Constitutional Bodies

283

Q145. Which amendment created a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?

[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 24 March 2026 (Shift 2)]

1. 102nd Amendment
2. 97th Amendment
3. 65th Amendment
4. 89th Amendment

Answer: (D) 89th Amendment

Explanation: The 89th Amendment introduced Article 338A to create the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes separately from the Scheduled Castes commission. This followed the earlier joint constitutional commission model and enabled a distinct ST-focused institution.

Q144. Which Union ministry is administratively associated with the National Commission for Backward Classes?

[UP Police Sub-Inspector, 14 March 2026 (Shift 1)]

1. Home Affairs
2. Minority Affairs
3. Labour and Employment
4. Social Justice and Empowerment

Answer: (D) Social Justice and Empowerment

Explanation: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the relevant administrative ministry for the National Commission for Backward Classes. NCBC itself has constitutional recognition under Article 338B following the 102nd Amendment of 2018.

Q143. At what interval does Article 280 require constitution of the Finance Commission?

[RRB Technician Grade I, 13 March 2026]

1. Every four years or earlier
2. Every three years
3. Every five years or earlier
4. Every seven years or earlier

Answer: (C) Every five years or earlier

Explanation: The President must constitute the Finance Commission after every fifth year or earlier if necessary. Article 280 creates this recurring constitutional mechanism for considering intergovernmental revenue sharing and the principles governing grants-in-aid.

Q142. Who took charge as Chief Election Commissioner of India in February 2025?

[DSSSB MTS, 6 March 2026 (Shift 2)]

1. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
2. Gyanesh Kumar
3. Gyanendra Pratap Singh
4. Vivek Joshi

Answer: (B) Gyanesh Kumar

Explanation: Gyanesh Kumar assumed the office of Chief Election Commissioner on 19 February 2025, succeeding Rajiv Kumar. The appointment followed the statutory selection process created by the 2023 legislation concerning election commissioners.

Q141. Who appoints the Attorney General, India’s highest law officer?

[RRB ALP CBT-I, 18 February 2026 (Shift 2)]

1. Senior-most Supreme Court judge
2. President of India
3. Prime Minister
4. Chief Justice of India

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: The President appoints the Attorney General under Article 76. The appointee must satisfy the qualifications for Supreme Court judgeship and advises the Union government on legal questions while retaining a right of audience in Indian courts.

Q140. Which statement best describes the Election Commission’s constitutional independence?

[Delhi Police Head Constable AWO/TPO, 21 January 2026 (Shift 2)]

1. It annually reports to Parliament as a dependent authority
2. CEC may be dismissed at any time by President
3. Article 324 creates it; CEC removal follows Supreme Court judge-like safeguards
4. Council of Ministers must approve every Commission decision

Answer: (C) Article 324 creates it; CEC removal follows Supreme Court judge-like safeguards

Explanation: The Election Commission is directly established by Article 324, and the Chief Election Commissioner benefits from an enhanced removal safeguard. This helps insulate election supervision from arbitrary executive interference and preserve independent decisions.

Q139. Assertion: Petrol and diesel prices differ among States.
Reason: These petroleum products are outside GST pending Council-level inclusion.

Which is correct?

[UGC NET Economics, 7 January 2026 (Shift 1)]

1. Both true and Reason explains Assertion
2. Both true, but Reason does not explain Assertion
3. Assertion true, Reason false
4. Assertion false, Reason true

Answer: (A) Both true and Reason explains Assertion

Explanation: Petrol and diesel remain outside the operational GST levy, and States impose their own value-added taxes while the Union imposes duties. Differing tax structures contribute to varying retail prices, making the stated reason relevant.

Q138. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

[SSC GD Constable, 30 May 2026 (Shift 1)]

1. Three years
2. Five years
3. Six years or until attaining 65 years, whichever is earlier
4. Six years or until attaining 62 years, whichever is earlier

Answer: (C) Six years or until attaining 65 years, whichever is earlier

Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner serves for six years or until the age of sixty-five, whichever comes first. This tenure applies under the election commissioners’ service framework, while constitutional removal safeguards protect independence from political pressure.

Q137. Which institution among the following is not a constitutional body?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 24 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
2. Finance Commission
3. National Commission for Minorities
4. Union Public Service Commission

Answer: (C) National Commission for Minorities

Explanation: The National Commission for Minorities was established through legislation passed in 1992, making it statutory. The other three institutions derive their establishment directly from provisions of the Constitution: Articles 338, 280 and 315 respectively.

Q136. Who can remove a UPSC chairperson or member under Article 317 for insolvency or infirmity of mind or body?

[DSSSB Court Attendant, 5 June 2026 (Shift 2)]

1. Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. President of India
3. Prime Minister
4. Chief Justice of India

Answer: (B) President of India

Explanation: The President is the constitutional removal authority for members of the Union Public Service Commission. Insolvency and specified incapacity permit removal under Article 317 without the Supreme Court inquiry required for a charge of misbehaviour.