Energy Resources of India

Q150. Which energy resource is exhaustible and causes substantial pollution?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 19 June 2026]

(A) Wind energy

(B) Coal

(C) Solar energy

(D) Biogas

Answer: B. Coal

Explanation: Coal forms from ancient vegetation over geological periods, making it non-renewable on human timescales. Burning it releases carbon dioxide, particulate matter and other pollutants. Wind, sunlight and sustainably produced biogas can be replenished much more rapidly.

Q149. Which renewable source has the highest installed electricity-generation capacity in India?

[UGC NET, 2 January 2026]

(A) Solar power

(B) Nuclear power

(C) Wind power

(D) Geothermal power

Answer: A. Solar power

Explanation: Solar power became the largest individual renewable-energy capacity segment in India. Photovoltaic installations expanded through solar parks, rooftop systems and government programmes. Nuclear energy is generally grouped with non-fossil sources, but it is not renewable.

Q148. Match wind, solar, hydro and coal-based thermal power with Gujarat–Tamil Nadu coast, western Rajasthan, Western Ghats–Himalayas and Damodar Valley, respectively.

[UPHESC Assistant Professor (Geography), 19 April 2026]

(A) Wind–Ghats; Solar–Damodar; Hydro–Coast; Coal–Rajasthan

(B) Wind–Rajasthan; Solar–Coast; Hydro–Damodar; Coal–Ghats

(C) Wind–Damodar; Solar–Ghats; Hydro–Rajasthan; Coal–Coast

(D) Wind–Coast; Solar–Rajasthan; Hydro–Ghats/Himalayas; Coal–Damodar

Answer: D. Wind–Coast; Solar–Rajasthan; Hydro–Ghats/Himalayas; Coal–Damodar

Explanation: Coastal Gujarat and Tamil Nadu have favourable wind regimes, while western Rajasthan receives intense sunshine. Mountain gradients support hydropower in Himalayan and Western Ghats catchments. The Damodar basin contains major coalfields supplying thermal power stations.

Q147. Which state has India’s largest reserves of lignite?

[DSSSB MTS, 27 April 2026]

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Gujarat

(C) Telangana

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: D. Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Tamil Nadu contains the celebrated Neyveli lignite deposit. Lignite is a low-rank brown coal with more moisture than bituminous coal. Rajasthan and Gujarat also hold sizeable deposits, but Tamil Nadu remains the principal reserve state in this comparison.

Q146. Which mission announced by India aims to intensify offshore hydrocarbon exploration?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 18 June 2026]

(A) Blue Energy Mission

(B) National Deepwater Exploration Mission

(C) Offshore Energy Security Mission

(D) Strategic Hydrocarbon Mission

Answer: B. National Deepwater Exploration Mission

Explanation: The National Deepwater Exploration Mission concerns identifying petroleum and natural-gas prospects beneath deep offshore waters. Such exploration can improve knowledge of sedimentary basins and domestic resource potential. It is distinct from solar or wind-power development programmes.

Q145. Which source continues to account for the largest portion of India’s electricity generation?

[DSSSB MTS, 25 February 2026]

(A) Wind

(B) Coal

(C) Nuclear fuel

(D) Ethanol

Answer: B. Coal

Explanation: Coal-fired power stations supply a dominant portion of India’s generated electricity. Generation share differs from installed-capacity share: solar and wind capacity has grown quickly, but their actual output varies with weather and daylight conditions.

Q144. Which Himachal Pradesh valley is associated with geothermal-energy potential?

[DSSSB Primary Teacher, 3 April 2026]

(A) Kangra

(B) Spiti

(C) Solang

(D) Parvati

Answer: D. Parvati

Explanation: The Parvati Valley includes the Manikaran hot-spring area, where geothermal resources have long been investigated. Underground heat warms circulating water. This resource differs from hydropower, which exploits flowing water rather than heat originating beneath Earth’s surface.

Q143. What is a principal use of liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)?

[SSC GD Constable, 18 May 2026]

(A) Making medicinal ointments

(B) Fuelling heavy railway engines

(C) Surfacing highways

(D) Fuel for domestic cooking and industries

Answer: D. Fuel for domestic cooking and industries

Explanation: LPG mainly contains propane and butane. Stored under pressure, it can be transported in cylinders and used for household cooking and various industrial heating needs. Its controlled combustion is generally cleaner than burning raw coal or firewood.

Q142. Which geological group accounts for the overwhelming majority of India’s coal resources?

[OSSC CGL Mains, 8 July 2026]

(A) Tertiary coalfields

(B) Jurassic coalfields

(C) Gondwana coalfields

(D) Carboniferous coalfields

Answer: C. Gondwana coalfields

Explanation: Gondwana coalfields dominate Indian coal reserves and production. Significant deposits occur in the Damodar, Mahanadi, Son and Godavari basins. Younger Tertiary coal is concentrated especially in northeastern India and represents a smaller proportion of resources.

Q141. Which group consists of important wind-energy states in India?

[OSSC CGL Mains, 8 July 2026]

(A) Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan

(B) Bihar, Assam and Tripura

(C) Punjab, Haryana and Bihar

(D) Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim

Answer: A. Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan

Explanation: Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Rajasthan possess wind installations or substantial wind potential. Wind turbines need suitable speeds and open corridors. Coastal belts, uplands and selected arid landscapes are generally more favourable than densely sheltered inland terrain.

Q140. Which listed resource is non-renewable?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 7 May 2026]

(A) Petroleum

(B) Sunlight

(C) Biomass

(D) Wind

Answer: A. Petroleum

Explanation: Petroleum originates from organic matter transformed under sedimentary pressure and heat over millions of years. Extracted reserves are finite. Sunlight and wind are naturally recurring flows, while biomass is renewable when it is harvested and replenished sustainably.

Q139. Under India’s Mission Coking Coal, what domestic coking-coal output target was set for 2029–30?

[SSC MTS, 11 February 2026]

(A) 100 million tonnes

(B) 140 million tonnes

(C) 180 million tonnes

(D) 200 million tonnes

Answer: B. 140 million tonnes

Explanation: Mission Coking Coal is intended to increase domestic availability of this steelmaking input and lower dependence on imports. Coking coal has properties allowing it to form metallurgical coke, unlike much thermal coal used directly for generating electricity.

Q138. A photo-capacitor designed for solar applications primarily stores energy obtained from what source?

[DSSSB MTS, 25 July 2026]

(A) Sound

(B) Chemical fuels

(C) Nuclear reactions

(D) Sunlight

Answer: D. Sunlight

Explanation: A photo-capacitor combines light harvesting with charge storage. Incoming solar radiation is converted into electrical energy and held temporarily for later use. It is related to photovoltaic storage technology rather than energy generated from combustion or atomic reactions.

Q137. As of March 2026, which state led India in installed wind-power capacity?

[DSSSB MTS, 27 July 2026]

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Gujarat

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: C. Gujarat

Explanation: Gujarat has expanded wind installations through onshore projects and large renewable-energy investments. Its coastal exposure and suitable wind corridors make it attractive for turbines. Rankings are date-specific and should not be confused with wind-potential estimates.

Q136. Whose pioneering radiation measurements provided important foundations for mapping India’s solar potential?

[RRB Group D, 18 August 2026]

(A) NASA satellite collection alone

(B) Anna Mani’s solar-radiation measurements

(C) Routine government weather forecasts alone

(D) University climate models alone

Answer: B. Anna Mani’s solar-radiation measurements

Explanation: Physicist and meteorologist Anna Mani helped establish solar-radiation measurement practices in India. Reliable insolation observations reveal where sunlight is strongest and help engineers estimate photovoltaic output, select locations and design renewable-energy projects.

Q135. Which international organisation promotes the ‘Towards 1000’ goals for solar energy?

[SSC GD Constable, 7 May 2026]

(A) World Trade Organization

(B) International Court of Justice

(C) International Solar Alliance

(D) SAARC

Answer: C. International Solar Alliance

Explanation: The International Solar Alliance coordinates efforts to accelerate solar investment, technology adoption and energy access. India and France played founding roles. Its targets concern large-scale finance, solar deployment and improved access to cleaner electricity.

Q134. Which of the following is recognised as India’s largest solar park by installed capacity in the cited exam?

[RRB NTPC Graduate, 17 March 2026]

(A) Bhadla Solar Park

(B) Rewa Solar Park

(C) Pavagada Solar Park

(D) Kurnool Solar Park

Answer: A. Bhadla Solar Park

Explanation: Bhadla Solar Park is in Rajasthan’s arid northwest, where large land parcels and strong sunshine favour photovoltaic generation. Projects such as Rewa, Pavagada and Kurnool are also important, but Bhadla has been cited as the largest.

Q133. Which pair names Odisha coalfields operated within the Mahanadi Coalfields region?

[OSSSC Forester, 3 May 2026]

(A) Talcher and Ib Valley

(B) Raniganj and Jharia

(C) Talcher and Korba

(D) Singrauli and Wardha

Answer: A. Talcher and Ib Valley

Explanation: Talcher and Ib Valley are major coal-producing regions in Odisha served by Mahanadi Coalfields Limited. Raniganj and Jharia lie in the Damodar basin farther north, while Korba and Singrauli belong to different coal-mining areas.

Q132. In which state is the Bhadla Solar Park located?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 9 May 2026]

(A) Gujarat

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Maharashtra

Answer: C. Rajasthan

Explanation: Bhadla is situated in Rajasthan, close to the Thar Desert. Clear skies, high solar irradiance and extensive relatively open land favour utility-scale solar plants. The electricity is evacuated through grid infrastructure to consumers beyond the park.

Q131. In which year was the Coal Mines Authority established during India’s coal-sector restructuring?

[SSC MTS, 10 February 2026]

(A) 1969

(B) 1971

(C) 1973

(D) 1977

Answer: C. 1973

Explanation: Coal Mines Authority Limited was established in 1973 during the nationalisation and reorganisation of non-coking coal operations. The wider process unfolded in stages, and Coal India Limited was subsequently formed in 1975 to coordinate coal production.

Q130. The Tehri hydropower project is located on which river?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 12 June 2026]

(A) Alaknanda

(B) Kosi

(C) Bhagirathi

(D) Kali

Answer: C. Bhagirathi

Explanation: Tehri Dam stands on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand. Stored water supplies hydroelectric generation and supports additional water-management functions. The Bhagirathi eventually meets the Alaknanda at Devprayag, where the combined river is called the Ganga.

Q129. Which location in Himachal Pradesh is associated with geothermal-energy studies?

[MP Police Sub-Inspector, 18 January 2026]

(A) Sundarbans

(B) Manikaran

(C) Rann of Kutch

(D) Pune plateau

Answer: B. Manikaran

Explanation: Manikaran, in the Parvati Valley, is famous for hot springs and geothermal investigations. These springs reflect underground heat and the movement of groundwater through fractures. They do not indicate a conventional coal-fired or nuclear-energy resource.

Q128. Which coal company is associated with the Talcher coalfields?

[SECL Assistant Foreman, 2 July 2026]

(A) Eastern Coalfields Limited

(B) Western Coalfields Limited

(C) Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

(D) Bharat Coking Coal Limited

Answer: C. Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

Explanation: Mahanadi Coalfields Limited operates major coal mines in Odisha, including the Talcher region. It is a subsidiary of Coal India Limited. The other firms have principal operating regions elsewhere, particularly in eastern and central India.

Q127. Which was India’s third nuclear-power generating station after Tarapur and Rajasthan?

[DSSSB MTS, 19 April 2026]

(A) Tarapur

(B) Kakrapar

(C) Narora

(D) Kalpakkam

Answer: D. Kalpakkam

Explanation: Madras Atomic Power Station at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu followed Tarapur and Rajasthan in India’s nuclear-power development. It uses pressurised heavy-water reactors. Kakrapar and Narora began commercial operations later than the early Kalpakkam units.

Q126. Which technology received a ₹20,000 crore allocation in the Union Budget 2026–27?

[DSSSB MTS, 27 July 2026]

(A) Carbon capture, utilisation and storage

(B) PM Surya Ghar alone

(C) National Biofuel Mission

(D) National Green Hydrogen Mission alone

Answer: A. Carbon capture, utilisation and storage

Explanation: Carbon capture, utilisation and storage seeks to trap carbon dioxide from industrial processes, use some of it or store it securely. The budgetary allocation discussed in the exam concerns decarbonising hard-to-abate industries rather than household rooftop solar alone.

Q125. Which statement about India’s E20 fuel programme is incorrect?

[UGC NET Geography, 3 January 2026]

(A) E20 contains 20% ethanol

(B) Ethanol may be made from renewable feedstocks

(C) The programme can support agricultural supply chains

(D) E20 necessarily makes emissions 65% higher

Answer: D. E20 necessarily makes emissions 65% higher

Explanation: E20 denotes petrol blended with approximately twenty percent ethanol. Ethanol can be produced from agricultural feedstocks. Environmental outcomes depend on production and use, so a blanket assertion that emissions are inevitably 65 percent higher is not justified.

Q124. Which country was identified as the world’s fourth-largest biofuel consumer in 2024?

[DSSSB MTS, 8 May 2026]

(A) United States

(B) India

(C) Brazil

(D) Indonesia

Answer: B. India

Explanation: India has increased ethanol blending and other biofuel programmes. The cited ranking places it fourth in biofuel consumption during 2024. Rankings reflect measured volumes for a particular year and should not be confused with biofuel production or export rankings.

Q123. Which important offshore oilfield lies roughly 160 km from Mumbai?

[MP Police Sub-Inspector, 17 January 2026]

(A) Cauvery Basin

(B) Mumbai High

(C) Ankleshwar

(D) Naharkatiya

Answer: B. Mumbai High

Explanation: Mumbai High is a major offshore petroleum field on the continental shelf of the Arabian Sea, west of Mumbai. Ankleshwar is in Gujarat, while Naharkatiya is an onshore Assam field. Offshore production requires platforms and pipelines.

Q122. The Singhbhum region associated with uranium mining lies in which state?

[MP Police Sub-Inspector, 19 January 2026]

(A) Himachal Pradesh

(B) Odisha

(C) Gujarat

(D) Jharkhand

Answer: D. Jharkhand

Explanation: The Singhbhum belt in Jharkhand contains important uranium deposits. Uranium is used as fuel in nuclear power after processing. India’s nuclear mineral geography also includes beach-sand monazite, which is associated with thorium resources.

Q121. Which option lists only Indian nuclear power station locations?

[MP Police Sub-Inspector, 20 January 2026]

(A) Tarapur, Rawatbhata, Kalpakkam, Narora, Kaiga, Kakrapar

(B) Tarapur, Talcher, Bokaro, Korba, Kaiga, Kakrapar

(C) Bhakra, Tehri, Tarapur, Singrauli, Kaiga, Kakrapar

(D) Raniganj, Jharia, Narora, Talcher, Korba, Kalpakkam

Answer: A. Tarapur, Rawatbhata, Kalpakkam, Narora, Kaiga, Kakrapar

Explanation: Tarapur, Rawatbhata, Kalpakkam, Narora, Kaiga and Kakrapar host nuclear electricity stations. Talcher, Bokaro, Singrauli and Korba are associated mainly with coal-based generation, while Bhakra and Tehri are hydropower projects.

Q120. Which measure best improves the flexibility of a power system undergoing an energy transition?

[SSC CGL, 13 September 2025]

(A) Expand fossil-fuel subsidies

(B) Rely entirely on central coal plants

(C) Modernise and digitalise grids with storage

(D) Increase crude-oil imports

Answer: C. Modernise and digitalise grids with storage

Explanation: Flexible grids can balance variations in solar and wind output by using forecasting, demand response, storage and modern transmission controls. More fossil-fuel dependence by itself does not provide the broad technological capabilities needed for a changing generation mix.

Q119. Which state is India’s leading lignite producer among these?

[SSC Stenographer, 7 August 2025]

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Gujarat

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: D. Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is a major centre of lignite extraction and lignite-based power generation. Brown coal has comparatively high moisture and lower energy density. Rajasthan and Gujarat also produce lignite, but Tamil Nadu leads this comparison.

Q118. Which variety accounts for most of India’s coal deposits?

[SSC CHSL, 30 November 2025]

(A) Anthracite

(B) Bituminous

(C) Peat

(D) Lignite

Answer: B. Bituminous

Explanation: Most Indian Gondwana deposits are broadly bituminous in rank. Anthracite is the highest coal rank but relatively scarce, while lignite is younger and lower in calorific value. The dominance of bituminous coal shapes thermal electricity and industrial fuel supply.

Q117. The Talcher thermal power station is located in which state?

[SSC CGL, 21 September 2025]

(A) Jharkhand

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Odisha

Answer: D. Odisha

Explanation: Talcher is an important coalfield and electricity-generation area in Odisha. Local coal availability encourages mine-linked thermal stations by reducing fuel-transport needs. It belongs to the Mahanadi coal-bearing region rather than the Damodar basin.

Q116. Coalfields of the northeastern peninsular plateau are concentrated in which river valley?

[SSC CGL, 13 September 2025]

(A) Tapti

(B) Ganga

(C) Brahmaputra

(D) Damodar

Answer: D. Damodar

Explanation: The Damodar Valley crosses Jharkhand and West Bengal and contains celebrated coalfields such as Jharia and Raniganj. These deposits supported India’s early industrial growth, steelmaking and coal-fired electricity generation in the eastern mineral belt.

Q115. Which is a major advantage of photovoltaic solar panels?

[SSC Selection Post, 29 August 2025]

(A) They operate only on diesel

(B) They need no incoming energy

(C) They generate electricity directly from sunlight

(D) They create new fossil fuels

Answer: C. They generate electricity directly from sunlight

Explanation: Photovoltaic cells turn incident sunlight into electric current through semiconductor effects. They do not require burning coal or petroleum during operation. However, generation varies with irradiation, making grid integration and storage relevant in large installations.

Q114. What was India’s rank in the 2025 Energy Transition Index cited in the examination?

[SSC CHSL, 22 November 2025]

(A) 45th

(B) 63rd

(C) 71st

(D) 90th

Answer: C. 71st

Explanation: The Energy Transition Index compares countries using energy-system performance and readiness indicators. India’s stated ranking in the edition referenced by this exam was 71st. Such rankings are specific to the report year and change with methodology and performance.

Q113. Which renewable source had the greatest installed capacity in India by the referenced period?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 3 September 2025]

(A) Solar

(B) Hydro

(C) Wind

(D) Geothermal

Answer: A. Solar

Explanation: Utility-scale parks and rooftop programmes have driven solar installed capacity upward. Solar and wind both contribute to the clean-energy transition, but the installed capacity figure represents equipment rating rather than electricity actually generated over a year.

Q112. Researchers at JNCASR reported fast charging using which battery chemistry?

[SSC CHSL, 25 November 2025]

(A) Potassium-ion

(B) Lithium-ion

(C) Sodium-ion

(D) Graphene-only

Answer: C. Sodium-ion

Explanation: Sodium-ion technology stores charge through reversible movement of sodium ions between electrodes. It is being investigated as an alternative to some lithium-based applications. Fast-charging research addresses energy-storage requirements arising with variable renewable-power supply.

Q111. Which ministry introduced the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024?

[SSC GD Constable, 7 February 2025]

(A) New and Renewable Energy

(B) Coal

(C) Civil Aviation

(D) Petroleum and Natural Gas

Answer: D. Petroleum and Natural Gas

Explanation: The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas oversees India’s upstream oil and gas sector. The Oilfields legislation concerns the regulation and development of petroleum resources, which are distinct from coal mining and electricity distribution functions.

Q110. Which former Union Territory district was publicised as fully solar powered?

[SSC CHSL, 12 November 2025]

(A) Diu

(B) Puducherry

(C) Mahe

(D) Karaikal

Answer: A. Diu

Explanation: Diu became noted for meeting its electricity requirements through solar installations, including local photovoltaic generation. Its example highlights how distributed and grid-connected solar projects can transform supply in a geographically compact coastal district.

Q109. Consider two statements: petroleum reserves occur in Assam sedimentary basins, and major offshore fields occur in the Arabian Sea. Which is correct?

[SSC CHSL, 28 November 2025]

(A) Only the first

(B) Only the second

(C) Both

(D) Neither

Answer: C. Both

Explanation: Assam contains some of India’s earliest onshore petroleum-producing areas, including Digboi and Naharkatiya. The Arabian Sea continental shelf hosts Mumbai High. India’s petroleum deposits therefore occur in both onshore sedimentary basins and offshore geological settings.

Q108. Which country jointly initiated the International Solar Alliance with India?

[SSC CHSL, 18 November 2025]

(A) United States

(B) Brazil

(C) France

(D) Italy

Answer: C. France

Explanation: India and France launched the International Solar Alliance to encourage solar-energy cooperation. The initiative supports financing, knowledge-sharing and deployment among interested member countries. Its secretariat is based near Gurugram in Haryana.

Q107. Which figure was cited for India’s cumulative installed solar capacity in July 2025?

[SSC CHSL, 22 November 2025]

(A) 50 GW

(B) 67.75 GW

(C) 119.02 GW

(D) 175 GW

Answer: C. 119.02 GW

Explanation: Installed solar capacity reflects the sum of rated output from commissioned solar assets, including ground-mounted, rooftop and other systems. The examination quoted 119.02 gigawatts for July 2025; it should not be read as annual electrical production.

Q106. Which statement is correct? I. Ankleshwar and Kalol are in Maharashtra. II. Petroleum occurs in Krishna–Godavari and Cauvery basins.

[SSC CGL, 25 September 2025]

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Both I and II

(D) Neither I nor II

Answer: B. Only II

Explanation: Ankleshwar and Kalol oilfields are in Gujarat, not Maharashtra. The Krishna–Godavari and Cauvery sedimentary basins contain hydrocarbon prospects and producing areas. India’s oil and gas geography spans both western and eastern basins.

Q105. Which resource is non-renewable?

[SSC Selection Post, 2 August 2025]

(A) Coal

(B) Wind

(C) Tidal energy

(D) Solar radiation

Answer: A. Coal

Explanation: Coal accumulates through slow geological transformation of buried vegetation. Once mined and burned, a coal deposit cannot be replaced within a human lifetime. Wind, tidal movement and sunlight are recurring natural flows used to generate power.

Q104. Which fuel is commonly supplied in cylinders for household cooking?

[SSC CHSL, 20 November 2025]

(A) Argon

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Oxygen

(D) Liquefied petroleum gas

Answer: D. Liquefied petroleum gas

Explanation: LPG is typically a mixture dominated by propane and butane. It is liquefied under moderate pressure for economical storage and cylinder distribution. Domestic cooking is a major use, although pipeline natural gas is another option in connected areas.

Q103. Biofuel made from non-edible agricultural residue belongs to which generation?

[SSC CGL, 18 September 2025]

(A) First generation

(B) Second generation

(C) Third generation

(D) Fourth generation

Answer: B. Second generation

Explanation: Second-generation biofuels use lignocellulosic feedstocks such as straw, stalks and other crop residues rather than primarily edible food crops. This can reduce direct competition with food uses and help manage agricultural waste if production is sustainable.

Q102. What percentage of ethanol is targeted in E20 blended petrol?

[SSC CHSL, 28 November 2025]

(A) 20%

(B) 40%

(C) 60%

(D) 50%

Answer: A. 20%

Explanation: E20 means petrol containing roughly one-fifth ethanol by volume. Ethanol is an oxygenated fuel commonly made from sugar- or starch-containing agricultural feedstocks. Blending aims to reduce some petrol demand, though lifecycle effects depend on sourcing.

Q101. Which nuclear generating station is situated in Maharashtra?

[RPF Constable, 6 March 2025]

(A) Kaiga

(B) Tarapur

(C) Rawatbhata

(D) Kakrapar

Answer: B. Tarapur

Explanation: Tarapur Atomic Power Station is on the Maharashtra coast. Kaiga is in Karnataka, Rawatbhata in Rajasthan and Kakrapar in Gujarat. Knowing station–state pairs helps distinguish nuclear centres from nearby hydroelectric and thermal-power complexes.

Q100. The Sardar Sarovar multipurpose dam is built on which river?

[RPF Constable, 7 March 2025]

(A) Tapi

(B) Mahi

(C) Narmada

(D) Godavari

Answer: C. Narmada

Explanation: Sardar Sarovar is a major project on the Narmada in Gujarat. It supports irrigation, water supply and hydroelectric generation. Its power and water benefits reach multiple regions, illustrating the integrated role of multipurpose river-valley projects.

Q99. Which alcohol is blended with petrol under India’s fuel-blending programme?

[MP Police Constable, 12 November 2025]

(A) Methanol only

(B) Ethanol

(C) Ethylene glycol

(D) Butanol only

Answer: B. Ethanol

Explanation: Ethanol is the alcohol widely used in India’s petrol-blending programme. It can be produced from suitable sugarcane, grain and other feedstocks. Blending creates an additional market for biomass-derived fuel while partially replacing conventional petrol components.

Q98. Which refinery has the greatest capacity among Barauni, Mathura, Trombay and Koyali in the cited comparison?

[BPSC 70th Combined Competitive Re-examination, 4 January 2025]

(A) Barauni

(B) Mathura

(C) Trombay

(D) Koyali

Answer: D. Koyali

Explanation: Koyali, also known as Gujarat Refinery, is a large petroleum refinery near Vadodara. The question compares the listed facilities, not all refineries in India. Refining transforms crude oil into petrol, diesel, LPG and numerous petrochemical inputs.

Q97. Which sequence best represents increasing coal rank through coalification?

[RRB JE CBT-II, 22 April 2025]

(A) Peat → lignite → bituminous → anthracite

(B) Anthracite → peat → lignite → bituminous

(C) Bituminous → anthracite → peat → lignite

(D) Lignite → peat → anthracite → bituminous

Answer: A. Peat → lignite → bituminous → anthracite

Explanation: Coalification progressively increases carbon concentration and usually energy density as buried organic matter experiences heat and pressure. Peat is an early precursor, followed by lignite and bituminous coal, with anthracite representing a high rank.

Q96. Which of these was NTPC’s first thermal power project?

[UPSSSC Stenographer, 16 November 2025]

(A) Singrauli

(B) Harduaganj

(C) Tanda

(D) Rihand

Answer: A. Singrauli

Explanation: Singrauli Super Thermal Power Station in Uttar Pradesh was NTPC’s first coal-based project. NTPC later developed large stations throughout the country. The location belongs to the Singrauli coal-power region of north-central India.

Q95. Which fuel is commonly called brown coal?

[RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 13 August 2025]

(A) Lignite

(B) Mica

(C) Copper

(D) Bauxite

Answer: A. Lignite

Explanation: Lignite is a brown, low-rank coal with relatively high moisture and lower heating value than many bituminous grades. India’s important lignite occurrences include Neyveli in Tamil Nadu, alongside deposits in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Q94. In which early coalification material are plant remains often still recognisable?

[BPSC District Statistical Officer, 3 August 2025]

(A) Peat

(B) Bituminous coal

(C) Anthracite

(D) Coke

Answer: A. Peat

Explanation: Peat accumulates from partly decomposed vegetation, often in waterlogged conditions, and can retain visible plant structures. Burial and geological alteration over long periods create progressively higher coal ranks, including lignite, bituminous coal and anthracite.

Q93. Which of these is a non-conventional energy source?

[UPSC NDA-I General Ability Test, 13 April 2025]

(A) Petroleum

(B) Natural gas

(C) Tidal energy

(D) Coal

Answer: C. Tidal energy

Explanation: Tidal electricity captures periodic water movement associated with the Moon’s and Sun’s gravitational forces. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are conventional fossil fuels. Tidal technology is renewable although suitable coastal sites are geographically limited.

Q92. Which of the following is NOT a major oilfield in Gujarat?

[UPSC NDA-I General Ability Test, 13 April 2025]

(A) Ankleshwar

(B) Kosamba

(C) Mehsana

(D) Moran

Answer: D. Moran

Explanation: Moran is a petroleum-producing location in the Upper Assam Basin, not Gujarat. Ankleshwar, Kosamba and Mehsana are associated with Gujarat’s oil industry. Oilfields follow the distribution of suitable sedimentary rocks rather than state boundaries.

Q91. Salal Hydroelectric Project stands on which river?

[UPSC CDS-I General Knowledge, 13 April 2025]

(A) Chenab

(B) Jhelum

(C) Nubra

(D) Shyok

Answer: A. Chenab

Explanation: The Salal power station is built on the Chenab in Jammu and Kashmir. Its turbines exploit river flow and hydraulic head. Jhelum and Shyok are separate rivers and do not host this named hydropower project.

Q90. Which pair identifies well-known coalfields of India’s Damodar basin?

[SSC Selection Post, 26 June 2024]

(A) Jharia and Raniganj

(B) Digboi and Naharkatiya

(C) Ankleshwar and Kalol

(D) Neyveli and Bhadla

Answer: A. Jharia and Raniganj

Explanation: Jharia in Jharkhand and Raniganj in West Bengal are major coalfields of the Damodar Valley. The other pairs refer mainly to petroleum, lignite or solar-energy locations. Coal availability helped establish industry across eastern India.

Q89. What is the common name for biogas produced largely from cattle dung?

[Bihar D.El.Ed, 5 April 2024]

(A) Water gas

(B) Producer gas

(C) Gobar gas

(D) Coal gas

Answer: C. Gobar gas

Explanation: Gobar gas is biogas generated by anaerobic digestion of animal dung and other organic wastes. Methane is its principal combustible constituent, accompanied by carbon dioxide. Small plants can provide cooking fuel and leave nutrient-rich digested slurry.

Q88. Which gas generally has the highest proportion in usable biogas?

[UPSC CAPF, 4 August 2024]

(A) Methane

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Oxygen

Answer: A. Methane

Explanation: Methane provides most of biogas’s heating value. Carbon dioxide is usually the next major component, while other gases occur in smaller quantities. Anaerobic microorganisms break down organic material to produce this combustible mixture.

Q87. Why is biogas considered a useful fuel?

[Bihar Teacher TRE, 21 July 2024]

(A) It contains only oxygen

(B) It contains combustible methane

(C) It is made entirely of nitrogen

(D) It contains no carbon compounds

Answer: B. It contains combustible methane

Explanation: Biogas is useful because methane burns and releases heat. Digesters convert biodegradable wastes into a gas mixture without oxygen exposure. The residue can be used as manure, linking renewable energy production with rural waste management.

Q86. Which microorganisms are chiefly responsible for biological methane formation?

[Bihar Teacher TRE, 22 July 2024]

(A) Cyanobacteria

(B) Methanogenic archaea

(C) Algae

(D) Protozoa

Answer: B. Methanogenic archaea

Explanation: Methanogenic archaea generate methane during the final stages of anaerobic digestion. They function in oxygen-free environments such as biogas digesters and waterlogged sediments. Their metabolism underpins important rural biogas-energy systems.

Q85. Which is a non-renewable energy source?

[IOCL Junior Engineer, 29 September 2024]

(A) Wind energy

(B) Natural gas

(C) Timber from sustainably grown trees

(D) Solar energy

Answer: B. Natural gas

Explanation: Natural gas is a fossil fuel extracted from geological reservoirs. Its molecules, mainly methane, accumulated over immense periods, so used reserves cannot readily regenerate. Wind and sunlight are renewable energy flows rather than mined fuels.

Q84. Match India’s tidal, wind and geothermal energy sites: Gulf of Khambhat, Nagercoil and Puga, respectively.

[SSC CHSL, 2 July 2024]

(A) Tidal–Khambhat; wind–Nagercoil; geothermal–Puga

(B) Tidal–Puga; wind–Khambhat; geothermal–Nagercoil

(C) Tidal–Nagercoil; wind–Puga; geothermal–Khambhat

(D) Tidal–Khambhat; wind–Puga; geothermal–Nagercoil

Answer: A. Tidal–Khambhat; wind–Nagercoil; geothermal–Puga

Explanation: The Gulf of Khambhat has tidal-energy potential, Nagercoil in southern Tamil Nadu is associated with strong winds, and the Puga Valley in Ladakh has geothermal manifestations. These locations represent three different renewable-energy mechanisms.

Q83. Which nuclear process operates in conventional electricity-producing reactors?

[PGCIL Diploma Trainee, 8 February 2024]

(A) Nuclear fusion

(B) Nuclear fission

(C) Photosynthesis

(D) Geothermal convection

Answer: B. Nuclear fission

Explanation: Commercial nuclear power stations usually generate heat by controlled fission of heavy atomic nuclei. The heat produces steam to drive turbines. Nuclear fusion is the process powering stars and remains technically different from routine power-reactor operation.

Q82. Which state was highlighted as a leading Indian wind-energy producer in this examination?

[WBCS Mains (2023 cycle), 18 August 2024]

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Gujarat

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Rajasthan

Answer: A. Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Tamil Nadu became an early centre of Indian wind-power development, notably around Muppandal. The ranking in a historical question depends on whether it measures generation, capacity or potential and on the specific reference year.

Q81. What is the approximate daily solar-energy reception per square metre across much of India?

[OSSSC Forester, 4 May 2024]

(A) 4–7 kWh

(B) 0.1–0.4 kWh

(C) 15–20 kWh

(D) 30–40 kWh

Answer: A. 4–7 kWh

Explanation: India receives substantial solar irradiation, often expressed as kilowatt-hours per square metre per day. The broadly quoted range of four to seven reflects regional and seasonal variation. Such measurements help estimate the output of photovoltaic installations.

Q80. Approximately what share of India’s installed power capacity was solar in February 2024, as asked in the paper?

[MPPGCL Junior Engineer, 1 June 2024]

(A) 5.4%

(B) 10.4%

(C) 25.4%

(D) 17.4%

Answer: D. 17.4%

Explanation: Solar’s proportion of installed electricity capacity had increased rapidly by early 2024. The exam cited approximately 17.4 percent. Capacity share should not be confused with generation share because sunlight-dependent plants do not run at full rating throughout the day.

Q79. Which set includes non-conventional energy resources?

[Bihar Teacher TRE, 21 July 2024]

(A) Coal, petrol and diesel

(B) Coal and firewood only

(C) Solar, wind and geothermal

(D) Petroleum and natural gas

Answer: C. Solar, wind and geothermal

Explanation: Solar, wind and geothermal energy are commonly grouped as non-conventional or newer renewable sources in geography texts. Coal and petroleum are fossil resources. Sustainable energy planning often combines diverse sources to reduce dependence on any single fuel.

Q78. Which of the following plant–type associations are correct: Tehri–hydro, Kakrapar–nuclear, Narora–nuclear?

[IB ACIO, 17 January 2024]

(A) Only Tehri

(B) All three

(C) Only Kakrapar

(D) Only Narora

Answer: B. All three

Explanation: Tehri generates hydropower on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand. Kakrapar in Gujarat and Narora in Uttar Pradesh are nuclear-energy stations. Distinguishing plant locations and generation technology is a recurring theme of Indian energy geography.

Q77. Arrange the events chronologically:
discovery of Raniganj coal,
National Coal Development Corporation,
coal nationalisation
and formation of Coal India.

[UPPSC RO/ARO, 11 February 2024]

(A) Raniganj → Coal Development Corporation → nationalisation → Coal India

(B) Coal India → Raniganj → nationalisation → Coal Development Corporation

(C) Nationalisation → Raniganj → Coal India → Coal Development Corporation

(D) Coal Development Corporation → Coal India → Raniganj → nationalisation

Answer: A. Raniganj → Coal Development Corporation → nationalisation → Coal India

Explanation: Raniganj coal mining dates to the colonial period. The National Coal Development Corporation was formed in 1956, mines were nationalised in stages during the 1970s, and Coal India Limited was incorporated in 1975.

Q76. Which location is NOT a hydropower-generating project?

[SSC MTS, 28 October 2024]

(A) Bhakra

(B) Damodar Valley projects

(C) Sambhar Lake

(D) Kopili

Answer: C. Sambhar Lake

Explanation: Sambhar is a saline lake in Rajasthan, famed for salt production rather than a major hydropower plant. Bhakra and Kopili are associated with hydroelectric development, while the Damodar Valley incorporates multipurpose power and water projects.

Q75. The Salal project on the Chenab River primarily generates which type of electricity?

[SSC MTS, 14 October 2024]

(A) Hydroelectricity

(B) Nuclear electricity

(C) Tidal electricity

(D) Solar electricity

Answer: A. Hydroelectricity

Explanation: Salal Hydroelectric Project is situated on the Chenab in Jammu and Kashmir. Water flowing through turbines produces power. Chenab’s steep Himalayan terrain offers favourable gradients for hydroelectric schemes despite difficult construction and environmental conditions.

Q74. India’s younger Tertiary coal deposits are found particularly in which region?

[WBCS Mains (2023 cycle), 18 August 2024]

(A) Western Deccan

(B) Tamil Nadu coast only

(C) Northeastern India, including Assam

(D) Rann of Kutch alone

Answer: C. Northeastern India, including Assam

Explanation: Tertiary-age coal deposits occur prominently in northeastern states such as Assam, Meghalaya and Nagaland. They differ in age and often in quality from the dominant older Gondwana coal seams of peninsular river basins.

Q73. Which two states are particularly rich in coal deposits?

[SSC CHSL, 9 July 2024]

(A) Punjab and Haryana

(B) Kerala and Goa

(C) Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh

(D) Sikkim and Tripura

Answer: C. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh

Explanation: Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh lie within important Gondwana coal-bearing regions. Coal deposits underpin steel, cement and thermal electricity industries. Major coalfields in eastern and central India often align with ancient sedimentary basins.

Q72. What form of ocean energy uses periodic sea-level rise and fall to generate electricity?

[Bihar Teacher TRE, 19 July 2024]

(A) Ocean-current power

(B) Wave power

(C) Tidal power

(D) Ocean thermal power

Answer: C. Tidal power

Explanation: Tidal power harnesses changes in sea level and water movement caused mainly by gravitational interactions involving the Moon and Sun. It differs from wave energy, which derives from wind acting across the water surface.

Q71. What is the ultimate principal source for energy captured by ordinary solar panels?

[SSC MTS, 13 November 2024]

(A) Coal seams

(B) Uranium ores

(C) Geothermal heat

(D) Sunlight

Answer: D. Sunlight

Explanation: Solar panels intercept radiation from the Sun and convert part of it into electrical energy. The technology operates without direct fossil-fuel combustion. Its output varies by time of day, season, atmospheric conditions and panel orientation.

Q70. Which refinery-location pairing is incorrect?

[SSC CHSL, 11 July 2024]

(A) Barauni–Bihar

(B) Tatipaka–Telangana

(C) Koyali–Gujarat

(D) Mathura–Uttar Pradesh

Answer: B. Tatipaka–Telangana

Explanation: Tatipaka is a refinery in Andhra Pradesh, not Telangana. Barauni is in Bihar, Koyali in Gujarat and Mathura in Uttar Pradesh. Correct location matching illustrates the distribution of petroleum refining infrastructure across India.

Q69. Jharia and Raniganj are famous for which resource?

[SSC MTS, 4 November 2024]

(A) Iron ore

(B) Coal

(C) Bauxite

(D) Natural gas

Answer: B. Coal

Explanation: Jharia and Raniganj are historic coalfields in the Damodar basin. Their development encouraged industrial clustering in Jharkhand and West Bengal. Jharia is also noted for underground coal fires, a serious mining and environmental challenge.

Q68. The Damodar Valley is best known for substantial deposits of which coal rank?

[SSC MTS, 14 November 2024]

(A) Anthracite

(B) Lignite

(C) Bituminous

(D) Peat

Answer: C. Bituminous

Explanation: The Damodar basin contains major Gondwana bituminous-coal deposits, including coking-coal resources essential for steelmaking. Anthracite is less common in India, while lignite is notably produced around Neyveli and selected western basins.

Q67. Rat-hole mining in India is chiefly associated with extraction of what?

[SSC MTS, 11 November 2024]

(A) Uranium

(B) Copper

(C) Limestone

(D) Coal

Answer: D. Coal

Explanation: Rat-hole mining involves narrow underground passages through which workers extract coal, especially from thin seams. It has attracted attention because of safety hazards, environmental damage and regulatory controversies, notably in parts of northeastern India.

Q66. Which river valley is NOT known for India’s major Gondwana coalfields?

[SSC MTS, 15 October 2024]

(A) Mahanadi

(B) Sutlej

(C) Godavari

(D) Son

Answer: B. Sutlej

Explanation: The Mahanadi, Godavari and Son valleys include significant Gondwana coal-bearing formations. The Sutlej is a Himalayan river associated with hydropower projects rather than a principal peninsular Gondwana coal basin.

Q65. Which statement about India’s coal sector is correct: major reserves in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh; India is a major world coal producer?

[UPPSC RO/ARO, 11 February 2024]

(A) Both statements

(B) Only the first

(C) Only the second

(D) Neither

Answer: A. Both statements

Explanation: Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh hold substantial coal resources within the Gondwana geological system. India is also among the world’s largest coal-producing countries. Resource endowment supports domestic power generation, though quality and transport affect supply.

Q64. Rewa Solar Park is located in which Indian state?

[SSC MTS, 4 November 2024]

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Gujarat

(D) Karnataka

Answer: A. Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Park is located in Madhya Pradesh. Its development demonstrated large-scale grid-connected photovoltaic generation and electricity contracting. The project differs from Rajasthan’s Bhadla and Karnataka’s Pavagada solar parks.

Q63. The gradual geological conversion of plant remains into coal is called what?

[SSC MTS, 17 October 2024]

(A) Carbonisation or coalification

(B) Crystallisation

(C) Volcanism

(D) Sublimation

Answer: A. Carbonisation or coalification

Explanation: Buried plant material gradually transforms into coal through pressure, temperature and chemical change. This process increases the carbon content of the material over geological time. It explains why coal deposits are finite energy resources.

Q62. The UDAY scheme was launched primarily to improve which sector?

[SSC CHSL, 4 July 2024]

(A) Railway freight

(B) Crop irrigation

(C) Oil exploration

(D) Electricity distribution utilities

Answer: D. Electricity distribution utilities

Explanation: Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana was designed to improve the finances and operating efficiency of power distribution companies. Such utilities buy electricity and deliver it to consumers. Better distribution performance is important even when additional generating capacity exists.

Q61. Match hydroelectric stations Doyang, Gomuti, Kopili and Ranganadi with the states Nagaland, Tripura, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.

[UPSC NDA-II General Ability Test, 1 September 2024]

(A) Doyang–Nagaland; Gomuti–Tripura; Kopili–Assam; Ranganadi–Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Doyang–Nagaland; Gomuti–Assam; Kopili–Tripura; Ranganadi–Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Doyang–Arunachal Pradesh; Gomuti–Assam; Kopili–Tripura; Ranganadi–Nagaland

(D) Doyang–Arunachal Pradesh; Gomuti–Tripura; Kopili–Assam; Ranganadi–Nagaland

Answer: A. Doyang–Nagaland; Gomuti–Tripura; Kopili–Assam; Ranganadi–Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Doyang in Nagaland, Gomuti in Tripura, Kopili in Assam and Ranganadi in Arunachal Pradesh are hydroelectric stations of northeastern India. Steep relief and substantial river flows provide important regional opportunities for electricity generation.

Q60. India’s prominent floating solar-power project at Omkareshwar is located in which state?

[MP Forest Guard, 16 June 2023]

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Gujarat

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Odisha

Answer: A. Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: The Omkareshwar project uses a water-reservoir surface in Madhya Pradesh for floating photovoltaic arrays. Floating panels can reduce pressure on land resources, but require careful engineering for anchoring, water-level changes and maintenance.

Q59. Which substance is NOT a by-product derived from coal processing?

[MP Police Constable, 12 September 2023]

(A) Coke

(B) Petroleum

(C) Coal tar

(D) Coal gas

Answer: B. Petroleum

Explanation: Coke, coal tar and coal gas can be obtained when coal is heated in the absence of air. Petroleum is a separate naturally occurring fossil resource extracted from sedimentary reservoirs rather than manufactured by processing coal.

Q58. Which gas gives biogas its principal heating value?

[SSC CHSL, 2 August 2023]

(A) Oxygen

(B) Methane

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Hydrogen chloride

Answer: B. Methane

Explanation: Methane is the combustible component responsible for most useful energy in biogas. Anaerobic digestion of manure and organic wastes produces methane with carbon dioxide. Removing impurities can upgrade the gas for wider fuel applications.

Q57. The 750 MW Rewa solar park occupies approximately how much land, as cited in the exam?

[MPPGCL Junior Engineer, 28 April 2023]

(A) 850 hectares

(B) 1,120 hectares

(C) 1,590 hectares

(D) 2,800 hectares

Answer: C. 1,590 hectares

Explanation: The Rewa Ultra Mega Solar project in Madhya Pradesh was developed as a large photovoltaic complex. Its land requirement reflects the space needed for numerous panels, service roads and grid equipment. Capacity is expressed in megawatts.

Q56. Which product group traditionally contributes heavily to India’s import bill among these?

[WBCS Executive Prelims, 2023]

(A) Cotton textiles

(B) Tea and coffee

(C) Jute products

(D) Petroleum, oil and lubricants

Answer: D. Petroleum, oil and lubricants

Explanation: India imports large amounts of crude petroleum to satisfy transport, industrial and chemical feedstock demand. Consequently, petroleum, oil and lubricant products contribute significantly to import expenditure, unlike traditional export-oriented items such as tea or textiles.

Q55. India’s earlier target of 175 GW renewable-energy capacity was set for which year?

[MP Police Constable, 3 September 2023]

(A) 2020

(B) 2022

(C) 2025

(D) 2030

Answer: B. 2022

Explanation: India announced an earlier renewable-power capacity target of 175 gigawatts for 2022. The target covered major solar and wind additions as well as other renewables. It should be distinguished from later national non-fossil targets.

Q54. Which of the following is a naturally occurring fossil fuel?

[MP Forest Guard, 11 June 2023]

(A) Hydrogen produced by electrolysis

(B) Biogas from dung

(C) Charcoal

(D) Petroleum

Answer: D. Petroleum

Explanation: Petroleum is a naturally occurring hydrocarbon mixture found underground. Charcoal is manufactured from wood, biogas is produced by microorganisms and electrolytic hydrogen is generated using electricity. These substances differ in origin and renewability.

Q53. Which enterprise was associated with an early cross-country crude-oil pipeline in India?

[SSC Stenographer, 13 October 2023]

(A) SAIL

(B) BHEL

(C) NHPC

(D) Oil India Limited

Answer: D. Oil India Limited

Explanation: Oil India Limited developed important petroleum transportation infrastructure linked to northeastern crude production and refineries. Pipelines provide continuous movement of liquid fuels across long distances, reducing reliance on road transport for large volumes.

Q52. Which fossil resource formed largely from ancient marine organisms?

[MP Police Constable, 16 August 2023]

(A) Petroleum

(B) Granite

(C) Limestone building stone

(D) Quartz

Answer: A. Petroleum

Explanation: Much petroleum formed from buried aquatic microorganisms whose organic material was altered by heat and pressure. Oil and gas migrate through permeable strata and can accumulate below impermeable cap rocks within sedimentary basins.

Q51. Which resource is often called liquid gold because of its economic importance?

[SSC Junior Engineer, 9 October 2023]

(A) Petroleum

(B) Coal

(C) Iron ore

(D) Natural uranium

Answer: A. Petroleum

Explanation: Petroleum is an energy-dense liquid resource essential for transport fuels and petrochemicals. Its extraction, pricing and international trade have major economic consequences. It is a finite resource, so energy diversification remains important.

Q50. Which waste is commonly used in a household biogas digester?

[MP Forest Guard, 12 June 2023]

(A) Plastic bottles

(B) Broken glass

(C) Cattle dung

(D) Metal filings

Answer: C. Cattle dung

Explanation: Cattle dung contains biodegradable matter and microorganisms suitable for anaerobic digestion. In a sealed digester it produces methane-rich gas for cooking or heating. The digested slurry can return nutrients to agricultural fields.

Q49. What is the chief combustible gas in biogas?

[UPSC CAPF, 2023]

(A) Methane

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Oxygen

Answer: A. Methane

Explanation: Anaerobic digestion produces a methane-rich gaseous fuel from wet organic residues. Methane burns to release energy, whereas carbon dioxide contributes little heating value. Biogas offers a practical link between rural waste management and renewable fuels.

Q48. Which turbine feature strongly influences the energy captured by a wind turbine?

[NHPC/THDC Junior Engineer, 23 July 2023]

(A) Colour of the tower

(B) Blade length or swept area

(C) Paint thickness

(D) Nameplate lettering

Answer: B. Blade length or swept area

Explanation: Longer blades generally sweep a larger area, allowing a turbine to intercept more moving air. Actual output also depends on wind speed, machine design and operating limits. Wind-power potential is therefore highly site-dependent.

Q47. What was Madhya Pradesh’s rank in gross coal production in the data referred to by this exam?

[MPPSC State Services (2022 cycle), 21 May 2023]

(A) Second

(B) Third

(C) Fourth

(D) Fifth

Answer: C. Fourth

Explanation: The paper used a particular reporting period in which Madhya Pradesh was fourth by gross coal output. Such rankings change over time. The state has significant coalfields around Singrauli, Sohagpur and Satpura-basin districts.

Q46. In which year was Bihar State Hydroelectric Power Corporation established?

[Bihar STET, 18 September 2023]

(A) 1975

(B) 1979

(C) 1982

(D) 1995

Answer: C. 1982

Explanation: Bihar State Hydroelectric Power Corporation was established in 1982 to develop hydroelectric resources and associated infrastructure. Small and medium hydel projects can supplement other electricity sources, depending on river flow and feasible head.

Q45. Which conventional fuel has long provided the largest part of India’s power supply?

[SSC CHSL, 14 August 2023]

(A) Petroleum

(B) Natural gas

(C) Coal

(D) Firewood

Answer: C. Coal

Explanation: Coal has historically supplied most of India’s grid electricity generation. Large coal-fired stations operate near mining regions and demand centres. The installed mix is changing with solar and wind growth, but coal remained predominant in the examined period.

Q44. Which state has the notable Neyveli lignite deposits?

[SSC CHSL, 7 August 2023]

(A) Gujarat

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Odisha

Answer: C. Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is a major lignite-mining and lignite-fired generation centre. Brown coal contains relatively high moisture and lower carbon concentration. Its local use in nearby stations limits the cost of carrying low-grade fuel long distances.

Q43. The Neyveli coalfield is especially associated with which mineral fuel?

[SSC CGL, 21 July 2023]

(A) Anthracite

(B) Coking bituminous coal

(C) Petroleum

(D) Lignite

Answer: D. Lignite

Explanation: Neyveli is one of India’s best-known lignite resources. Lignite is also called brown coal and lies below bituminous coal in rank. Mining supports thermal electricity and industrial fuel uses in the Tamil Nadu region.

Q42. The floating solar-power plant at Ramagundam is located in which state?

[SSC MTS, 6 September 2023]

(A) Odisha

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Telangana

(D) Karnataka

Answer: C. Telangana

Explanation: NTPC’s Ramagundam floating solar installation occupies a reservoir surface in Telangana. Floating photovoltaic arrays can generate power without acquiring equivalent dry land. Their design must accommodate water movement and local environmental conditions.

Q41. Kapurdi lignite mines are situated in which Rajasthan district?

[Rajasthan CET, 5 February 2023]

(A) Bikaner

(B) Barmer

(C) Jaisalmer

(D) Nagaur

Answer: B. Barmer

Explanation: Kapurdi is associated with Barmer’s lignite-bearing deposits and power development in western Rajasthan. Lignite is a comparatively young, moisture-rich coal. Local mining and generation can support electricity supply without shipping fuel from distant coalfields.

Q40. Which low-grade coal variety is notably found in Rajasthan?

[Rajasthan CET, 11 February 2023]

(A) Anthracite

(B) Metallurgical coke

(C) Lignite

(D) Peat only

Answer: C. Lignite

Explanation: Rajasthan has significant lignite resources in western districts such as Barmer and Bikaner. Lignite’s lower energy density encourages development of mines and power stations close together. The state also possesses exceptional solar-energy potential.

Q39. How does coal generally develop from buried vegetation over geological time?

[MP Police Constable, 12 September 2023]

(A) Rapid cooling of magma

(B) Evaporation of seawater

(C) Crystallisation of sandstone

(D) Prolonged heat and pressure on organic material

Answer: D. Prolonged heat and pressure on organic material

Explanation: Coal formation begins with accumulated plant matter and proceeds through burial, pressure and temperature changes. Increasing coal rank generally raises carbon concentration. Because the process takes geological timescales, coal is classed as a non-renewable resource.

Q38. The Kawas gas-based power station is located in which state?

[SSC MTS (2022 cycle), 4 May 2023]

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Haryana

Answer: A. Gujarat

Explanation: Kawas is an NTPC gas-based generating station in Gujarat. Gas-fired turbines are different from coal boiler units and can complement other electricity supplies. Identifying plant states helps map the geography of India’s thermal-power network.

Q37. Which unit is commonly used to measure electrical energy consumed?

[SSC MTS (2022 cycle), 3 May 2023]

(A) Kilovolt

(B) Ampere

(C) Kilowatt-hour

(D) Ohm

Answer: C. Kilowatt-hour

Explanation: The kilowatt-hour measures energy, not instantaneous power. One kilowatt used for one hour equals one kilowatt-hour. Electricity bills and generation statistics routinely use this unit, while watts and kilowatts specify the rate of energy use.

Q36. Which application does NOT normally rely on a solar-cell power supply in the cited comparison?

[SSC CGL, 18 July 2023]

(A) Satellites

(B) Rural lighting

(C) Conventional lift motors in a building

(D) Solar calculators

Answer: C. Conventional lift motors in a building

Explanation: Solar cells power small devices, remote systems and satellites by converting light to electricity. Conventional building lifts usually draw substantial electricity from the grid. The distinction concerns typical applications rather than an absolute technical impossibility.

Q35. Who is widely called the father of India’s nuclear programme?

[SSC CHSL (2022 cycle), 9 March 2023]

(A) Homi J. Bhabha

(B) Vikram Sarabhai

(C) Meghnad Saha

(D) C. V. Raman

Answer: A. Homi J. Bhabha

Explanation: Homi Jehangir Bhabha established key institutions and helped design India’s long-term atomic-energy programme. His work laid foundations for nuclear science, fuel-cycle development and eventual civilian electricity generation through nuclear reactors.

Q34. The Hirakud captive thermal power station is associated with which state?

[SSC MTS (2022 cycle), 10 May 2023]

(A) Odisha

(B) Punjab

(C) Kerala

(D) Assam

Answer: A. Odisha

Explanation: Hirakud is in Odisha, a state with significant industrial activity and nearby coal resources. A captive thermal station supplies electricity for industrial operations. The locality is also identified with the important Hirakud multipurpose dam.

Q33. Which airport was reported as using both solar and hydropower to meet its energy needs?

[SSC CHSL (2022 cycle), 13 March 2023]

(A) Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi

(B) Chennai Airport

(C) Jaipur Airport

(D) Patna Airport

Answer: A. Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi

Explanation: Delhi’s Indira Gandhi International Airport reported sourcing electricity through solar and hydropower arrangements. Large transport hubs can lower operational emissions by purchasing renewable electricity even when generating assets are located elsewhere.

Q32. Which statement is incorrect about India’s lignite deposits?

[SSC CHSL (2022 cycle), 14 March 2023]

(A) Lignite is brown coal

(B) Neyveli is a major deposit

(C) Lignite has relatively high moisture

(D) Lignite is the highest-grade metallurgical coal

Answer: D. Lignite is the highest-grade metallurgical coal

Explanation: Lignite is low-rank brown coal with comparatively high moisture. It is not the highest-grade metallurgical coal, which requires suitable coking characteristics. Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is a prominent lignite centre supplying nearby power generation.

Q31. How many principal petroleum products were excluded from the GST framework when GST was introduced?

[SSC GD (2022 cycle), 8 February 2023]

(A) Three

(B) Four

(C) Five

(D) Six

Answer: C. Five

Explanation: Five petroleum-related products—crude petroleum, petrol, diesel, natural gas and aviation turbine fuel—were kept outside the ordinary GST levy framework. Their treatment affects the taxation and pricing structure of India’s energy commodities.

Q30. The coastal sands of which Indian state are especially known for thorium resources?

[67th BPSC Preliminary Examination, 30 September 2022]

(A) Punjab

(B) Bihar

(C) Kerala

(D) Haryana

Answer: C. Kerala

Explanation: Monazite-bearing mineral sands along parts of Kerala’s coast contain thorium. Thorium is important to India’s long-term nuclear-energy strategy. Other coastal states also contain monazite, but Kerala is a classic geographical example.

Q29. Petrol and diesel are mainly obtained by refining which resource?

[RRB Group D, 2 September 2022]

(A) Crude petroleum

(B) Coal tar

(C) Biogas

(D) Uranium ore

Answer: A. Crude petroleum

Explanation: Petroleum refineries separate and transform crude-oil fractions into petrol, diesel and other useful products. The output depends on crude quality and refining operations. Coal and uranium belong to different branches of the energy-resource sector.

Q28. Which type of coal is generally considered the highest grade?

[SSC CGL, 1 December 2022]

(A) Peat

(B) Lignite

(C) Bituminous

(D) Anthracite

Answer: D. Anthracite

Explanation: Anthracite has a very high carbon proportion and high coal rank. Lignite is relatively young and moisture-rich, whereas bituminous coal occupies an intermediate-to-high rank. Classification depends on geological transformation and measurable fuel properties.

Q27. Which coal-forming material typically has high moisture and low carbon content?

[SSC CGL, 13 December 2022]

(A) Anthracite

(B) Peat

(C) Coke

(D) Graphite

Answer: B. Peat

Explanation: Peat comprises partly decomposed plant matter and is an early stage before lignite formation. It generally contains substantial moisture and less fixed carbon than higher coal ranks. Drying and burial change its properties over long periods.

Q26. Which is India’s oldest government-owned coal-mining company among these?

[UPSC CDS-II General Knowledge, 4 September 2022]

(A) Neyveli Lignite Corporation

(B) Singareni Collieries Company Limited

(C) Coal India Limited

(D) Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

Answer: B. Singareni Collieries Company Limited

Explanation: Singareni Collieries Company has a long history in the coal-bearing region of present-day Telangana. It predates post-independence corporations such as NLC India and Coal India, making it the answer in this historical comparison.

Q25. Which of these is traditionally classified as a conventional household energy source?

[SSC GD Constable, 18 November 2021]

(A) Biogas

(B) Wind

(C) Solar

(D) Firewood

Answer: D. Firewood

Explanation: Firewood is a traditional fuel used for cooking and heating, especially in rural areas. In the conventional-versus-non-conventional classification common in school geography, wind, solar and modern biogas systems are grouped with newer alternative sources.

Q24. In which city was a major CSIR-developed solar tree installed in 2020?

[SSC CHSL (2020 cycle), 10 August 2021]

(A) Bhopal

(B) Jaipur

(C) Durgapur

(D) Bokaro

Answer: C. Durgapur

Explanation: The Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute installed a widely publicised solar-tree design in Durgapur, West Bengal. Its vertically arranged branches carry photovoltaic panels and demonstrate a compact approach to harvesting solar energy.

Q23. Where is the headquarters of the International Solar Alliance?

[MH SET, 27 December 2020]

(A) Gwal Pahari, Gurugram

(B) Bengaluru

(C) Dubai

(D) Nairobi

Answer: A. Gwal Pahari, Gurugram

Explanation: The International Solar Alliance secretariat is based in Gurugram, Haryana. Initiated by India and France, the organisation promotes solar-energy collaboration and deployment. Its work connects renewable technology with international finance and energy-access goals.

Q22. Match inexhaustible resources, stratosphere, non-renewable resources and CFCs with solar energy, ozone layer, fossil fuels and human activities.

[MPSC State Services Prelims, 2020]

(A) Solar–ozone; Stratosphere–fossils; Nonrenewable–human; CFC–solar

(B) Solar–fossils; Stratosphere–human; Nonrenewable–ozone; CFC–solar

(C) Inexhaustible–solar; Stratosphere–ozone; Nonrenewable–fossils; CFCs–human activity

(D) Inexhaustible–fossils; Stratosphere–solar; Nonrenewable–ozone; CFCs–human activity

Answer: C. Inexhaustible–solar; Stratosphere–ozone; Nonrenewable–fossils; CFCs–human activity

Explanation: Solar radiation is a recurring resource, whereas fossil fuels are exhaustible. The stratosphere contains the ozone layer, and chlorofluorocarbons are manufactured substances linked to ozone depletion. The matching combines energy-resource categories with atmospheric geography.

Q21. The Rammam hydroelectric project lies in which West Bengal district?

[WBCS Prelims, 2019]

(A) Purulia

(B) Bankura

(C) Jalpaiguri

(D) Darjeeling

Answer: D. Darjeeling

Explanation: The Rammam hydroelectric project is located in the Darjeeling hills of West Bengal. The terrain’s river gradients provide conditions for hydropower. It should not be confused with the pumped-storage scheme at Purulia.

Q20. Which PNGRB statements are correct?
I. It was India’s first regulator.
II. It promotes competitive gas markets.
III. Its appeals go to the electricity appellate tribunal.

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims, 2019]

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(C) I and III only

(D) All three

Answer: B. II and III only

Explanation: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board regulates specified downstream oil and gas activities and promotes competitive markets. It was not India’s first regulatory body. Its appellate arrangement links to the tribunal established under electricity legislation.

Q19. Which source of energy is renewable?

[CGPSC State Services Prelims, 2018]

(A) Coal

(B) Petroleum

(C) Biomass

(D) Kerosene

Answer: C. Biomass

Explanation: Biomass can be replenished through plant growth and the sustainable use of organic residues. Fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum and kerosene’s petroleum feedstock require geological timescales to form and are considered non-renewable.

Q18. Which resource was the largest contributor to Chhattisgarh mineral revenue in 2016–17?

[CGPSC State Services Prelims, 2018]

(A) Coal

(B) Limestone

(C) Iron ore

(D) Bauxite

Answer: A. Coal

Explanation: Coal is central to Chhattisgarh’s mining economy and supports major thermal power installations. The question focuses on mineral revenue for a particular financial year. Coalfields near Korba and other districts connect mining with electricity generation.

Q17. What solar-capacity goal did India set for 2022 under an earlier national programme?

[RPSC RAS Prelims, 2018]

(A) 20 GW

(B) 40 GW

(C) 60 GW

(D) 100 GW

Answer: D. 100 GW

Explanation: India’s earlier 2022 solar-energy ambition was 100 gigawatts, part of a wider 175-gigawatt renewable-power target. Subsequent policy milestones changed, so the figure should be understood in the historical context of that planning period.

Q16. Which town is associated with one of India’s earliest petroleum discoveries and refinery operations?

[WBCS Prelims, 2017]

(A) Duliajan

(B) Digboi

(C) Ankleshwar

(D) Kalol

Answer: B. Digboi

Explanation: Digboi in Assam became famous for pioneering petroleum production and refining during the colonial period. It forms part of the Assam petroleum region, distinct from offshore Mumbai High and Gujarat’s Cambay Basin deposits.

Q15. Which state agency promotes renewable and non-conventional energy in Rajasthan?

[RPSC RAS Prelims, 2016]

(A) Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited

(B) State Ministry of New Renewable Energy

(C) Centre for Renewable Energy Sources

(D) None of these

Answer: A. Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited

Explanation: Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited serves as a nodal organisation for renewable-energy development. The state’s high sunshine and open land make solar power especially important, alongside wind and energy-efficiency programmes.

Q14. What was the chief purpose of the government’s UDAY scheme?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims, 2016]

(A) Loans to start-up solar entrepreneurs

(B) Electricity to each home by 2018 alone

(C) Replacement of all coal plants

(D) Financial turnaround of power distribution companies

Answer: D. Financial turnaround of power distribution companies

Explanation: Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana aimed to improve financial health and efficiency in state electricity distribution companies. Restructuring debt and improving operations were central elements. The scheme was not simply a programme to build renewable power stations.

Q13. Anushakti Vidyut Nigam Limited is a joint venture between NPCIL and which organisation?

[UPPSC Civil Services Prelims, 10 May 2015]

(A) NMDC

(B) NHPC

(C) BHEL

(D) NTPC

Answer: D. NTPC

Explanation: The nuclear-energy joint venture links Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited with NTPC, India’s major electricity company. Such partnerships are intended to support development of nuclear generating capacity using institutional experience in power projects.

Q12. At which site was India’s first nuclear power station established?

[Chhattisgarh PSC Prelims, 2014]

(A) Kalpakkam

(B) Kota

(C) Tarapur

(D) Narora

Answer: C. Tarapur

Explanation: Tarapur in Maharashtra was India’s first commercially operating nuclear-power site, starting in 1969. Kalpakkam, Rajasthan’s Rawatbhata and Narora developed later. Site identification is a frequent question in India’s energy-resource geography.

Q11. Which Indian hydropower project received an important Permanent Court of Arbitration ruling in 2013?

[UPPSC Civil Services Prelims, 2013]

(A) Baglihar

(B) Kishanganga

(C) Sawalkote

(D) Salal

Answer: B. Kishanganga

Explanation: Kishanganga Hydroelectric Project is located in the Jhelum river system of Jammu and Kashmir. The project became the subject of international arbitration concerning river-water arrangements. It illustrates links between hydropower geography and transboundary governance.

Q10. Where is the Mumbai High offshore petroleum field located?

[SSC LDEO, 2012]

(A) Interior Deccan Plateau

(B) Western coastal plain

(C) Arabian Sea continental shelf

(D) Western Ghats

Answer: C. Arabian Sea continental shelf

Explanation: Mumbai High is an offshore hydrocarbon field beneath the Arabian Sea’s continental shelf. Platforms and subsea pipelines allow oil and associated gas production. It lies west of Mumbai, rather than on the mainland or inside the Western Ghats.

Q9. The Uran gas-based power station is situated in which state?

[UPPSC Mains, 2010]

(A) Gujarat

(B) Karnataka

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: C. Maharashtra

Explanation: Uran is a gas-fired generating facility in Maharashtra’s Raigad district. Gas-based stations may respond more flexibly to electricity demand than some coal-fired units. Its fuel and location distinguish it from hydroelectric schemes.

Q8. Which country assisted in establishment of the Obra thermal power project?

[UPPSC Special Mains, 2008]

(A) United States

(B) Germany

(C) Japan

(D) Soviet Union/Russia

Answer: D. Soviet Union/Russia

Explanation: Obra Thermal Power Station is located in Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh. Soviet technical collaboration supported its early development. The region also contains coal-power infrastructure linked to the wider Singrauli–Sonbhadra energy belt.

Q7. Which thermal power station–state pair is incorrectly matched?

[UPPSC Mains, 2006]

(A) Badarpur–Delhi

(B) Harduaganj–Uttar Pradesh

(C) Utran–Gujarat

(D) Paras–Andhra Pradesh

Answer: D. Paras–Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: Paras Thermal Power Station is located in Maharashtra rather than Andhra Pradesh. Badarpur was associated with Delhi, Harduaganj with Uttar Pradesh and Utran with Gujarat. The question assesses geographical matching of electricity-generating stations.

Q6. Match the power stations Kothagudem, Raichur, Mettur and Wanakbori with their states.

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims, 2005]

(A) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat

(B) Gujarat, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

(C) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka

(D) Karnataka, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

Answer: A. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat

Explanation: Kothagudem lay in undivided Andhra Pradesh when this paper was held and is now in Telangana. Raichur is in Karnataka, Mettur in Tamil Nadu and Wanakbori in Gujarat. State reorganisation can affect historical examination labels.

Q5. Ramagundam Super Thermal Power Station was in which state according to the 2004 administrative map?

[UP Lower Subordinate Services Prelims, 2004]

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Karnataka

Answer: A. Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: Ramagundam was within Andhra Pradesh in 2004; following Telangana’s formation in 2014 it lies in Telangana. The important thermal-power complex developed near coal resources. Historical PYQs must retain their original administrative context.

Q4. In which present-day state is Bokaro Thermal Power Station located?

[UPSC Civil Services Prelims, 2003]

(A) Bihar

(B) Chhattisgarh

(C) Jharkhand

(D) Odisha

Answer: C. Jharkhand

Explanation: Bokaro Thermal Power Station is in Jharkhand, within the Damodar Valley industrial and coal belt. The state’s coal and mineral resources support both electricity generation and metallurgical industries.

Q3. Which source contributed most to India’s energy supply among the given alternatives?

[UP Lower Subordinate Services Prelims, 2002]

(A) Nuclear power

(B) Petroleum

(C) Coal

(D) Hydroelectricity

Answer: C. Coal

Explanation: Coal dominated India’s conventional energy landscape in the period covered by this question, especially for thermal generation and industry. India’s more recent energy mix includes much larger renewable capacity, but historical PYQs need date-sensitive interpretation.

Q2. Which coalfields are located in the Damodar Valley: I. Jharia, II. Raniganj, III. Singrauli, IV. Sohagpur?

[UPPSC Prelims, 2002]

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(C) I, II and III

(D) II, III and IV

Answer: A. I and II only

Explanation: Jharia and Raniganj belong to the Damodar Valley coal belt of Jharkhand and West Bengal. Singrauli lies in the Son basin region, and Sohagpur belongs to another central Indian coal-bearing area.

Q1. Match
Gujarat, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
with Kakrapar, Kaiga, Rawatbhata and Narora nuclear stations.

[UPPSC UDA/LDA Prelims, 2002]

(A) Gujarat–Narora; Karnataka–Kakrapar; Rajasthan–Rawatbhata; UP–Kaiga

(B) Gujarat–Kaiga; Karnataka–Rawatbhata; Rajasthan–Kakrapar; UP–Narora

(C) Gujarat–Kakrapar; Karnataka–Kaiga; Rajasthan–Rawatbhata; UP–Narora

(D) Gujarat–Kaiga; Karnataka–Kakrapar; Rajasthan–Narora; UP–Rawatbhata

Answer: C. Gujarat–Kakrapar; Karnataka–Kaiga; Rajasthan–Rawatbhata; UP–Narora

Explanation: Kakrapar is in Gujarat, Kaiga in Karnataka, Rawatbhata in Rajasthan and Narora in Uttar Pradesh. These four stations provide a useful north-to-south map of established Indian nuclear-power locations.

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