40. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026]
(a) All the three statements are correct.
(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) There is no correct statement.
Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.
Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. Starred questions invite oral answers and allow supplementary questions. Unstarred questions receive written replies, without supplementary questions. The first two statements reverse the meanings of starred and unstarred questions in parliamentary procedure.
39. The Prime Minister is the real executive under:
[SSC GD Constable 2026 (31 May, Shift 1)]
(a) Presidential system
(b) Parliamentary system
(c) Unitary system
(d) Federal system
Answer: (b) Parliamentary system
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, executive authority is exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The President serves as constitutional head of state and ordinarily acts on ministerial advice. This distinction is known as the dual executive.
38. Which of the following Cabinet committees is NOT headed by the Prime Minister?
[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I 2026 (16 March, Shift 2)]
(a) Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill Development
(b) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth
(d) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Answer: (b) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
Explanation: The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is generally chaired by a senior Union minister rather than the Prime Minister. It coordinates government business in Parliament, whereas important committees dealing with economic affairs, investment and major policy areas are chaired by the Prime Minister.
37. Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after dissolution.
II. A member elected Speaker must immediately resign from their political party under the Constitution.
III. The Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, after at least fourteen days’ notice.
Which statements are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation: Article 94 allows the Speaker to continue after dissolution until the next Lok Sabha first meets. The Constitution does not require resignation from political-party membership upon becoming Speaker. Removal requires the prescribed majority and at least fourteen days’ notice.
36. Assertion (A): India has a Parliamentary system of Government.
Reason (R): In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature.
Select the correct answer.
[UPPSC PCS Prelims 2025 (GS Paper I)]
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is true, but R is false.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both statements are correct, and the reason explains the assertion. Article 75(3) makes the Union Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This continuing dependence on legislative confidence is the defining characteristic of India’s parliamentary government.
35. Which of the following descriptions with regard to Parliamentary Privilege for Members of the Parliament of India is/are correct?
1. The Speaker is empowered to refer suo motu any question of privilege for investigation.
2. A question of privilege is accorded priority over other items in the List of Business.
3. The privilege extends to freedom from preventive arrest or detention.
Select the answer.
[UPSC CDS-I 2025 (13 April, General Knowledge)]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Speaker can refer questions of privilege for examination, and privilege matters receive procedural priority when admitted. Parliamentary immunity does not protect members from preventive detention. Article 105 safeguards legislative functioning, but does not place MPs generally above ordinary law.
34. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is correct?
[UPSC NDA-I GAT 2025 (13 April)]
(a) A majority of Rajya Sabha members are elected through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
(b) The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the President from among its members.
(c) The Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before the completion of its five-year term.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha also vote in elections of Rajya Sabha members.
Answer: (a) A majority of Rajya Sabha members are elected through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Explanation: Elected Rajya Sabha members are chosen indirectly, mainly by elected state legislators, using proportional representation through the single transferable vote. The Rajya Sabha elects its Deputy Chairman itself. Lok Sabha dissolution may occur early, and Lok Sabha MPs do not elect Rajya Sabha members.
33. The Indian Constitution has adopted the parliamentary form of Government from ________.
[SSC MTS 2024 (9 October, Shift 1)]
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) France
Answer: (c) Britain
Explanation: India adopted the central features of the British Westminster parliamentary model. These include a Prime Minister heading the real executive, Cabinet responsibility to the elected lower House and close links between ministers and the legislature, adapted to a written republican Constitution.
32. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the Parliament and its proceedings?
[SSC CGL Tier-I 2024 (24 September, Shift 3)]
(a) Article 51A
(b) Articles 36 to 51
(c) Articles 79 to 122
(d) Articles 12 to 35
Answer: (c) Articles 79 to 122
Explanation: Articles 79 to 122 comprise the constitutional provisions governing the Union Parliament, including its composition, presiding officers, members, lawmaking and procedures. Article 51A concerns duties, Articles 36–51 concern Directive Principles and Articles 12–35 chiefly cover Fundamental Rights.
31. Which of the following is NOT a device of parliamentary proceedings?
[SSC CGL Tier-I 2024 (13 September, Shift 2)]
(a) Half-an-hour discussion
(b) Zero-hour discussion
(c) Two-hour (short) discussion
(d) Full-day discussion
Answer: (d) Full-day discussion
Explanation: Half-an-hour discussions, Zero Hour and short-duration discussions are recognised parliamentary devices used to raise public issues or scrutinise government conduct. A “full-day discussion” is not a distinct procedural device bearing that established name in the parliamentary rules.