertion.
Q1. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing grants-in-aid of the revenues to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2002]
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Public Accounts Committee
Answer: (A) Finance Commission
Explanation: Article 280 assigns the Finance Commission responsibility for recommending principles governing specified grants-in-aid to States, along with tax-devolution matters. The Inter-State Council promotes coordination, while the other institutions do not possess this particular constitutional recommendation mandate.
