External Sector, Global Institutions and Population

VidyaarOctober 26, 20260301 views

200. Which international institution reclassified India’s exchange-rate arrangement to a crawl-like regime in 2025?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (27 March, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) World Bank

(B) Asian Development Bank

(D) Bank for International Settlements

Answer: (C) International Monetary Fund

Explanation: The IMF monitors member countries’ exchange-rate policies through surveillance exercises. A crawl-like arrangement denotes small adjustments or gradual movement in an exchange rate rather than a permanently fixed parity. The reclassification concerns the rupee’s observed behaviour, not a law changing India’s currency.

199. According to the IMF January 2026 World Economic Outlook, what rate of world economic growth was projected for 2027?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (24 March, Shift 3) — 2026]

(A) 3.2%

(B) 2.9%

(D) 3.5%

Answer: (A) 3.2%

Explanation: The IMF’s January 2026 World Economic Outlook update projected world output growth of 3.2% in 2027. Such projections are estimates, not final growth figures. The Fund periodically revises them as global inflation, trade, investment and monetary conditions evolve.

198. Which development bank signed five agreements with India in 2025, including support for PM Surya Ghar?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (19 March, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

(B) Asian Development Bank

(D) New Development Bank

Answer: (B) Asian Development Bank

Explanation: The Asian Development Bank signed the package of loan agreements, including support for rooftop solar under PM Surya Ghar. The ADB is a regional multilateral lender focused on development finance in Asia and the Pacific, unlike the IMF’s principal balance-of-payments role.

197. India was re-elected in 2025 to the Category B Council of which international body for 2026–27?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (22 March, Shift 3) — 2026]

(A) International Seabed Authority

(B) World Trade Organization

(D) International Maritime Organization

Answer: (D) International Maritime Organization

Explanation: The International Maritime Organization has a Council with categories reflecting shipping-related interests. Category B includes states with major interests in international seaborne trade. India’s re-election relates to maritime governance and trade logistics, not to WTO market-access negotiations.

196. In which year did India join the World Trade Organization?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (17 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) 1995

(B) 2001

(D) 1991

Answer: (A) 1995

Explanation: India joined the WTO as an original member on 1 January 1995, when the organisation replaced the GATT framework. The WTO administers trade agreements covering goods, services and intellectual property and provides a forum for negotiations and dispute settlement.

195. What is meant by globalisation?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (14 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) Reduced international trade

(B) Expansion of state ownership

(D) Integration of national economies with the global economy

Answer: (D) Integration of national economies with the global economy

Explanation: Globalisation refers to growing economic integration through cross-border trade, capital flows, technology, production networks and services. It does not mean economic isolation. Liberalisation of tariffs and foreign investment rules can foster integration, although governments may still regulate specific sectors.

194. Population density is the number of people per which measure?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (14 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) Total population

(B) Unit of land area

(D) Area under cultivation

Answer: (B) Unit of land area

Explanation: Arithmetic population density divides total inhabitants by the land area occupied, usually expressed as persons per square kilometre. Physiological density instead uses cultivable land. The distinction helps compare overall settlement pressure with pressure on agriculturally productive land.

193. Approximately how many people lived in India on 1 March 2001?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (16 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) 1,210 million

(B) 950 million

(D) 1,000 million

Answer: (C) 1,027 million

Explanation: The 2001 Census recorded about 1.027 billion inhabitants, marking India’s crossing of one billion people. The next census in 2011 counted around 1.21 billion. Both figures are historical enumerations rather than estimates of India’s present population.

192. Which state had the highest number of children aged 0–6 in the Census 2011 provisional figures?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (19 June, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Bihar

(D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh had the largest absolute number of children aged below seven in Census 2011, consistent with its position as India’s most populous state. An absolute count is different from the percentage share of children within each state’s population.

191. Which state has high population density partly because of early settlement and development?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (15 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Sikkim

Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: The fertile, well-watered Indo-Gangetic plain supported long-established settlements and intensive agriculture. Uttar Pradesh consequently has dense rural and urban populations. Density varies with terrain, livelihoods, infrastructure and historical settlement, rather than the age of a state’s institutions alone.

190. Which Union Territory had the lowest population density in Census 2011?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (8 May, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) Chandigarh

(B) Puducherry

(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer: (D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands recorded the lowest density among the Union Territories, reflecting their extensive land area, forests and limited settlement. The Census 2011 comparison must use the Union Territory boundaries and designations of that census year.

189. Which measure describes total population relative to net cultivated land?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (20 June, Shift 3) — 2026]

(A) Physiological density

(B) Agricultural density

(D) Economic density

Answer: (A) Physiological density

Explanation: Physiological density compares all residents to the cultivable or net sown area. Agricultural density generally counts agricultural workers relative to agricultural land. The former highlights how many people depend on the country’s productive farmland for food and livelihood.

188. Which policy sought to replace foreign manufactured goods with domestic production after Independence?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (19 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) Export-led growth

(B) Dollarisation

(D) Import substitution

Answer: (D) Import substitution

Explanation: Import substitution industrialisation aims to manufacture domestically what was previously imported. India used tariffs, import licensing and state-supported industry to develop domestic capabilities. The strategy differed from export-oriented industrialisation, which uses foreign demand as a major source of growth.

187. Why did India offer tax incentives to foreign investors during the reform era?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (8 May, Shift 3) — 2026]

(A) To attract foreign investment

(B) To raise taxes on investors

(D) To discourage overseas investment

Answer: (A) To attract foreign investment

Explanation: Tax incentives can raise the after-tax return expected by overseas investors and encourage productive investment. India’s post-1991 reforms also eased licensing and foreign-investment restrictions. Incentives are one possible tool and do not automatically ensure technology transfer or employment.

186. What was a major liberalisation objective of India’s 1991 reforms?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (13 June, Shift 3) — 2026]

(A) Ban foreign businesses

(B) Remove barriers to trade and industry

(D) Increase controls on industry

Answer: (B) Remove barriers to trade and industry

Explanation: Liberalisation sought to reduce licensing and regulatory obstacles and to expose more sectors to competition and foreign trade. It formed one part of India’s 1991 reform package, alongside changes in exchange-rate policy, investment rules and public-sector management.

185. What term describes the increasing integration of different national economies into the world economy?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (24 March, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) Glocalisation

(B) Transnationalisation

(D) Globalisation

Answer: (D) Globalisation

Explanation: Globalisation describes the deepening of cross-border links in trade, production, finance and technology. Industrialisation, by contrast, is a shift toward manufacturing. Glocalisation combines global strategies with local adaptation, while transnationalisation describes particular forms of cross-border activity.

184. The 2011 population Census of India was which numbered census since the first enumeration in 1872?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (19 June, Shift 3) — 2026]

(A) Fourteenth

(B) Sixteenth

(D) Thirteenth

Answer: (C) Fifteenth

Explanation: The first population enumeration was conducted in 1872 and the first synchronous decennial census followed in 1881. Counting the 1872 exercise, the 2011 Census was India’s fifteenth census and the seventh since Independence.

183. Which of these countries has the largest population?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (8 May, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) Russia

(B) Australia

(D) Canada

Answer: (C) India

Explanation: India’s population is far larger than those of Russia, Australia or Canada. Its total overtook China’s in international estimates during the 2020s. The question compares total residents, not density, land area, annual growth or urbanisation.

182. Which Indian state had the second-largest population according to Census 2011?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (17 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) Bihar

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (B) Maharashtra

Explanation: Maharashtra stood second behind Uttar Pradesh in total population at Census 2011. Bihar stood third, followed by West Bengal. The ranking is based on the count of residents, not density or the rate of population increase.

181. The economic reforms introduced in India in 1991 are particularly associated with which three processes?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (24 March, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) Protectionism, regulation and nationalisation

(B) Liberalisation, globalisation and privatisation

(D) Nationalisation, tariff hikes and autarky

Answer: (B) Liberalisation, globalisation and privatisation

Explanation: The 1991 reforms reduced licensing controls, encouraged competition and increased openness to foreign trade and capital. Liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation became common shorthand for the policy shift, although reforms varied in pace across sectors.

180. Which Indian sector expanded significantly through globalisation?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (16 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) Handicrafts alone

(B) Mining alone

(D) Information technology and services

Answer: (D) Information technology and services

Explanation: India’s information-technology and business-services industries grew through access to international clients and communication networks. Outsourcing of software and back-office operations became important service exports. Other sectors also participate in global trade, but IT-led services became especially prominent.

179. Which process involves assigning business activities to an outside enterprise and expanded with globalisation?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (18 March, Shift 3) — 2026]

(A) Privatisation

(B) Nationalisation

(D) Outsourcing

Answer: (D) Outsourcing

Explanation: Outsourcing transfers selected tasks, such as customer support or software development, to outside providers. Digital connectivity enables cross-border outsourcing. Privatisation instead concerns ownership transfer, while liberalisation removes restrictions. These processes can accompany globalisation but are conceptually distinct.

178. Which among these territories recorded the lowest sex ratio in Census 2011?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (13 June, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) Haryana

(B) Chandigarh

(D) Daman and Diu

Answer: (D) Daman and Diu

Explanation: Daman and Diu recorded an exceptionally low number of females per thousand males in 2011, below the listed alternatives. Migration patterns and male-dominated employment can influence the observed ratio. This question uses pre-reorganisation Census 2011 boundaries.

177. A city of 50,000 residents grows by 15% in year one and 20% in year two. What is its population after two years?

[RRB Group D 2025 cycle (13 August 2026, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) 68,800

(B) 69,000

(D) 69,900

Answer: (B) 69,000

Explanation: Successive growth rates multiply instead of adding directly. First 50,000 becomes 57,500 after the 15 percent rise. Multiplying by 1.20 gives 69,000. The combined growth rate is 38 percent, including the interaction between the increases.

176. A city of 16,000 people grows by 25% each year. What will the population be after three years?

[RRB Group D 2025 cycle (11 August 2026, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) 32,000

(B) 31,250

(D) 30,250

Answer: (B) 31,250

Explanation: Compound population growth uses the annual multiplier repeatedly. Multiplying 16,000 by 1.25 three times gives 31,250 residents. Adding 25 percent three times would underestimate the result because growth in later years applies to a larger base.

175. A population increases from 64,000 to 93,500 in one year. What is the percentage increase, to two decimals?

[RRB Group D 2025 cycle (18 August 2026, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) 46.56%

(B) 46.09%

(D) 46.64%

Answer: (B) 46.09%

Explanation: The increase is 29,500. Dividing this by the original 64,000 and multiplying by one hundred gives 46.09375 percent, which rounds to 46.09 percent. Percentage change uses the starting population as its denominator.

174. A city’s population rises from 70,000 to 71,435. What is the percentage increase?

[RRB Group D 2025 cycle (9 August 2026, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) 2.15%

(B) 2.05%

(D) 2.00%

Answer: (B) 2.05%

Explanation: Subtracting 70,000 from 71,435 gives an increase of 1,435. Dividing by 70,000 and multiplying by 100 yields 2.05 percent. This is a single-period growth rate, rather than a compound rate across multiple years.

173. A city has 80,000 residents. It grows 10%, falls 5% and grows another 20% in successive years. What is the final population?

[RRB Group D 2025 cycle (17 August 2026, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) 1,07,320

(B) 1,01,320

(D) 1,00,320

Answer: (D) 1,00,320

Explanation: Multiplying 80,000 by 1.10, then 0.95 and finally 1.20 gives 100,320. Each annual percentage is applied to the population remaining after the preceding change, so the rates must not simply be added.

172. A town’s population falls from 80,000 to 72,000. What percentage decrease occurred?

[RRB Group D 2025 cycle (5 August 2026, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) 8%

(B) 12%

(D) 15%

Answer: (C) 10%

Explanation: The town lost 8,000 inhabitants. Dividing 8,000 by the original 80,000 produces 0.10, or 10 percent. The denominator must be the original value for a percentage decline measured over the specified period.

171. A town grows from 60,000 to 61,260 people. What was its percentage increase?

[RRB Group D 2025 cycle (25 August 2026, Shift 2) — 2026]

(A) 2.3%

(B) 2.1%

(D) 2.2%

Answer: (B) 2.1%

Explanation: The numerical increase is 1,260 people. As a proportion of the original population, 1,260 divided by 60,000 equals 0.021. Converting the fraction to a percentage yields 2.1 percent.

170. A village loses 28% of its population to water scarcity, and then half of those remaining move for work. What is the ratio of initial to final population?

[RRB Group D (3 February, Shift 1) — 2026]

(A) 107:87

(B) 25:11

(D) 25:9

Answer: (D) 25:9

Explanation: Starting with 100 people, 28 leave and 72 remain. Half of these then depart, leaving 36. Thus the original-to-final ratio is 100:36, which simplifies to 25:9 regardless of the actual village population.

169. After 40% of villagers leave and then 10% of the remainder leave, what is the ratio of initial to final population?

[RRB Group D (8 January, Shift 3) — 2026]

(A) 52:32

(B) 50:23

(D) 50:27

Answer: (D) 50:27

Explanation: If the original village population is treated as 100 units, a 40 percent loss leaves 60. Another 10 percent of those 60 depart, so 54 remain. The ratio 100:54 simplifies to 50:27.

168. For IBRD, which statements are correct:
(1) it lends to middle-income countries;
(2) it works single-handedly against poverty;
(3) it was created for post-war European reconstruction?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2025]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: IBRD makes loans and provides guarantees mainly to middle-income and creditworthy lower-income economies. Created at Bretton Woods in 1944, it first supported reconstruction after World War II. It works with other World Bank Group institutions, so it does not act alone.

167. In which year did the World Trade Organization start functioning?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (10 June, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) 1995

(B) 2001

(D) 1991

Answer: (A) 1995

Explanation: The WTO commenced on 1 January 1995 after the Uruguay Round and Marrakesh Agreement. It succeeded the GATT trading system and has a broader legal framework for services and intellectual property, along with agreements addressing merchandise trade.

166. WTO rules
(1) cover goods and services;
(2) address tariff and non-tariff barriers;
(3) have led India to ease quantitative import restrictions.

Which are correct?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (11 June, Shift 3) — 2025]

(A) 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: WTO agreements cover services under GATS as well as goods under GATT-linked agreements. Market access and non-discrimination are central aims. India has adjusted import restrictions and tariffs under its commitments, although permitted safeguards and other restrictions remain.

165. What is an important benefit of foreign direct investment to a developing economy?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (19 June, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) Higher taxation by definition

(B) A trade deficit by definition

(D) Technology access and employment

Answer: (D) Technology access and employment

Explanation: FDI may introduce production methods, managerial skills, capital and access to overseas markets. New factories and services may create employment and supply-chain opportunities. Outcomes vary by sector and policy; FDI does not inherently cause trade deficits or currency depreciation.

164. What population did the National Commission on Population project for India in 2036?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (9 June, Shift 3) — 2025]

(A) 1.38 billion

(B) 1.32 billion

(D) 1.45 billion

Answer: (C) 1.52 billion

Explanation: The government’s Population Projections for India and States 2011–2036 project about 1.52 billion inhabitants in 2036. This is a projection based on fertility, mortality and migration assumptions; unlike a census, it is not a direct headcount.

163. Which international organisation promotes free trade and global trade cooperation?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (7 August, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) WHO

(B) WTO

(D) IMF

Answer: (B) WTO

Explanation: The World Trade Organization sets multilateral trading rules, hosts negotiations and provides dispute-settlement procedures. The IMF principally supports international monetary and balance-of-payments stability, while the WHO and UNESCO focus on health and education, science and culture respectively.

162. How is India’s population distributed across regions?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (7 August, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) Evenly everywhere

(B) Most densely in deserts

(D) Unevenly across regions

Answer: (D) Unevenly across regions

Explanation: India’s population is distributed unevenly. Alluvial plains and metropolitan areas have relatively high densities, while difficult terrain, deserts and remote forested regions generally sustain smaller concentrations. Water, agriculture, infrastructure and job opportunities are important factors.

161. What growth rate did the IMF April 2025 World Economic Outlook project for India in 2025?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (13 August, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) 6.2%

(B) 5.6%

(D) 4.8%

Answer: (A) 6.2%

Explanation: The April 2025 IMF World Economic Outlook projected India’s growth at 6.2 percent. A projection is conditional on information available when the report was prepared; newer forecasts and actual national-accounts estimates can differ from it.

160. Which organisation extended financial support during India’s 1991 foreign-exchange crisis?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (2 September, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) ADB

(B) World Bank

(D) IMF

Answer: (D) IMF

Explanation: India turned to the International Monetary Fund for balance-of-payments assistance amid depleted reserves in 1991. Stabilisation finance and economic-policy adjustments accompanied wider liberalisation. The IMF differs from the WTO, which deals mainly with rules for international trade.

159. Which global institution helped support India’s reforms during the balance-of-payments crisis of 1991?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (19 June, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) United Nations

(B) International Monetary Fund

(D) World Trade Organization

Answer: (B) International Monetary Fund

Explanation: The IMF provided financial support to India during the acute external payments crisis. The assistance was linked to stabilisation measures, while the government also implemented structural reforms. The episode underlined the importance of adequate foreign-exchange reserves and sustainable external financing.

158. Which institutions influenced industrial restructuring in India after the 1991 crisis?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (14 August, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) NABARD

(B) WTO

(D) RBI only

Answer: (C) IMF and World Bank

Explanation: The IMF and World Bank were major external institutions involved in India’s 1991 stabilisation and structural-adjustment period. Policies included trade liberalisation, regulatory reform and greater private-sector participation. Domestic policymakers still determined the precise reform programme and its implementation.

157. Which international institution supported India’s liberalisation during the 1991 crisis?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (19 August, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) Election Commission

(D) International Monetary Fund

Answer: (D) International Monetary Fund

Explanation: India obtained assistance from the International Monetary Fund when foreign-exchange reserves were insufficient to meet external obligations. Such financing can provide temporary support during a balance-of-payments crisis, while policy reform seeks to strengthen economic stability and competitiveness.

156. Which state received a World Bank healthcare-upgrading loan of about ₹2,424 crore?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (20 August, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) Gujarat

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Kerala

Answer: (D) Kerala

Explanation: The World Bank-supported financing was associated with health-system improvements in Kerala. Development-bank lending typically funds public services, infrastructure and institutional capacity. It contrasts with IMF financing, which generally responds to macroeconomic and external-sector instability.

155. Which three bodies jointly organised a 2025 health, trade and intellectual-property briefing?

[RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (11 August, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) WHO, UNESCO and WTO

(B) WHO, IMF and UNDP

(D) WHO, WIPO and UNICEF

Answer: (C) WHO, WIPO and WTO

Explanation: WHO covers health policy, WIPO administers international intellectual-property cooperation, and WTO manages global trade rules. Their joint work addresses the interaction of innovation incentives, trade in medicines and access to public-health technologies, including patent and licensing issues.

154. Which organisation publishes the report The State of the World’s Children?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (13 November, Shift 3) — 2025]

(A) UNICEF

(B) World Bank

(D) World Economic Forum

Answer: (A) UNICEF

Explanation: UNICEF publishes The State of the World’s Children to analyse issues affecting children, including health, education and protection. The World Bank publishes development research, while the IMF’s flagship forecasts appear in the World Economic Outlook.

153. According to Census 2011, what was the decadal population growth rate of Hindus in India?

[SSC CGL Tier-II Paper-I (20 January) — 2025]

(A) 16.8%

(B) 14.3%

(D) 11.7%

Answer: (A) 16.8%

Explanation: Census 2011 reported a 16.8 percent increase in the Hindu population over the preceding decade. This is a decadal growth rate for a particular religious category and should not be confused with that category’s proportion of the total population.

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (16 June, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) 55%

(B) 60%

(D) 65%

Answer: (D) 65%

Explanation: The cited Economic Survey estimated that approximately 65 percent of Indians lived in rural areas in 2021. It was a demographic estimate, not a completed 2021 census. Rural population shares affect demand, employment patterns and infrastructure planning.

151. Which of the following was NOT a feature of the Bretton Woods system?

[NDA-II, General Ability Test (14 September) — 2025]

(A) Creation of the IMF

(B) Post-war economic reconstruction

(D) A monetary system based on floating exchange rates

Answer: (D) A monetary system based on floating exchange rates

Explanation: The Bretton Woods arrangements were based on fixed but adjustable exchange rates, with currencies linked to the US dollar and the dollar linked to gold. The IMF and IBRD emerged from the 1944 conference. Generalised floating came later.

150. In which year was the Directorate General of Foreign Trade established in India?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (17 November, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) 1997

(B) 1991

(D) 1993

Answer: (B) 1991

Explanation: The Directorate General of Foreign Trade emerged with India’s 1991 trade reforms, replacing the earlier import-export control framework. It administers foreign-trade policy and related authorisations under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, thereby influencing both imports and exports.

149. How many classes of cities are used in India’s census classification based on population size?

[CGPSC Preliminary Examination Paper I (9 February) — 2025]

(A) Three

(B) Four

(D) Six

Answer: (D) Six

Explanation: The Census classifies urban places into six population-size classes, ranging from Class I at 100,000 persons or more to Class VI below 5,000. Such classifications help analyse urbanisation, municipal service demands and settlement patterns.

148. What was the total working population of Chhattisgarh as recorded in Census 2011?

[CGPSC Preliminary Examination Paper I (9 February) — 2025]

(A) 1,21,80,225

(B) 71,33,866

(D) None of these

Answer: (A) 1,21,80,225

Explanation: The 2011 Census records the state workforce by main and marginal work categories. Its count was approximately 12.18 million, as reflected in the question’s first alternative. Workforce measures should not be confused with the entire working-age population.

147. What was India’s rank in the World Bank Human Capital Index 2020 as stated in the examination?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Economics Paper II (1 June) — 2025]

(A) 112

(B) 114

(D) 118

Answer: (A) 112

Explanation: The examination key identifies India as rank 112. The World Bank’s Human Capital Index estimates the potential productivity of a child born today based on education and health indicators. The index value and country ranking measure different things.

146. Which was NOT listed as a key good-governance dimension in the World Bank’s 1989 framework, according to the question?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Political Science Paper II (1 June) — 2025]

(A) Public-sector management

(B) Accountability

(D) Information and transparency

Answer: (C) Efficiency

Explanation: The cited World Bank governance framework highlighted public-sector management, accountability, the legal framework for development, and information and transparency. Although efficiency is an important governance objective, it was not the independently named dimension expected by this question.

145. A village loses 38% of its original residents and later half the remainder leave. What is the ratio of the starting to remaining population?

[RRB Group D (27 December, Shift 3) — 2025]

(A) 108:33

(B) 100:33

(D) 103:33

Answer: (C) 100:31

Explanation: After 38 percent leave, 62 percent of the original population remains. Half of the remaining people then leave, so just 31 percent of the original stay. Hence the original-to-final population ratio is 100:31.

144. How much did global stock returns fall on average during major geopolitical risk events according to IMF April 2025 reporting?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (10 June, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) 1.0%

(B) 3.2%

(D) 2.5%

Answer: (A) 1.0%

Explanation: The examination cited a roughly one percent average global-equity decline around major geopolitical risk events in the IMF Global Financial Stability Report. The IMF studies the link between geopolitical uncertainty, risk pricing, capital flows and financial instability.

143. What US growth rate for 2025 did the IMF forecast in April 2025?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (20 June, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) 2.5%

(B) 1.8%

(D) 3.7%

Answer: (B) 1.8%

Explanation: The IMF’s April 2025 projections put US growth at about 1.8 percent for that calendar year. Forecasts are forward-looking and are revised as conditions change. The stated rate should not be mistaken for subsequently reported actual economic growth.

142. According to the IMF January 2025 World Economic Outlook Update, what was the projected world growth rate for 2025?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (17 June, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) 4.0%

(B) 4.8%

(D) 3.3%

Answer: (D) 3.3%

Explanation: The IMF’s January 2025 update projected global growth at 3.3 percent. The forecast combined expected performance of advanced and emerging economies and could change in later updates. It is not a historical measurement of completed annual growth.

141. What global headline inflation rate did the IMF project for 2025 in its January 2025 outlook?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (14 June, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) 5.0%

(B) 6.0%

(D) 6.5%

Answer: (C) 4.2%

Explanation: The IMF’s January 2025 forecast anticipated a global headline inflation rate of 4.2 percent for 2025. The estimate aggregates price developments across economies and is sensitive to energy costs, food prices, monetary conditions and exchange-rate changes.

140. What was a primary objective of liberalisation in India’s New Economic Policy of 1991?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (29 November, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) Embargo trade with enemy countries

(B) Increase restrictions on economic activity

(D) Raise non-tariff barriers to imports

Answer: (C) Open various sectors of the economy

Explanation: Liberalisation lowered licensing barriers and widened participation in several sectors. It aimed to improve competition, investment and productive efficiency while integrating India more closely with world markets. More restrictive import barriers would work against that purpose.

139. What was the inward-looking trade strategy adopted in India’s early Five-Year Plans called?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (14 November, Shift 3) — 2025]

(A) Export enhancement

(B) Free-trade expansion

(D) Foreign-investment expansion

Answer: (C) Import substitution

Explanation: Import substitution encouraged domestic manufacture of previously imported products. India used tariffs, quotas and industrial policy to support self-reliance. The strategy contrasted with export-oriented development, under which external markets become a major source of industrial demand.

138. In which year was the Services Exports from India Scheme launched?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (14 November, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) 2015

(B) 2017

(D) 2008

Answer: (A) 2015

Explanation: The Services Exports from India Scheme formed part of the Foreign Trade Policy 2015–2020. It provided incentives to eligible service exporters earning foreign exchange. Its arrangements changed subsequently, so the answer refers to the launch year.

137. What was the minimum plant-and-machinery investment requirement for an Export Oriented Unit in the cited scheme?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (27 November, Shift 2) — 2025]

(A) ₹5 crore

(B) ₹10 crore

(D) ₹3 crore

Answer: (C) ₹1 crore

Explanation: Under the cited Export Oriented Units policy, a project ordinarily needed at least one crore rupees invested in plant and machinery. EOU provisions are intended to promote export-oriented production and foreign-exchange earnings and can be revised by later trade policies.

136. When did India launch the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (20 November, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) 1998

(B) 2002

(D) 2015

Answer: (D) 2015

Explanation: The Merchandise Exports from India Scheme began under the 2015–2020 Foreign Trade Policy. It used duty-credit incentives for eligible exports to improve competitiveness. Trade-remission and incentive arrangements have since changed, but the examination asks about the original launch.

135. How many main processes change the size of a population?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (14 November, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) Three

(B) Five

(D) Seven

Answer: (A) Three

Explanation: Births, deaths and migration are the three principal processes producing population change. Births add residents, deaths reduce the total, and migration changes the population of a particular region through inflows or departures. Their combined effects determine growth.

134. Which of these is a natural component of population change: (I) births, (II) migration?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (28 November, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(D) Neither I nor II

Answer: (A) Only I

Explanation: Natural increase is measured through births minus deaths. Migration is a separate component of population change arising from movement into or out of an area. Thus births count as a natural component, but migration is not part of natural increase.

133. The Census of India is conducted under which Act?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (24 November, Shift 3) — 2025]

(A) Census Act, 1948

(B) Census Act, 1965

(D) Census Act, 1954

Answer: (A) Census Act, 1948

Explanation: The Census Act, 1948 provides the legal basis for census operations in independent India. The Registrar General and Census Commissioner administers enumeration under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. The Act also provides for handling census information.

132. Which influence population distribution: (I) topography, (II) climate?

[SSC CHSL Tier-I (28 November, Shift 3) — 2025]

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(D) Neither I nor II

Answer: (C) Both I and II

Explanation: Terrain and climate shape settlement opportunities. Fertile plains and river valleys generally support large populations, while steep mountains and extremely arid or cold regions often have fewer residents. Employment, transport and historical conditions also influence population distribution.

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (17 June, Shift 1) — 2025]

(A) 4.7 billion

(B) 3.2 billion

(D) 2.7 billion

Answer: (C) 1.7 billion

Explanation: The World Bank’s 2025 report cited emergency social-protection measures reaching about 1.7 billion people in developing economies during the pandemic. Such programmes included income support and other safety-net interventions to mitigate livelihood disruptions.

130. Which statement is correct:
(1) India does not import apples from the USA;
(2) importing GM food without competent approval is prohibited?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2024]

(A) Both statements correct and 2 explains 1

(B) Both correct, but 2 does not explain 1

(D) Statement 2 alone correct

Answer: (D) Statement 2 alone correct

Explanation: India has imported apples from the United States, making the first statement false. Importing genetically modified food requires appropriate regulatory approval, making the second true. This separates agricultural trade practice from the rules governing genetically modified foods.

129. Which is correct about Venezuela:
(1) it rapidly recovered and stopped emigration;
(2) it has the world’s largest proven oil reserves?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2024]

(A) Both correct, and 2 explains 1

(B) Both correct, but 2 does not explain 1

(D) Only 2 correct

Answer: (D) Only 2 correct

Explanation: Venezuela has exceptionally large proved oil reserves, but prolonged economic distress contributed to mass emigration. Resource abundance does not guarantee macroeconomic stability. Oil dependence, institutional performance, sanctions and inflation all help explain the contrasting statements.

128. Which set of Union Territories had the highest population densities in Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (24 September, Shift 1) — 2024]

(A) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry

(B) Delhi, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu

(D) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Chandigarh

Answer: (C) Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry

Explanation: Delhi, Chandigarh and Puducherry ranked among the densest Union Territories in 2011. High density can arise from intensive urban settlement and small territorial area. Historical UT boundaries must be used when interpreting Census 2011 data.

127. What was India’s annual exponential population-growth rate according to Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (24 September, Shift 3) — 2024]

(A) 1.10%

(B) 1.64%

(D) 3.54%

Answer: (B) 1.64%

Explanation: The cited 2011 Census statistic was an annual exponential growth rate of 1.64 percent. Exponential rates summarise growth across time and differ from decadal percentage increases. Population change reflects births, deaths and net international migration.

126. What were the gains in male and female literacy rates from Census 2001 to 2011, respectively?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (23 September, Shift 3) — 2024]

(A) 3.88 and 13.79 percentage points

(B) 5.88 and 12.79 percentage points

(D) 4.88 and 10.79 percentage points

Answer: (C) 6.88 and 11.79 percentage points

Explanation: The census comparison shows male literacy rising by 6.88 percentage points and female literacy by 11.79. Faster improvement among women narrowed the literacy gap, although women’s literacy level remained below men’s in the 2011 data.

[SSC CGL Tier-I (12 September, Shift 3) — 2024]

(A) 22.9%

(B) 21.9%

(D) 19.9%

Answer: (C) 20.9%

Explanation: The question’s cited adolescent age group accounted for about 20.9 percent of India’s population in Census 2011. The large cohort has important implications for school provision, skill development, public health and eventual entry into the workforce.

124. Which group of Union Territories had the highest female-to-male sex ratios in Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (13 September, Shift 1) — 2024]

(A) Puducherry, Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar

(B) Puducherry, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar

(D) Chandigarh, Puducherry, Delhi

Answer: (B) Puducherry, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar

Explanation: Puducherry, Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar Islands were among the highest-sex-ratio Union Territories in 2011. Sex ratio is expressed as females per thousand males. Comparisons should use the territorial divisions employed by the historical census.

123. What was the difference between male and female literacy rates in Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (12 September, Shift 2) — 2024]

(A) 21.59 percentage points

(B) 18.30 percentage points

(D) 16.68 percentage points

Answer: (D) 16.68 percentage points

Explanation: Male literacy was about 82.14 percent and female literacy about 65.46 percent according to Census 2011. Subtracting these rates gives a gender literacy gap of 16.68 percentage points, a useful measure of educational inequality.

122. Which district had the largest population according to Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (18 September, Shift 3) — 2024]

(A) Kollam

(B) Ajmer

(D) Pune

Answer: (C) Thane

Explanation: Thane in Maharashtra was the most populous district at the time of the 2011 Census. High urbanisation in the Mumbai metropolitan region contributed to this figure. Subsequent district reorganisations do not change the historically reported 2011 ranking.

121. How many people were listed in the Census 2011 Other Religions and Persuasions category?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (17 September, Shift 3) — 2024]

(A) 3.9 million

(B) 7.9 million

(D) 9.9 million

Answer: (B) 7.9 million

Explanation: The 2011 Census classified approximately 7.9 million people under Other Religions and Persuasions. This residual grouping includes several indigenous and smaller religious traditions. It should not be confused with nonresponse or with any one major religious community.

120. Which Union Territory had the largest slum population in Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (17 September, Shift 1) — 2024]

(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(B) Chandigarh

(D) Delhi

Answer: (D) Delhi

Explanation: Delhi recorded the highest total slum population among the Union Territories in Census 2011. Absolute slum population is not the same as the fraction of residents living in slums, a distinction important in urban-policy comparisons.

119. According to Malthus, population grows in which progression and food supply in which progression?

[UPPSC PCS Prelims GS-I — 2024]

(A) Exponential, linear

(B) Arithmetic, geometric

(D) Geometric, arithmetic

Answer: (D) Geometric, arithmetic

Explanation: Malthus argued that population can grow geometrically while food supply expands arithmetically. This mismatch, in his theory, creates pressure on subsistence. Modern demographic transition and productivity growth complicate the prediction, but the two mathematical progressions remain its central claim.

118. Arrange Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh in descending order of Census 2011 population.

[UPPSC PCS Prelims GS-I — 2024]

(A) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh

(B) West Bengal, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh

(D) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh had the largest population, followed by Bihar, West Bengal and the pre-bifurcation Andhra Pradesh in this comparison. The year and boundary definition are vital, because Telangana separated from Andhra Pradesh in 2014.

117. Match these trade initiatives to years: GSTP; India–GCC FTA; India–Korea CEPA; seventh WTO trade-policy review. Which order is correct?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (17 September, Shift 1) — 2024]

(A) GSTP–2010, GCC–2021, Korea–1988, review–2004

(B) GSTP–1988, GCC–2021, Korea–2010, review–2004

(D) GSTP–1988, GCC–2004, Korea–2010, review–2021

Answer: (D) GSTP–1988, GCC–2004, Korea–2010, review–2021

Explanation: The Global System of Trade Preferences originated in 1988; India–GCC trade negotiations were linked to 2004; India–Korea CEPA dates to 2010; and India’s seventh WTO trade-policy review took place in 2021. Dates help differentiate agreements from reviews.

116. When did India announce the Duty-Free Tariff Preference Scheme for Least Developed Countries?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (11 September, Shift 1) — 2024]

(A) 2010

(B) 2009

(D) 2008

Answer: (D) 2008

Explanation: India announced its Duty-Free Tariff Preference Scheme for Least Developed Countries in 2008. The initiative seeks to expand market access for eligible exports from the poorest economies, complementing multilateral efforts to integrate them into international trade.

115. Which problem was identified as a major challenge for foreign investors in India?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (9 September, Shift 1) — 2024]

(A) Excessive foreign competition

(B) Inconsistent regulatory environment

(D) Absence of consumers

Answer: (B) Inconsistent regulatory environment

Explanation: Changes or inconsistencies in administrative requirements and rules can complicate long-term investment decisions. Foreign direct investors must assess licensing, tax administration and contract enforcement. The existence of a large consumer market does not eliminate regulatory uncertainty.

114. What was the automatic foreign-direct-investment approval ceiling in nine industrial categories referred to in the question?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (11 September, Shift 2) — 2024]

(A) Up to 51%

(B) Up to 60%

(D) Up to 74%

Answer: (D) Up to 74%

Explanation: The exam’s historical policy question specified an automatic approval limit of 74 percent for certain industrial categories. Investment caps are sector-specific and can change. The automatic route concerns the need for prior government clearance, not a guarantee of investment success.

113. What benefit do businesses commonly receive in India’s Special Economic Zones?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (24 September, Shift 1) — 2024]

(A) Tax and duty concessions

(B) Guaranteed market share

(D) Unrestricted foreign ownership in all activities

Answer: (A) Tax and duty concessions

Explanation: Special Economic Zones seek to attract investment and export activity through a distinct regulatory and fiscal framework. Depending on applicable law, approved units may receive customs-duty and tax benefits. SEZ status never guarantees buyers, contracts or unconditional ownership permissions.

112. Regarding the G20, are these correct: (1) it began as finance ministers’ and central-bank governors’ forum; (2) digital public infrastructure was an Indian presidency priority?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2023]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The G20 was established in 1999 as a forum for finance ministers and central-bank governors and gained leaders-level prominence after 2008. India promoted digital public infrastructure during its 2023 presidency, including interoperable payment and identification platforms.

111. For the EU Stability and Growth Pact, how many are correct: it limits budget deficits; shares infrastructure; shares technologies?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2023]

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

Answer: (A) Only one

Explanation: The Stability and Growth Pact constrains excessive budget deficits and debt among EU members, particularly within the euro-area governance framework. It is not a treaty requiring EU countries to share infrastructure or technology. Hence just the fiscal statement holds.

110. Which assertion is correct:
(1) the EU and USA launched a Trade and Technology Council;
(2) its stated purpose was to control world technological progress?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2023]

(A) Both and 2 explains 1

(B) Both but 2 does not explain 1

(D) Only 2 correct

Answer: (C) Only 1 correct

Explanation: The EU–US Trade and Technology Council coordinates discussions about technology standards, supply chains and trade. Its proclaimed purpose was cooperation, not global control of technology. India subsequently established a separate Trade and Technology Council with the European Union.

109. How many of affordable housing, mass rapid transport, healthcare and renewable energy are UNOPS S3i investment focus areas?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2023]

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) Four

Answer: (C) Three

Explanation: The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation initiative focused on affordable housing, renewable energy and healthcare infrastructure. Mass rapid transit was not one of the three designated focus categories. The initiative aimed to channel private capital into development infrastructure.

108. Which assertion is correct:
(1) Switzerland is a leading exporter of gold by value;
(2) Switzerland holds the second-largest official gold reserve?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2023]

(A) Both and 2 explains 1

(B) Both but 2 does not explain 1

(D) Only 2 correct

Answer: (C) Only 1 correct

Explanation: Switzerland refines and trades substantial quantities of gold, making it a major exporter by value. Its central-bank gold stock is not the second-largest worldwide. Trading volume must be distinguished from the amount of gold held in official reserves.

107. Where is the WTO Appellate Body based?

[WBCS Executive Prelims — 2023]

(A) New York

(B) Geneva

(D) The Hague

Answer: (B) Geneva

Explanation: The WTO’s dispute-settlement institutions are based in Geneva, Switzerland, the organisation’s headquarters. The Appellate Body was created under the WTO dispute-settlement rules in 1995. Its institutional difficulties in recent years do not alter its headquarters location.

106. What was the latest completed population census of India at the time of this examination?

[WBCS Mains, Polity & Economy — 2023]

(A) 2011

(B) 2021

(D) 2010

Answer: (A) 2011

Explanation: The most recent completed all-India population census at the time was the 2011 exercise. Census 2021 was postponed and not conducted. The distinction between a scheduled exercise and an actual enumeration is essential when answering demographic questions.

105. Arrange Anuppur, Betul, Chhindwara and Mandsaur by increasing decadal population growth, 2001–2011.

[MPPSC State Services Prelims GS-I — 2023]

(A) Anuppur, Mandsaur, Betul, Chhindwara

(B) Anuppur, Betul, Chhindwara, Mandsaur

(D) Betul, Anuppur, Chhindwara, Mandsaur

Answer: (B) Anuppur, Betul, Chhindwara, Mandsaur

Explanation: The respective Madhya Pradesh districts recorded increasing decadal population growth in the order Anuppur, Betul, Chhindwara and Mandsaur. District-based census comparisons must use the same reference decade and administrative boundaries to avoid misleading rankings.

104. What was India’s population density in Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (25 July, Shift 1) — 2023]

(A) 822 persons/km²

(B) 382 persons/km²

(D) 282 persons/km²

Answer: (B) 382 persons/km²

Explanation: The 2011 Census recorded a national density of 382 people per square kilometre, compared with 324 in 2001. Population density divides resident population by land area. It does not indicate how evenly people are distributed within the country.

103. Which census used the slogan “Our Census, Our Future”?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (19 July, Shift 4) — 2023]

(A) 1981

(B) 2011

(D) 1991

Answer: (B) 2011

Explanation: The 2011 Census of India used the slogan “Our Census, Our Future.” Census results guide planning for public services and representation by describing age, sex, literacy, settlement and other attributes across the country.

102. Which was India’s most populous state according to Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (19 July, Shift 1) — 2023]

(A) Bihar

(B) West Bengal

(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh was the most populous state in Census 2011, with almost 200 million inhabitants. Maharashtra ranked second, followed by Bihar and West Bengal. The ranking concerns population totals, not population density or area.

101. Which two states had the largest populations under Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (20 July, Shift 1) — 2023]

(A) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra

(B) Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur

(D) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

Answer: (A) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra

Explanation: Census 2011 placed Uttar Pradesh first and Maharashtra second in total residents. Bihar ranked third. Pairwise questions test an understanding of absolute population counts rather than growth rates or concentrations per square kilometre.

100. Which census was the fifteenth national census of India?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (25 July, Shift 3) — 2023]

(A) 1991

(B) 2001

(D) 2011

Answer: (D) 2011

Explanation: Counting the initial all-India enumeration of 1872, the fifteenth national census was carried out in 2011. The first synchronous decennial census was in 1881. These historical milestones explain why different references discuss both 1872 and 1881.

99. Which group recorded exceptionally high population growth in 2001–2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (14 July, Shift 3) — 2023]

(A) Bihar, Rajasthan, Sikkim

(B) West Bengal, Meghalaya, Bihar

(D) Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar

Answer: (D) Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar

Explanation: Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Bihar registered relatively high decadal growth between 2001 and 2011. Decadal growth measures change over ten years, not the size of the population. State comparisons should use consistent census figures.

98. What was India’s population recorded by Census 2011?

[SSC CGL 2022 Tier-II (7 March 2023) — 2023]

(A) 1.4 billion

(B) 1.21 billion

(D) 1.11 billion

Answer: (B) 1.21 billion

Explanation: Census 2011 recorded about 1.21 billion Indians, an increase of roughly 181 million since 2001. A census count is a historical benchmark for policy and population projections, rather than a measurement of the current year.

97. According to the World Bank’s 2020–21 income classification, India belonged to which category?

[SSC MTS 2022 cycle (2 May, Shift 1) — 2023]

(A) Upper-middle-income economy

(B) Low-income economy

(D) High-income economy

Answer: (C) Lower-middle-income economy

Explanation: The World Bank classified India as a lower-middle-income economy using gross national income per capita thresholds. Such income categories are distinct from human-development rankings. The thresholds are adjusted periodically, so exam-year classifications should be interpreted historically.

96. Which environmental factors affect where people live: (I) climate, (II) soil, (III) terrain, (IV) water availability?

[SSC MTS (19 May, Shift 2) — 2023]

(A) II and IV only

(B) I, III and IV only

(D) I, II, III and IV

Answer: (D) I, II, III and IV

Explanation: All four conditions influence settlement. Climate affects comfort and farming, fertile soils favour cultivation, terrain determines accessibility, and reliable water supplies support households and industry. Economic opportunities and infrastructure further shape the distribution of population.

95. Which period is commonly called the population-explosion phase in India?

[SSC MTS (19 May, Shift 1) — 2023]

(A) 1951–1981

(B) After 1981

(D) 1921–1951

Answer: (A) 1951–1981

Explanation: India’s population grew quickly from 1951 to 1981 as death rates declined sharply while birth rates remained relatively high. Improvements in medicine and food supplies contributed to survival. Later decades saw a gradual reduction in population-growth rates.

94. Which age band was designated as the working-age population in the question?

[SSC MTS 2022 cycle (2 May, Shift 3) — 2023]

(A) 18–62 years

(B) 16–60 years

(D) 14–58 years

Answer: (C) 15–59 years

Explanation: The examination uses ages 15–59 as a conventional working-age group. Other demographic agencies may instead use 15–64. A larger working-age share may create a demographic dividend, but employment and skills determine its economic payoff.

93. How is population density expressed?

[SSC MTS 2022 cycle (12 May, Shift 1) — 2023]

(A) Rural inhabitants per unit area

(B) Literate persons per unit area

(D) People and animals per unit area

Answer: (C) All people per unit area

Explanation: Population density equals the total resident population divided by the geographic area, commonly stated as people per square kilometre. It permits comparisons across regions of different sizes, although it cannot show internal settlement patterns or differences in land quality.

92. During which decade did India’s population record negative decadal growth?

[SSC MTS 2022 cycle (4 May, Shift 3) — 2023]

(A) 1911–1921

(B) 1941–1951

(D) 1921–1931

Answer: (A) 1911–1921

Explanation: India’s census count fell during 1911–1921, influenced by severe mortality from epidemics, including influenza, and other crises. The year 1921 therefore became known as the Great Divide in Indian demographic history, preceding sustained population increase.

91. Which institution offers the Rapid Financing Instrument and the Rapid Credit Facility?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2022]

(A) Asian Development Bank

(B) International Monetary Fund

(D) World Bank

Answer: (B) International Monetary Fund

Explanation: Both facilities belong to the IMF. The Rapid Financing Instrument provides swift assistance for urgent balance-of-payments needs, while the Rapid Credit Facility offers concessional support to eligible low-income economies. They differ from long-term development project loans.

90. About India’s effective exchange rates, which are correct:
(1) a higher NEER means rupee appreciation;
(2) a higher REER improves export competitiveness;
(3) higher domestic relative inflation can widen the NEER–REER gap?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2022]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: NEER measures a trade-weighted nominal currency value; an increase signifies appreciation under the relevant index convention. REER adjusts for relative prices. An appreciating REER usually weakens price competitiveness, while inflation differences may widen the gap between the two indices.

89. Concerning foreign commercial borrowing, which are correct:
(1) tight US monetary policy can trigger capital flight;
(2) it may raise the servicing cost of foreign borrowings;
(3) domestic currency devaluation reduces exchange-rate risk?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2022]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Higher US interest rates can attract capital away from emerging economies. A weakening rupee raises the domestic-currency cost of unhedged foreign-currency debt. Devaluation therefore does not automatically reduce borrowing risk and can make repayments more expensive.

88. Which are correct about membership of India in
(1) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank,
(2) Missile Technology Control Regime and
(3) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2022]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: India belongs to the AIIB, an infrastructure-finance institution, as well as the MTCR export-control arrangement and the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. The three organisations have different mandates, illustrating the distinction between development finance, strategic trade controls and regional cooperation.

87. What is the official periodic counting of the population called?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (7 December, Shift 4) — 2022]

(A) Census

(B) Demographic index

(D) Registration record

Answer: (A) Census

Explanation: A census systematically enumerates a population at a specified reference time and gathers demographic and socioeconomic characteristics. It differs from sample surveys, which estimate population attributes, and vital registration systems, which record births and deaths continuously.

86. In which year was India’s first synchronous, complete decennial census conducted?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (1 December, Shift 3) — 2022]

(A) 1881

(B) 1872

(D) 1860

Answer: (A) 1881

Explanation: The 1872 enumeration was not simultaneous throughout India. The first regularly organised, synchronous census followed in 1881 and inaugurated the decennial pattern. Both dates appear in examination questions because they represent different census milestones.

85. In which year was the first population census attempted in India?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (13 December, Shift 3) — 2022]

(A) 1872

(B) 1860

(D) 1920

Answer: (A) 1872

Explanation: India’s earliest census enumeration began in 1872 under colonial administration. This was not a fully synchronous national count. The first complete, simultaneous decennial census was conducted in 1881, which is why both years feature in population-history questions.

84. Which state announced the caste-based population exercise called “Jaati Aadharit Ganana”?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (12 December, Shift 1) — 2022]

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Bihar

Answer: (D) Bihar

Explanation: Bihar announced a state-level caste-based enumeration to collect information on the social and economic composition of its population. Such a state survey is separate from the Union government’s decennial Census of India, which has its own legal and administrative framework.

83. What was India’s approximate decadal population growth rate between 2001 and 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (1 December, Shift 4) — 2022]

(A) 18.70%

(B) 15.70%

(D) 16.70%

Answer: (C) 17.70%

Explanation: India’s population rose from roughly 1.03 billion in 2001 to 1.21 billion in 2011. The resulting decadal growth rate was about 17.7 percent. Decadal growth should be distinguished from the much smaller annual rate.

82. What was the literacy rate of India according to Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (9 December, Shift 4) — 2022]

(A) 75.04%

(B) 74.04%

(D) 76.04%

Answer: (B) 74.04%

Explanation: Census 2011 placed the overall literacy rate at 74.04 percent, covering the population aged seven and above. The male literacy rate exceeded the female rate, though the gender literacy gap narrowed compared with the earlier census.

81. Which was the least populous Indian state according to Census 2011?

[SSC CGL Tier-I (2 December, Shift 4) — 2022]

(A) Nagaland

(B) Sikkim

(D) Goa

Answer: (B) Sikkim

Explanation: Sikkim had the smallest population among Indian states at the 2011 Census. Goa and Arunachal Pradesh had larger resident counts. Comparisons must distinguish the smallest total population from the lowest population density, which can produce a different answer.

[CGPSC 2021 Preliminary Paper I (held 13 February 2022) — 2022]

(A) I, II and III

(B) Only I

(D) Only III

Answer: (C) Only II

Explanation: The first population exercise began in 1872, not 1871. The 1881 census marked the beginning of a regular decennial series. The third statement’s cited figures do not correctly describe urban-population history, leaving only statement II valid.

79. What were Rajasthan’s urban and rural population shares, respectively, in Census 2011?

[RPSC School Lecturer, General Awareness and General Studies (15 October) — 2022]

(A) 24.9% and 75.1%

(B) 29.4% and 71.5%

(D) 29.2% and 70.1%

Answer: (A) 24.9% and 75.1%

Explanation: Rajasthan remained predominantly rural at the 2011 Census, with roughly three-quarters of residents in rural settlements and one-quarter in urban areas. State figures should not be confused with the all-India urban share, which was substantially higher.

78. Which institution offers the Extended Fund Facility to countries facing economic adjustment needs?

[CDS-II, General Knowledge (4 September) — 2022]

(A) International Fund for Agricultural Development

(B) International Monetary Fund

(D) United Nations Development Programme

Answer: (B) International Monetary Fund

Explanation: The IMF’s Extended Fund Facility supports countries experiencing medium-term balance-of-payments difficulties linked to structural weaknesses. It typically involves an extended policy adjustment programme. IFAD and IBRD are development lenders with different mandates and lending arrangements.

77. India is described as a young country because its median population age was approximately in which range?

[CDS-II, General Knowledge (4 September) — 2022]

(A) Below 25 years

(B) 25–30 years

(D) 35–40 years

Answer: (B) 25–30 years

Explanation: Median age divides the population into two equally numerous groups, one younger and one older. India’s median age during the reference period was around 28 years, illustrating its large younger population relative to many ageing economies.

76. Which outcome follows necessarily from devaluing a currency:
(1) improved export price competitiveness;
(2) higher external value of domestic currency;
(3) an improved trade balance?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2021]

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: Devaluation lowers the foreign-currency price of exports, improving potential price competitiveness. It does not increase the currency’s external value. Whether the trade balance improves depends on trade elasticities, timing and the cost of imported inputs.

75. Which of the following may be treated as FDI under specified conditions:
(1) foreign-currency convertible bonds,
(2) qualifying foreign institutional investment,
(3) global depository receipts,
(4) non-resident external deposits?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2021]

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 3 only

(D) 1 and 4

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Foreign equity ownership can arise through qualifying convertible instruments and depository receipts; portfolio holdings may become direct investment when relevant thresholds are crossed. Non-resident external bank deposits do not confer ownership or management interest in a business.

74. When was the World Bank founded?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (9 February, Shift 1) — 2021]

(A) Before World War I

(B) After World War II

(D) During World War II

Answer: (D) During World War II

Explanation: The IBRD, the original World Bank institution, was established through the 1944 Bretton Woods negotiations while World War II was still underway. It was designed principally for reconstruction and later expanded its development-lending mandate.

73. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is commonly known as what?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (4 March, Shift 2) — 2021]

(A) World Bank

(B) State Bank of India

(D) International Monetary Fund

Answer: (A) World Bank

Explanation: The IBRD is the original lending arm of the World Bank and is frequently referred to by that name. It is institutionally separate from the IMF. Today the wider World Bank Group also contains several other development-finance agencies.

72. In which year was the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development established?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (8 April, Shift 1) — 2021]

(A) 1946

(B) 1944

(D) 1945

Answer: (B) 1944

Explanation: The IBRD’s founding agreement originated at the Bretton Woods Conference in July 1944. Its initial task was financing post-war reconstruction and, subsequently, development. Establishment should be distinguished from the dates on which operations and lending formally began.

71. Which country among the following is not a member of the World Bank Group?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (10 February, Shift 2) — 2021]

(A) Canada

(B) China

(D) United States

Answer: (C) Cuba

Explanation: Cuba is not a World Bank Group member, unlike the other three listed countries. Membership and borrowing eligibility are separate questions. The institution’s development lending, grants and investment guarantees depend on the mandate of the particular World Bank Group agency.

70. When was the first population census taken in India?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (14 March, Shift 1) — 2021]

(A) 1882

(B) 1911

(D) 1872

Answer: (D) 1872

Explanation: The first population enumeration under colonial rule dates to 1872. The subsequent census in 1881 established the more consistent decennial sequence. Many competitive examinations distinguish the first attempted enumeration from the first synchronous census.

69. Which institution issued the world’s first blockchain-based bond known as bond-i?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (11 January, Shift 1) — 2021]

(A) Swiss National Bank

(B) World Bank

(D) State Bank of India

Answer: (B) World Bank

Explanation: The World Bank issued bond-i in 2018 using blockchain technology to manage elements of the bond lifecycle. The initiative demonstrated potential applications of distributed ledgers in capital markets. It was not issued by the Reserve Bank of India.

68. At which conference were the World Bank and International Monetary Fund created?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (7 March, Shift 1) — 2021]

(A) Atlantic Conference

(B) UN Conference on Trade and Employment

(D) Bretton Woods Conference

Answer: (D) Bretton Woods Conference

Explanation: Delegates from 44 Allied countries met at Bretton Woods in July 1944 to develop a new framework for international monetary cooperation. The conference produced the agreements establishing the IMF and the IBRD, later associated with the World Bank.

67. Which organisation deals principally with international trading rules?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (9 February, Shift 2) — 2021]

(A) International Monetary Fund

(B) World Health Organization

(D) World Trade Organization

Answer: (D) World Trade Organization

Explanation: The WTO administers multilateral agreements governing trade in goods, services and intellectual property. It also hosts negotiations and a dispute-settlement system. The IMF focuses on monetary stability, whereas the WHO and ILO have distinct health and labour mandates.

66. Which international institution is headquartered in Washington, DC?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (4 March, Shift 2) — 2021]

(A) European Central Bank

(B) OECD

(D) International Labour Organization

Answer: (C) International Monetary Fund

Explanation: The IMF is headquartered in Washington, DC, as is the World Bank Group. The OECD operates from Paris, the ILO from Geneva and the European Central Bank from Frankfurt. Headquarter questions require distinguishing organisations with different economic mandates.

65. Which two institutions are known as the Bretton Woods twins?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (22 February, Shift 1) — 2021]

(A) IMF and World Bank

(B) United Nations and World Bank

(D) IMF and United Nations

Answer: (A) IMF and World Bank

Explanation: The IMF and IBRD emerged from the Bretton Woods conference of 1944 and are known as the Bretton Woods twins. The former supports the international monetary system while the latter provides longer-term financing for reconstruction and development.

64. Which of the following is NOT a function of the International Monetary Fund?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (24 July, Shift 2) — 2021]

(A) Creating new business models to make member states wealthy

(B) Lending to countries facing payment difficulties

(D) Monitoring members’ economic policies

Answer: (A) Creating new business models to make member states wealthy

Explanation: The IMF promotes international monetary cooperation and provides crisis financing and policy surveillance. It is not a commercial enterprise incubator with a mandate to invent wealth-generating business models. Its activities are oriented toward macroeconomic and external financial stability.

63. Which headquarters pairing is incorrectly matched?

[RRB NTPC CBT-I (10 February, Shift 1) — 2021]

(A) Amnesty International—New York

(B) OPEC—Vienna

(D) WHO—Geneva

Answer: (A) Amnesty International—New York

Explanation: Amnesty International is headquartered in London, not New York. The remaining pairings are accurate: OPEC operates from Vienna, the IMF from Washington, DC, and the World Health Organization from Geneva. The IMF and OPEC have directly relevant economic roles.

62. Which state has the lowest population density among Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, West Bengal and Mizoram?

[UPPSC Prelims (24 October) — 2021]

(A) Himachal Pradesh

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Mizoram

Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest density among these states under Census 2011, reflecting its mountainous landscape and extensive forest cover. West Bengal is densely populated, while Himachal Pradesh and Mizoram also have lower densities than the national average.

61. Which state had the greatest population according to Census 2011?

[UPPSC Prelims (24 October) — 2021]

(A) Bihar

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh ranked first among Indian states in Census 2011, with nearly 200 million residents. Maharashtra came second and Bihar third. The distinction between absolute population and percentage population growth is essential for interpreting such rankings.

60. Which institution provided financing for a highway-improvement project in India?

[SSC CHSL 2020 cycle (19 April 2021) — 2021]

(A) International Monetary Fund

(B) Asian Development Bank

(D) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

Answer: (C) World Bank

Explanation: The cited highway infrastructure support came from the World Bank, whose lending supports physical and social development projects. The IMF normally provides balance-of-payments assistance rather than project-specific road financing. Multilateral lenders nevertheless have overlapping infrastructure mandates.

59. Which bank approved a 40-million-dollar loan to Northern Arc Capital?

[SSC CHSL 2020 cycle (4 August 2021) — 2021]

(A) Asian Development Bank

(B) International Monetary Fund

(D) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

Answer: (A) Asian Development Bank

Explanation: The Asian Development Bank approved financing to Northern Arc Capital, supporting access to credit for underserved borrowers. ADB loans may work through financial intermediaries as well as public institutions, illustrating how multilateral finance can reach smaller enterprises.

58. Who was appointed Executive Director at the World Bank in 2020 from India?

[SSC CHSL 2020 cycle (15 April 2021) — 2021]

(A) David Malpass

(B) Shaolin Yang

(D) Anshula Kant

Answer: (C) Rajesh Khullar

Explanation: Rajesh Khullar took up an Executive Director role at the World Bank in 2020, representing a constituency that includes India. Executive Directors sit on the institution’s governance boards. Anshula Kant held a different senior management role as Managing Director and CFO.

57. How many Indian states were covered by the World Bank-supported STARS education project?

[SSC CHSL 2020 cycle (6 August 2021) — 2021]

(A) Six

(B) Four

(D) Ten

Answer: (A) Six

Explanation: The Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States project initially covered six states. The World Bank-supported programme focused on school-education governance and learning outcomes, showing how international development finance can target public-service quality rather than industrial infrastructure.

56. In which year did the World Trade Organization come into existence?

[SSC MTS 2020 cycle (6 October 2021, Shift 3) — 2021]

(A) 2000

(B) 2005

(D) 1990

Explanation: The WTO began operating on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, succeeding the GATT trade system. Its framework covers goods, services and trade-related intellectual property, and it provides mechanisms for trade negotiations and dispute settlement.

55. What was West Bengal’s rank among Indian states by total population in Census 2011?

[WBCS Executive Preliminary Examination — 2020]

(A) Tenth

(B) Fourth

(D) Fifth

Answer: (B) Fourth

Explanation: West Bengal had the fourth-largest population among the states in Census 2011, after Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Bihar. Population rank differs from density rank, in which West Bengal also occupied a high position due to its relatively limited area.

54. Which was the latest population census of India completed by 2020?

[WBCS Executive Preliminary Examination — 2020]

(A) 1991

(B) 2001

(D) 2019

Explanation: The 2011 exercise was India’s latest completed decennial census at the time. The next count, scheduled for 2021, was postponed. A year appearing in census planning materials does not mean that a new enumeration was actually completed.

53. Which census year is known as the Great Divide in India’s demographic history?

[UPPSC RO/ARO (20 September) — 2020]

(A) 1901

(B) 1921

(D) 1941

Answer: (B) 1921

Explanation: The 1921 Census is known as the Great Divide because population growth had been irregular or stagnant in the preceding decades, while a more sustained upward trend followed. Changes in mortality and public health contributed to this transition.

52. What was Chhattisgarh’s decadal population growth rate during 2001–2011?

[CGPSC Civil Service Preliminary Examination — 2020]

(A) 45.3%

(B) 18.06%

(D) 4.53%

Answer: (C) 22.59%

Explanation: Census-based figures place Chhattisgarh’s decadal growth at roughly 22.6 percent during 2001–2011. That exceeded the corresponding national growth rate. The measure compares two census totals and should not be interpreted as an annual percentage growth rate.

51. Which option contains only G20 member economies?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2020]

(A) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

(B) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand

(D) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea

Answer: (A) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

Explanation: Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Türkiye are all members of the G20. The other combinations include countries outside the G20. The group convenes major economies to coordinate macroeconomic, financial and broader international policy discussions.

50. Regarding India’s international trade:
(1) merchandise exports were below imports;
(2) imports of steel, chemicals and machinery had recently fallen;
(3) services exports exceeded services imports;
(4) India had an overall current-account deficit.

Which are correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2020]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: India typically runs a merchandise trade deficit but earns a surplus on services exports. Import demand for industrial inputs had not uniformly declined, and the overall current account often remained in deficit. The current account includes services and income flows as well as goods.

49. Which World Bank Doing Business parameter saw India’s position deteriorate between 2014 and the 2019 ranking period?

[CDS General Knowledge (8 November) — 2020]

(A) Starting a business

(B) Getting electricity

(D) Paying taxes

Answer: (C) Registering property

Explanation: Although India’s overall Doing Business ranking improved during the referenced period, its position on registering property deteriorated. The now-discontinued World Bank index compared regulatory procedures across multiple business stages; movement in the overall rank can conceal weaker individual indicators.

[WBCS Executive Preliminary Examination — 2019]

(A) 0–5 years

(B) 6–15 years

(D) 65 years and above

Answer: (C) 16–64 years

Explanation: A demographic dividend may arise when the working-age share expands relative to dependent children and older people. Its benefits depend on education, productive jobs, health and participation, so a favourable age structure alone does not guarantee rapid economic growth.

47. What was West Bengal’s literacy rate according to Census 2011?

[WBCS Executive Preliminary Examination — 2019]

(A) 82.67%

(B) 74.04%

(D) 71.16%

Answer: (C) 76.26%

Explanation: Census 2011 placed West Bengal’s literacy rate at 76.26 percent, above the all-India figure of 74.04 percent. Literacy measures people aged seven and above who can read and write with understanding, not formal school attendance alone.

46. During which census decade did India’s sex ratio record its sharpest decline among those listed?

[MPPSC State Service Preliminary Examination — 2019]

(A) 1931–1941

(B) 1961–1971

(D) 2001–2011

Answer: (B) 1961–1971

Explanation: India’s sex ratio declined markedly over the decade 1961–1971. Sex ratio counts females per thousand males and can shift with migration, differential survival and enumeration patterns. Comparisons must be made between successive census years.

45. What were India’s rural and urban sex ratios, respectively, under Census 2011?

[RPSC Senior Teacher Grade II, Social Science (17 February) — 2019]

(A) 969 and 949

(B) 959 and 939

(D) 939 and 919

Answer: (C) 949 and 929

Explanation: The rural sex ratio was 949 females per thousand males, while the urban ratio was 929 in Census 2011. These ratios differed because demographic and migration patterns vary between rural and urban settlements. They should not be confused with child sex ratios.

44. Consider these statements about the AIIB:
(1) it has more than 80 member nations;
(2) India is its largest shareholder;
(3) it has no members outside Asia.

Which is correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2019]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: At the time of the examination, AIIB membership exceeded 80, but China rather than India was its largest shareholder. The bank also included members outside Asia. It finances sustainable infrastructure and regional connectivity projects.

43. Which lower currency-crisis risk for India:
(1) foreign-exchange earnings of IT services;
(2) increased government expenditure;
(3) remittances from overseas Indians?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2019]

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: IT exports and workers’ remittances create foreign-exchange inflows, improving the ability to finance imports and external liabilities. Higher public spending by itself need not strengthen the currency and could worsen macroeconomic imbalances if it expands the fiscal deficit.

42. Regarding India’s external debt:
(1) most is owed by government entities;
(2) all is denominated in US dollars.

Which is correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2019]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: India’s external debt includes obligations of private and public borrowers, and non-government entities account for a substantial proportion. Debt instruments are denominated in several currencies, including the US dollar, yen and euro, rather than exclusively in dollars.

41. Regarding purchasing power parity, which is correct:
(1) PPP compares prices of a comparable basket across economies;
(2) India ranked sixth worldwide by PPP-based GDP?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2019]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: PPP compares the cost of a similar basket of goods and services across countries, adjusting for differences in domestic price levels. India was not ranked sixth on PPP GDP in the relevant period; it was among the largest economies.

40. Which organisation releases the Global Competitiveness Report?

[SSC CHSL (4 March, Shift 3) — 2018]

(A) World Trade Organization

(B) World Economic Forum

(D) European Union

Answer: (B) World Economic Forum

Explanation: The World Economic Forum published the Global Competitiveness Report, ranking economies through productivity-related institutional and economic indicators. The WTO administers trade rules, while SAARC is a South Asian regional forum; neither is the publisher of this report.

39. In the conventional Indian public-finance context, deficit financing means obtaining funds from which institution?

[SSC CHSL (4 March, Shift 1) — 2018]

(A) International Monetary Fund

(B) Ministry of Finance

(D) World Trade Organization

Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation: Deficit financing traditionally referred to financing a government deficit through central-bank credit or creation of high-powered money. In modern fiscal accounting, government deficits can also be financed by market borrowing. The question uses the older textbook sense.

38. Which listed state had the highest Scheduled Tribe proportion in Census 2011?

[CGPSC Civil Service Preliminary Examination — 2018]

(A) Mizoram

(B) Gujarat

(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (A) Mizoram

Explanation: Mizoram had an extremely high Scheduled Tribe share of its population, far above Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh or Maharashtra. The highest percentage is not the same as the greatest absolute number of tribal residents, which favours larger states.

37. India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 chiefly to meet obligations under which international organisation?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2018]

(A) International Labour Organization

(B) International Monetary Fund

(D) World Trade Organization

Answer: (D) World Trade Organization

Explanation: Geographical indications protect place-linked product names and qualities. India’s 1999 legislation supported compliance with the WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights, or TRIPS, which obliges members to provide legal protection for geographical indications.

36. Before becoming RBI Governor in 2016, what position did Urjit Patel hold?

[NDA General Ability Test (23 April) — 2017]

(A) IMF Chief Economist

(B) RBI Deputy Governor

(D) Harvard economics professor

Answer: (B) RBI Deputy Governor

Explanation: Urjit Patel served as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India before assuming the governorship in September 2016. He had earlier worked with the IMF, but that did not make him the Fund’s Chief Economist immediately before appointment.

35. Approximately what proportion of India’s population was younger than 35 years?

[WBCS Executive Preliminary Examination — 2017]

(A) 50%

(B) 55%

(D) 65%

Answer: (D) 65%

Explanation: India has long had a comparatively young demographic profile, with nearly two-thirds of people below 35 in the period referenced by this question. Youthful age structure offers an opportunity for a demographic dividend when adequate schooling and employment exist.

34. Regarding the National IPR Policy:
(1) it reiterates commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and TRIPS;
(2) the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion was its nodal agency.

Which are correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2017]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The 2016 National Intellectual Property Rights Policy reaffirmed India’s international intellectual-property commitments and identified the then Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion as its nodal body. WTO-linked TRIPS rules frame protection of patents, trademarks, copyrights and other rights.

33. Which institution publishes the Ease of Doing Business Index?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2016]

(A) OECD

(B) World Economic Forum

(D) World Trade Organization

Answer: (C) World Bank

Explanation: The World Bank published the Doing Business rankings, which measured regulatory conditions affecting firms. The project was later discontinued, so the answer refers to the report as it existed in the 2016 examination year, not a current ongoing series.

32. Concerning the New Development Bank:
(1) it was established by APEC;
(2) its headquarters are in Shanghai.

Which is correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2016]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation: The BRICS economies founded the New Development Bank, not the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation forum. Its headquarters are in Shanghai. The bank finances infrastructure and sustainable-development activities, providing an additional source of multilateral capital for emerging economies.

31. What does the term “import cover” mean?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2016]

(A) Value of imports divided by GDP

(B) Annual value of imports

(D) Months of imports payable from official foreign-exchange reserves

Answer: (D) Months of imports payable from official foreign-exchange reserves

Explanation: Import cover measures how many months of a country’s imports could be funded by its available foreign-exchange reserves. It is calculated by dividing reserve assets by average monthly import expenditure and is a common indicator of external financial resilience.

30. The agricultural-support categories called amber box, blue box and green box are used in which negotiations?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2016]

(A) WTO affairs

(B) SAARC affairs

(D) India–EU free-trade talks

Answer: (A) WTO affairs

Explanation: The WTO Agreement on Agriculture groups domestic support measures by trade-distorting effects. Amber box support is generally subject to limits, blue box measures are tied to production-limiting conditions, and green box measures are minimally trade-distorting.

29. For the International Monetary and Financial Committee:
(1) it advises IMF work on global economic concerns;
(2) the World Bank participates as an observer.

Which is correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2016]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The IMFC is a ministerial-level body providing strategic advice to the IMF on the international monetary system. World Bank participation as an observer helps coordination between global macroeconomic surveillance and development-finance institutions.

28. The Agreement on Agriculture, Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures and Peace Clause are associated with which organisation?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2015]

(A) Food and Agriculture Organization

(B) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change

(D) UN Environment Programme

Answer: (C) World Trade Organization

Explanation: These agreements and provisions form part of international trade governance under the WTO. Agricultural trade rules address market access, domestic support and export competition, while sanitary and phytosanitary measures concern protections for human, animal and plant health.

27. Among Kerala, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand, which had the highest population density in Census 2011?

[WBCS Executive Preliminary Examination — 2015]

(A) Kerala

(B) West Bengal

(D) Jharkhand

Answer: (B) West Bengal

Explanation: West Bengal recorded a greater population density than the other listed states in Census 2011. Bihar, not offered among the choices, recorded the highest density among Indian states overall. Reading the qualifying phrase “among the following” is essential.

26. What is meant by convertibility of the Indian rupee?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2015]

(A) Converting rupee notes into gold

(B) A rupee value fixed only by the market

(D) Creation of an international money market in India

Answer: (C) Exchange of rupees for foreign currencies and back

Explanation: Currency convertibility concerns the freedom to exchange domestic and foreign currencies for permitted transactions. It differs from choosing a floating exchange-rate regime. India adopted current-account convertibility but maintained controls on several capital-account transactions.

25. The problem of international liquidity arises primarily from insufficient availability of what?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2015]

(A) Goods and services

(B) Gold and silver only

(D) Exportable goods

Answer: (C) Dollars and other hard currencies

Explanation: International liquidity refers to assets and currencies usable for settling international obligations. A shortage of widely accepted reserve currencies can impede import payments and debt servicing. Gold and IMF Special Drawing Rights can supplement liquidity but are not its sole modern basis.

24. Which institution publishes the World Economic Outlook report?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2014]

(A) International Monetary Fund

(B) United Nations Development Programme

(D) World Bank

Answer: (A) International Monetary Fund

Explanation: The IMF publishes its World Economic Outlook to assess world growth, inflation, risks and economic prospects. The World Bank publishes separate global-economic analyses, and the World Economic Forum focuses on collaboration and competitiveness rather than this IMF flagship report.

23. Which belong to the current account of the balance of payments:
(1) balance of trade,
(2) foreign assets,
(3) balance of invisibles,
(4) Special Drawing Rights?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2014]

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The current account covers goods, services, primary income and transfers. Merchandise balance and invisibles are therefore included. Cross-border ownership of foreign assets belongs to the financial account, while SDRs are international reserve assets.

22. Which of these enter India’s capital account:
(1) foreign loans,
(2) foreign direct investment,
(3) private remittances,
(4) portfolio investment?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2013]

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Foreign loans, direct investment and portfolio investment are financial-account transactions involving claims on assets or liabilities. Remittances received from individuals abroad normally belong to the current account as secondary income, not to capital or financial inflows.

21. Which set correctly identifies components of India’s official foreign-exchange reserves?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2013]

(A) Foreign-currency assets, SDRs and foreign loans

(B) Foreign-currency assets, RBI gold and SDRs

(D) Foreign-currency assets, RBI gold and World Bank loans

Answer: (B) Foreign-currency assets, RBI gold and SDRs

Explanation: Official foreign-exchange reserves consist of foreign-currency assets, monetary gold, IMF Special Drawing Rights and reserve position in the IMF. Loans from external institutions create liabilities; they are not themselves reserve assets held by the central bank.

20. What may count as foreign direct investment:
(1) a foreign company establishing a subsidiary;
(2) buying a majority stake in an existing Indian company;
(3) a wholly foreign-financed company;
(4) buying shares solely as portfolio investment?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2012]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: FDI involves a lasting foreign ownership interest and influence over an enterprise. Creating a subsidiary, acquiring control and establishing a foreign-funded company fit that concept. A purely passive portfolio purchase does not automatically constitute direct investment.

19. Spending by foreign visitors attending the Commonwealth Games in India is treated as which item in India’s balance of payments?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2011]

(A) Exports

(B) Imports

(D) Domestic consumption only

Answer: (A) Exports

Explanation: Foreign visitors’ purchases of accommodation, food and travel services in India represent exports of services, even though customers physically enter India. In balance-of-payments accounting, residency rather than the location of the buyer determines cross-border service treatment.

18. Which measures could help India reduce external-account pressure:
(1) devalue the rupee;
(2) cut export subsidies;
(3) attract FDI and portfolio investment?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2011]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: A weaker currency can improve export competitiveness, while foreign capital inflows ease external financing needs. Cutting export support does not normally promote exports. A current-account deficit and the capital needed to finance it must nevertheless be distinguished analytically.

17. Which statement about IMF lending is correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2011]

(A) It can lend to any country

(B) It lends only to developed countries

(D) It lends solely to member central banks

Answer: (C) It lends only to its member countries

Explanation: The IMF extends financial assistance through arrangements with member states facing eligible external-payment and macroeconomic needs. Its membership framework distinguishes IMF financing from private international credit. Low-income and advanced economies may both qualify for different facilities.

16. Which best distinguishes FDI from foreign institutional investment?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2011]

(A) Institutional portfolio investors transfer more management technology than direct investors

(B) Portfolio investment broadens market capital, while FDI commonly targets a lasting investment in specific enterprises

(D) Institutional portfolio investment is always more stable

Answer: (B) Portfolio investment broadens market capital, while FDI commonly targets a lasting investment in specific enterprises

Explanation: FDI generally entails a lasting ownership interest and potential managerial influence over a business. Foreign institutional portfolio investment primarily holds tradable securities, widening market funding but remaining more liquid and potentially more sensitive to changes in investor sentiment.

15. The International Development Association is administered jointly with which institution?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2010]

(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

(B) International Fund for Agricultural Development

(D) United Nations Industrial Development Organization

Answer: (A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

Explanation: IDA forms the concessional lending arm of the World Bank alongside IBRD. Both share staff and many operational processes, but IDA emphasises grants and favourable credits to poorer countries. IFAD is a separate rural-development institution.

14. Assertion: The balance of payments offers a fuller picture of external transactions than the balance of trade.

Reason: It includes visible and invisible transactions, whereas the balance of trade covers goods.

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2006]

(A) Both true, and the reason explains the assertion

(B) Both true, but the reason does not explain it

(D) Assertion false, reason true

Answer: (A) Both true, and the reason explains the assertion

Explanation: The balance of trade measures exports minus imports of merchandise. The balance of payments is a broader accounting statement, including services, income, transfers and financial movements. That wider scope directly explains why it better represents external economic relations.

13. Which are implied by full rupee convertibility:
(1) free exchange with foreign currencies;
(2) direct exchange at authorised places domestically or abroad;
(3) functioning like other fully convertible international currencies?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2002]

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Full convertibility means freedom to exchange the rupee across current and capital transactions, subject to the definition used in the historical question. The concept should be distinguished from a specific fixed or floating exchange-rate target and from actual global reserve-currency status.

12. Assertion: Foreign-exchange ceilings for several current-account transactions were relaxed in 2000.

Reason: India’s foreign-currency assets had fallen.

Which is correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2001]

(A) Both true, and the reason explains the assertion

(B) Both true, but the reason does not explain it

(D) Assertion false, reason true

Answer: (C) Assertion true, reason false

Explanation: The policy changes under foreign-exchange liberalisation eased limits on permitted current-account uses. The accompanying reason is false because India’s foreign-currency reserves were not falling in the way asserted. Liberalisation followed reform objectives rather than the alleged reserve decline.

11. In India, full convertibility of the rupee in the late 1990s applied to which account?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2000]

(A) Current account only

(B) Capital account only

(D) Gold account only

Answer: (A) Current account only

Explanation: India accepted current-account convertibility under IMF Article VIII in 1994, permitting ordinary international trade and payment transactions. Capital-account transactions remained subject to restrictions. Full capital-account convertibility requires a separate policy choice and is not implied by current-account openness.

10. In an open economy, which identity expresses GDP or national output in terms of consumption, investment, government spending, exports and imports?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2000]

(A) Y = C + I + G + X

(B) Y = I + G − X + M

(D) Y = C − G + I + (X − M)

Answer: (C) Y = C + I + G + (X − M)

Explanation: Domestic output equals expenditure on consumption, investment and government purchases plus exports minus imports. Imports are subtracted because they may be included in domestic expenditure but are produced abroad. Net exports capture the international-trade component.

9. Which port handled the highest tonnage of import cargo among the following at the time of the examination?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 2000]

(A) Calcutta

(B) Kandla

(D) Visakhapatnam

Answer: (C) Mumbai

Explanation: The historical examination key selected Mumbai for the import-cargo comparison. Port volumes change over time as crude-oil handling, container trade, infrastructure and competing harbours evolve. The answer must therefore be tied to the specified exam period.

8. Assertion: Currency devaluation can stimulate exports.

Reason: Devaluation lowers the foreign-currency price of domestically produced goods.

Choose the correct relationship.

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 1999]

(A) Both are true and the reason explains the assertion

(B) Both are true but the reason does not explain it

(D) Assertion false, reason true

Answer: (A) Both are true and the reason explains the assertion

Explanation: When the domestic currency is devalued, foreigners can generally buy domestic output for fewer units of their currency, improving price competitiveness. Increased export volumes are possible but depend on demand responsiveness and production capacity, so the relationship is not automatic.

7. Assertion: Information technology was becoming important to India.

Reason: Software exports were major and India also possessed a very strong computer-hardware production base.

Choose the correct option.

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 1999]

(A) Both true, reason explains

(B) Both true, reason does not explain

(D) Assertion false, reason true

Answer: (C) Assertion true, reason false

Explanation: India’s software and information-services exports expanded rapidly in the 1990s. The reason is incorrect because India lacked a comparably strong indigenous hardware-manufacturing base. Software capability and hardware production are different parts of the wider technology industry.

6. What does capital-account convertibility chiefly permit?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 1998]

(A) Converting domestic currency only for merchandise trade

(B) Exchange of notes for gold

(D) Payments only for tourism

Answer: (C) Trading financial assets freely across borders

Explanation: Capital-account convertibility allows cross-border acquisition and sale of financial assets with fewer currency-conversion restrictions. It differs from current-account convertibility for payments connected to goods, services and regular income. India has historically liberalised capital flows selectively.

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 1998]

(A) Africa

(B) America

(D) Europe

Answer: (C) Asia and Oceania

Explanation: Asian and Oceanian trading partners together supplied a large part of India’s imports during the period. Historical trade geography must be evaluated for the examination year rather than by using present-day import patterns or changing classifications.

4. What was the correct descending order of the rupee values of the US, Canadian, New Zealand and Hong Kong dollars at the time of the examination?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 1998]

(A) US, Canadian, New Zealand, Hong Kong

(B) US, New Zealand, Canadian, Hong Kong

(D) Hong Kong, US, New Zealand, Canadian

Answer: (A) US, Canadian, New Zealand, Hong Kong

Explanation: The historical exchange-rate ranking put the US dollar above the Canadian dollar, followed by the New Zealand dollar and Hong Kong dollar. Relative currency values fluctuate, so examination answers based on 1998 quotations should not be treated as timeless.

3. For the international value of a currency, which listed factors were accepted in the question:
(1) World Bank decisions,
(2) demand for the country’s output,
(3) governmental stability,
(4) economic potential?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 1998]

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The original examination key emphasised export demand and political stability as influences on currency value. The World Bank does not set ordinary market exchange rates. Many additional factors can affect currencies, but option B matches this particular historical question.

2. Assertion: Economic globalisation does not necessarily mean socialism disappears.

Reason: Socialist thought contains a belief in universalism.

Which is correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 1997]

(A) Both true, and the reason explains the assertion

(B) Both true, but the reason does not explain the assertion

(D) Assertion false, reason true

Answer: (B) Both true, but the reason does not explain the assertion

Explanation: Global economic integration concerns production, trade and financial links, while socialism is a political-economic philosophy addressing ownership and equality. Both ideas may coexist. The reason expresses a separate ideological feature rather than a direct causal explanation of the assertion.

1. Match the Indian export goods to their destination markets:

iron ore, leather goods, tea and cotton fabrics.

Which sequence matches Japan, Russia, UK and USA, respectively?

[UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I — 1997]

(A) Iron ore–Canada; leather–Russia; tea–USA; cotton–Japan

(B) Iron ore–Japan; leather–Russia; tea–UK; cotton–USA

(D) Iron ore–Japan; leather–UK; tea–Russia; cotton–USA

Answer: (B) Iron ore–Japan; leather–Russia; tea–UK; cotton–USA

Explanation: The historical matching key links iron ore with Japan, leather goods with Russia, tea with the United Kingdom, and cotton fabrics with the United States. Such trade-destination questions reflect the reference period rather than permanent export rankings.

200. Which international institution reclassified India’s exchange-rate arrangement to a crawl-like regime in 2025?

199. According to the IMF January 2026 World Economic Outlook, what rate of world economic growth was projected for 2027?

198. Which development bank signed five agreements with India in 2025, including support for PM Surya Ghar?

197. India was re-elected in 2025 to the Category B Council of which international body for 2026–27?

196. In which year did India join the World Trade Organization?

195. What is meant by globalisation?

194. Population density is the number of people per which measure?

193. Approximately how many people lived in India on 1 March 2001?

192. Which state had the highest number of children aged 0–6 in the Census 2011 provisional figures?

191. Which state has high population density partly because of early settlement and development?

190. Which Union Territory had the lowest population density in Census 2011?

189. Which measure describes total population relative to net cultivated land?

188. Which policy sought to replace foreign manufactured goods with domestic production after Independence?

187. Why did India offer tax incentives to foreign investors during the reform era?

186. What was a major liberalisation objective of India’s 1991 reforms?

185. What term describes the increasing integration of different national economies into the world economy?

184. The 2011 population Census of India was which numbered census since the first enumeration in 1872?

183. Which of these countries has the largest population?

182. Which Indian state had the second-largest population according to Census 2011?

181. The economic reforms introduced in India in 1991 are particularly associated with which three processes?

180. Which Indian sector expanded significantly through globalisation?

179. Which process involves assigning business activities to an outside enterprise and expanded with globalisation?

178. Which among these territories recorded the lowest sex ratio in Census 2011?

177. A city of 50,000 residents grows by 15% in year one and 20% in year two. What is its population after two years?

176. A city of 16,000 people grows by 25% each year. What will the population be after three years?

175. A population increases from 64,000 to 93,500 in one year. What is the percentage increase, to two decimals?

174. A city’s population rises from 70,000 to 71,435. What is the percentage increase?

173. A city has 80,000 residents. It grows 10%, falls 5% and grows another 20% in successive years. What is the final population?

172. A town’s population falls from 80,000 to 72,000. What percentage decrease occurred?

171. A town grows from 60,000 to 61,260 people. What was its percentage increase?

170. A village loses 28% of its population to water scarcity, and then half of those remaining move for work. What is the ratio of initial to final population?

169. After 40% of villagers leave and then 10% of the remainder leave, what is the ratio of initial to final population?

168. For IBRD, which statements are correct: (1) it lends to middle-income countries; (2) it works single-handedly against poverty; (3) it was created for post-war European reconstruction?

167. In which year did the World Trade Organization start functioning?

166. WTO rules (1) cover goods and services; (2) address tariff and non-tariff barriers; (3) have led India to ease quantitative import restrictions. Which are correct?

165. What is an important benefit of foreign direct investment to a developing economy?

164. What population did the National Commission on Population project for India in 2036?

163. Which international organisation promotes free trade and global trade cooperation?

162. How is India’s population distributed across regions?

161. What growth rate did the IMF April 2025 World Economic Outlook project for India in 2025?

160. Which organisation extended financial support during India’s 1991 foreign-exchange crisis?

159. Which global institution helped support India’s reforms during the balance-of-payments crisis of 1991?

158. Which institutions influenced industrial restructuring in India after the 1991 crisis?

157. Which international institution supported India’s liberalisation during the 1991 crisis?

156. Which state received a World Bank healthcare-upgrading loan of about ₹2,424 crore?

155. Which three bodies jointly organised a 2025 health, trade and intellectual-property briefing?

154. Which organisation publishes the report The State of the World’s Children?

153. According to Census 2011, what was the decadal population growth rate of Hindus in India?

152. According to Economic Survey 2022–23, what share of India’s population lived in rural areas in 2021?

151. Which of the following was NOT a feature of the Bretton Woods system?

150. In which year was the Directorate General of Foreign Trade established in India?

149. How many classes of cities are used in India’s census classification based on population size?

148. What was the total working population of Chhattisgarh as recorded in Census 2011?

147. What was India’s rank in the World Bank Human Capital Index 2020 as stated in the examination?

146. Which was NOT listed as a key good-governance dimension in the World Bank’s 1989 framework, according to the question?

145. A village loses 38% of its original residents and later half the remainder leave. What is the ratio of the starting to remaining population?

144. How much did global stock returns fall on average during major geopolitical risk events according to IMF April 2025 reporting?

143. What US growth rate for 2025 did the IMF forecast in April 2025?

142. According to the IMF January 2025 World Economic Outlook Update, what was the projected world growth rate for 2025?

141. What global headline inflation rate did the IMF project for 2025 in its January 2025 outlook?

140. What was a primary objective of liberalisation in India’s New Economic Policy of 1991?

139. What was the inward-looking trade strategy adopted in India’s early Five-Year Plans called?

138. In which year was the Services Exports from India Scheme launched?

137. What was the minimum plant-and-machinery investment requirement for an Export Oriented Unit in the cited scheme?

136. When did India launch the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme?

135. How many main processes change the size of a population?

134. Which of these is a natural component of population change: (I) births, (II) migration?

133. The Census of India is conducted under which Act?

132. Which influence population distribution: (I) topography, (II) climate?

131. How many people in developing economies received emergency social-protection responses during COVID-19, according to the World Bank’s 2025 report?

130. Which statement is correct: (1) India does not import apples from the USA; (2) importing GM food without competent approval is prohibited?

129. Which is correct about Venezuela: (1) it rapidly recovered and stopped emigration; (2) it has the world’s largest proven oil reserves?

128. Which set of Union Territories had the highest population densities in Census 2011?

127. What was India’s annual exponential population-growth rate according to Census 2011?

126. What were the gains in male and female literacy rates from Census 2001 to 2011, respectively?

125. What share of India’s total population was aged 10–19 in Census 2011?

124. Which group of Union Territories had the highest female-to-male sex ratios in Census 2011?

123. What was the difference between male and female literacy rates in Census 2011?

122. Which district had the largest population according to Census 2011?

121. How many people were listed in the Census 2011 Other Religions and Persuasions category?

168. For IBRD, which statements are correct:
(1) it lends to middle-income countries;
(2) it works single-handedly against poverty;
(3) it was created for post-war European reconstruction?

166. WTO rules
(1) cover goods and services;
(2) address tariff and non-tariff barriers;
(3) have led India to ease quantitative import restrictions.

Which are correct?

130. Which statement is correct:
(1) India does not import apples from the USA;
(2) importing GM food without competent approval is prohibited?

129. Which is correct about Venezuela:
(1) it rapidly recovered and stopped emigration;
(2) it has the world’s largest proven oil reserves?

110. Which assertion is correct:
(1) the EU and USA launched a Trade and Technology Council;
(2) its stated purpose was to control world technological progress?

108. Which assertion is correct:
(1) Switzerland is a leading exporter of gold by value;
(2) Switzerland holds the second-largest official gold reserve?

90. About India’s effective exchange rates, which are correct:
(1) a higher NEER means rupee appreciation;
(2) a higher REER improves export competitiveness;
(3) higher domestic relative inflation can widen the NEER–REER gap?

89. Concerning foreign commercial borrowing, which are correct:
(1) tight US monetary policy can trigger capital flight;
(2) it may raise the servicing cost of foreign borrowings;
(3) domestic currency devaluation reduces exchange-rate risk?

88. Which are correct about membership of India in
(1) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank,
(2) Missile Technology Control Regime and
(3) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation?

80. For the history of India’s census, which statement is correct:
(I) first all-India census began in 1871;
(II) decennial censuses became regular from 1881;
(III) urban share rose from 10% to 18% between 1900 and 1940?

76. Which outcome follows necessarily from devaluing a currency:
(1) improved export price competitiveness;
(2) higher external value of domestic currency;
(3) an improved trade balance?

75. Which of the following may be treated as FDI under specified conditions:
(1) foreign-currency convertible bonds,
(2) qualifying foreign institutional investment,
(3) global depository receipts,
(4) non-resident external deposits?