General Science GK Questions

Computer & Information Technology

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Q292. Which generation of computers employed microprocessors as its defining hardware technology?

[UPSC CDS 2026 (General Knowledge)]

  1. Second generation
  2. Third generation
  3. Fourth generation
  4. Fifth generation

Answer: C. Fourth generation

Explanation: Fourth-generation systems brought an entire central processing unit onto a microprocessor chip, making computers substantially smaller and cheaper. Earlier generations were characterised chiefly by vacuum tubes, transistors and integrated circuits respectively. The microprocessor became central from the early 1970s.

Q291. Which application-layer protocol is used by browsers to request and receive web pages?

[RRB JE, 2 July 2026]

  1. FTP
  2. SMTP
  3. HTTP
  4. ARP

Answer: C. HTTP

Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol governs the request-and-response exchange between a web browser and a web server. FTP transfers files, SMTP sends email, and ARP resolves network-layer addresses to hardware addresses on local networks. HTTPS adds encryption through TLS.

Q290. Which Excel function counts cells in a range that satisfy a specified criterion?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. COUNTIF(A1:A10, “>10”)
  2. COUNTBLANK(A1:A10)
  3. COUNT(A1:A10)
  4. SUMIF(A1:A10, “>10”)

Answer: A. COUNTIF(A1:A10, “>10”)

Explanation: COUNTIF tests the cells of a specified range against one criterion and returns the number of matches. COUNT counts numeric values without the stated condition, COUNTBLANK counts empty cells, and SUMIF adds values meeting a condition rather than counting them.

Q289. A text box shifts unexpectedly during PowerPoint editing. Which slide-design omission most directly explains a failure to anchor content to the layout?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. Using a default layout
  2. Not using placeholders
  3. Using placeholders instead of text boxes
  4. Modifying the slide master

Answer: B. Not using placeholders

Explanation: PowerPoint placeholders belong to slide layouts and provide designated positions for titles and other content. Free-floating text boxes do not automatically inherit all layout placement constraints. Using appropriate placeholders helps maintain consistent alignment when slide content changes.

Q288. A teacher wants to show only Excel rows where students scored more than 75, without deleting other rows. Which tool should be used?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. Remove Duplicates
  2. Freeze Panes
  3. Sort
  4. Filter

Answer: D. Filter

Explanation: Excel’s Filter feature temporarily hides rows that fail selected conditions while preserving the underlying data. Sorting changes their display order, Freeze Panes fixes headings on screen, and Remove Duplicates can permanently remove records. Filtering is appropriate for selective viewing.

Q287. While editing a cell in Excel, which shortcut inserts a line break inside that same cell?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. Ctrl + Enter
  2. Shift + Enter
  3. Alt + Enter
  4. Tab + Enter

Answer: C. Alt + Enter

Explanation: Alt + Enter places a manual line break within a cell being edited on Windows Excel. It is useful for addresses, multi-line labels and notes. Simply pressing Enter usually commits the cell entry and moves to another cell.

Q286. After inserting a Next Page section break in Word, which settings can be made different for the following section?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. AutoCorrect substitutions
  2. Page orientation and margins
  3. Normal-style font throughout the document
  4. Document metadata

Answer: B. Page orientation and margins

Explanation: Section breaks divide a Word document into regions with separately configurable page layouts. Different sections can have distinct margins, paper orientation, headers or page numbering. Document-wide metadata and the shared AutoCorrect dictionary are not section-specific page-layout properties.

Q285. If altering a Word heading style changes all headings, what should be used to format only the selected heading?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. Direct formatting
  2. Format Painter
  3. Modify Style
  4. Change Theme

Answer: A. Direct formatting

Explanation: Applying direct formatting to one selected paragraph can override the shared style for that paragraph alone. Editing the style definition can update every paragraph based on it. Themes also affect document-wide appearance; the distinction is important in long formatted documents.

Q284. During the instruction cycle, which register contains the instruction currently being decoded by the processor?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. Memory Address Register
  2. Program Counter
  3. Instruction Register
  4. Accumulator

Answer: C. Instruction Register

Explanation: The Instruction Register retains the fetched instruction while control circuitry interprets and executes it. The Program Counter identifies the next instruction address; the Memory Address Register identifies a memory location. An accumulator usually holds arithmetic results, not the instruction being decoded.

Q283. Compared with hardwired control, what advantage is most associated with a microprogrammed control unit?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. Lower power consumption
  2. Easier modification of the instruction set
  3. Higher operating speed
  4. Fewer physical logic gates in every case

Answer: B. Easier modification of the instruction set

Explanation: A microprogrammed control unit generates control signals from stored microinstructions. This approach can simplify implementation and changes to instruction behaviour. Hardwired control often achieves greater speed but is generally less flexible when the control sequence must be changed.

Q282. Why are RTS and CTS lines used for hardware handshaking in asynchronous serial communication?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. To synchronise processor clocks
  2. To encrypt transmitted bytes
  3. To calculate parity automatically
  4. To regulate data flow and avoid receive-buffer overflow

Answer: D. To regulate data flow and avoid receive-buffer overflow

Explanation: Request to Send and Clear to Send are flow-control signals. A receiver can indicate whether it has space for additional data, helping a sender avoid overrunning the receiving buffer. They do not themselves encrypt data or perform error detection.

Q281. Which capability is particularly associated with DisplayPort rather than conventional HDMI connections?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. Daisy-chaining displays through Multi-Stream Transport
  2. Sending any digital audio
  3. Displaying uncompressed images
  4. Using a digital video cable

Answer: A. Daisy-chaining displays through Multi-Stream Transport

Explanation: DisplayPort Multi-Stream Transport can carry separate video streams for several monitors through a compatible hub or daisy-chain arrangement. HDMI also transports digital video and audio, so those features do not distinguish DisplayPort. Support depends on device hardware and versions.

Q280. A memory organised as 4K locations of 8 bits each requires how many distinct address lines?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. 12
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 16

Answer: A. 12

Explanation: Four kilobytes organised into 4096 individually addressable bytes require 4096 unique addresses. Since 4096 equals 2 raised to the twelfth power, twelve binary address lines select each location. The eight-bit word width determines data-bus width instead.

Q279. How is a copy-on-write snapshot unlike a full traditional backup at the instant it is taken?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle (held 19 January 2026)]

  1. It initially references existing blocks and preserves blocks when changed
  2. It must reside on another physical disk
  3. It always requires the computer to shut down
  4. It immediately duplicates every bit to a new drive

Answer: A. It initially references existing blocks and preserves blocks when changed

Explanation: Copy-on-write snapshots typically record references to existing data and retain original blocks as writes modify them. The initial snapshot can therefore be created rapidly without duplicating the full dataset. It is not necessarily an independent, off-device disaster-recovery backup.

Q278. What software architecture supports OLE object linking through the server’s persistent class identifier?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle, held 19 January 2026]

  1. BLOB indexing
  2. AWT
  3. SMTP
  4. Component Object Model

Answer: D. Component Object Model

Explanation: Microsoft’s Component Object Model supplies object interfaces and identifiers used by Object Linking and Embedding. BLOB storage, Java’s AWT and the SMTP email protocol do not provide the required Windows object architecture.

Q277. Which Windows shortcut moves keyboard focus through programs pinned on the taskbar?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle, held 19 January 2026]

  1. Windows+T
  2. Alt+Tab
  3. Windows+Tab
  4. Ctrl+Alt+Tab

Answer: A. Windows+T

Explanation: Windows+T moves selection among taskbar apps and can be used with other keys to act on the highlighted item. Alt+Tab changes application focus through a different interface.

Q276. Which OSI layer handles routing with logical network addresses?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle, held 19 January 2026]

  1. Physical
  2. Data Link
  3. Network
  4. Presentation

Answer: C. Network

Explanation: The OSI network layer handles logical addressing and packet routing between networks. The data-link layer primarily serves local framing, and the physical layer transmits raw signals, not inter-network routes.

Q275. Which standard can encrypt the content of email messages end-to-end?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle, held 19 January 2026]

  1. S/MIME
  2. IMAP
  3. SSL alone
  4. SMTP

Answer: A. S/MIME

Explanation: S/MIME is a standard for cryptographic protection of MIME email messages, including encryption and digital signatures. IMAP accesses messages, SMTP transports them, and TLS normally protects a communication link rather than the stored message itself.

Q274. Which behaviour is characteristic of a malicious Trojan horse?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle, held 19 January 2026]

  1. Stealing files or installing a backdoor
  2. Flooding links to cause congestion
  3. Overwhelming servers with traffic
  4. Self-copying automatically like a worm

Answer: A. Stealing files or installing a backdoor

Explanation: A Trojan masquerades as trusted software and may steal information, delete content or open backdoors. It does not inherently propagate by copying itself, unlike a worm, or necessarily act as a traffic-flooding tool.

Q273. What is the principal security benefit of encrypting network data while it is transmitted?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle, held 19 January 2026]

  1. Making intercepted content unintelligible
  2. Preventing physical theft
  3. Increasing transfer speed
  4. Blocking every unauthorised login

Answer: A. Making intercepted content unintelligible

Explanation: Encryption in transit prevents an eavesdropper from easily reading captured packets without the necessary cryptographic keys. It is not a replacement for access control, endpoint security, or physical protection of hardware.

Q272. What difficulty commonly arises with shared-key cryptographic communication?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle, held 19 January 2026]

  1. Always slower than public-key cryptography
  2. Cannot protect files at rest
  3. Securely distributing and managing shared keys
  4. Requires no computing resources

Answer: C. Securely distributing and managing shared keys

Explanation: Symmetric encryption requires communicating parties to possess the same secret key. Delivering, rotating and protecting that key securely becomes increasingly demanding as the number of communicating parties grows.

Q271. Why compress a file before uploading it to cloud storage?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2025 cycle, held 19 January 2026]

  1. Convert it to an authenticated format
  2. Reduce upload size and storage requirements
  3. Guarantee encryption
  4. Make it universally executable

Answer: B. Reduce upload size and storage requirements

Explanation: Compression reduces redundant information so the file can occupy fewer bytes, potentially cutting upload time and cloud storage use. Compression by itself does not authenticate, encrypt or make arbitrary files executable.

Q270. Which manufacturer introduced the PS/2 keyboard and mouse connector?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Microsoft
  2. Intel
  3. IBM
  4. Apple
  5. Dell

Answer: C. IBM

Explanation: IBM introduced PS/2 ports with its Personal System/2 computer range in 1987. The six-pin mini-DIN connection was used for keyboards and mice before USB became the more common peripheral standard.

Q269. What is the main function of the POP3 email protocol?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Sending outgoing mail
  2. Retrieving messages from an email server
  3. Synchronizing mailbox folders across devices
  4. Encrypting messages
  5. Handling DNS queries

Answer: B. Retrieving messages from an email server

Explanation: Post Office Protocol version 3 downloads email from a server into a client. SMTP handles sending email, while IMAP is designed for synchronization of mail and folders across multiple devices.

Q268. Which common colour-coded audio socket connects speakers or headphones?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Pink
  2. Blue
  3. Lime green
  4. Black
  5. Orange

Answer: C. Lime green

Explanation: On traditional desktop PC sound cards, the lime-green jack is assigned to audio line output. Pink commonly denotes microphone input and blue indicates line input, although newer devices may use combined audio sockets.

Q267. Which Microsoft application is intended for letters, résumés and other formatted text?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Excel
  2. PowerPoint
  3. Word
  4. Access
  5. Outlook

Answer: C. Word

Explanation: Microsoft Word is a word processor with tools for drafting, editing and formatting documents. Excel focuses on spreadsheets, PowerPoint on presentations, Access on databases and Outlook on messages and calendar management.

Q266. Where is the BIOS firmware ordinarily stored in a personal computer?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Hard disk
  2. Volatile RAM
  3. Nonvolatile motherboard ROM or flash
  4. CPU cache
  5. Temporary user folder

Answer: C. Nonvolatile motherboard ROM or flash

Explanation: Basic Input Output System firmware is stored in nonvolatile memory mounted on the motherboard. Modern systems commonly use rewritable flash for firmware, allowing boot operations before an operating system starts.

Q265. What hardware feature present in HDDs is generally missing from SSDs?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Nonvolatile storage
  2. Mechanical moving parts
  3. Ability to install an OS
  4. Capacity to hold files
  5. Storage interface support

Answer: B. Mechanical moving parts

Explanation: Hard drives rely on spinning magnetic platters and movable read-write heads. SSDs instead use electronic flash storage and lack those moving mechanisms, typically improving access speed and resistance to vibration.

Q264. What online-meeting feature can highlight one presenter’s video for all participants?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Raise hand
  2. Local pin
  3. Share screen
  4. Spotlight video
  5. Gallery view

Answer: D. Spotlight video

Explanation: Video spotlighting elevates one participant’s camera feed within a meeting, frequently under host control. Pinning a video generally affects only the viewing preference of the person who pinned it.

Q263. Which manufacturing process underlies ordinary 3D printing?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Subtractive manufacturing
  2. Casting
  3. Forging
  4. Additive manufacturing
  5. Injection moulding

Answer: D. Additive manufacturing

Explanation: Three-dimensional printing creates objects from a computer model by adding material in successive layers. It is therefore additive manufacturing, unlike milling or machining processes that form shapes by removing material.

Q262. Which of these is a programming language rather than an operating system?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Windows
  2. Linux
  3. macOS
  4. Python
  5. Android

Answer: D. Python

Explanation: Python is a high-level programming language used for scripting and software development. Windows, Linux, macOS and Android instead manage computer or device resources as operating systems and support application execution.

Q261. What is the cryptographic process of turning readable plaintext into ciphertext?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Decryption
  2. Encryption
  3. Compression
  4. Renaming
  5. Defragmentation

Answer: B. Encryption

Explanation: Encryption transforms readable information into an unintelligible representation using a key and an algorithm. Authorized users can reverse this process by decrypting it, unlike compression, which is primarily used to reduce file size.

Q260. Which activity best describes the CPU’s central function?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Operating only input ports
  2. Storing files permanently
  3. Routing internet packets only
  4. Fetching, decoding and executing instructions
  5. Organizing folders only

Answer: D. Fetching, decoding and executing instructions

Explanation: The central processor repeatedly fetches instructions, decodes them and executes their operations. This instruction cycle supports calculations and program execution and is distinct from long-term file storage or purely peripheral functions.

Q259. Which simple networking device centrally interconnects computers on an Ethernet segment?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Router
  2. Hub
  3. Repeater
  4. Bridge
  5. Gateway

Answer: B. Hub

Explanation: An Ethernet hub provides a common connection point for computers on a local segment. Incoming signals are repeated to its other ports, unlike a network switch that intelligently forwards frames according to addresses.

Q258. Which output device is generally used to create a paper copy of a document?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Monitor
  2. Speaker
  3. Printer
  4. Projector
  5. Webcam

Answer: C. Printer

Explanation: A printer transfers digital text and images to paper, creating a physical hard copy. A monitor or projector supplies a visual electronic display and a speaker produces audio, not paper output.

Q257. Which listed language is a third-generation high-level programming language?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Assembly
  2. COBOL
  3. Machine language
  4. Binary code
  5. Microinstructions

Answer: B. COBOL

Explanation: COBOL belongs to the family of high-level languages designed to make business data programs comparatively human-readable. Assembly and machine code operate closer to the processor’s instruction set and are lower-level forms.

Q256. Which multiuser time-sharing operating system originated at Bell Labs?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. MS-DOS
  2. UNIX
  3. Windows NT
  4. macOS
  5. CP/M

Answer: B. UNIX

Explanation: UNIX was developed at Bell Labs and became an influential multiuser, time-sharing operating system. Its file model, process handling and command-line tools strongly influenced later systems, including BSD and Linux.

Q255. Which protocol provides logical addressing and routing at OSI Layer 3?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. TCP
  2. IP
  3. HTTP
  4. FTP
  5. SMTP

Answer: B. IP

Explanation: Internet Protocol handles logical addresses and routes packets across networks, matching the network layer in the OSI reference model. TCP works mainly at the transport layer, while HTTP and FTP are application protocols.

Q254. Which feature is NOT normally located on Excel’s Insert ribbon tab?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Table
  2. Chart
  3. Picture
  4. Macros
  5. Shapes

Answer: D. Macros

Explanation: The Insert tab in Excel includes commands for tables, charts, images and shapes. Macro recording and access are usually found on the Developer or View tabs rather than inside Insert commands.

Q253. Which main memory holds currently running programs and their working data?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Hard disk
  2. ROM
  3. RAM
  4. Optical disc
  5. Magnetic tape

Answer: C. RAM

Explanation: Random Access Memory is working storage for instructions and data needed while a system runs. It is normally volatile and quickly accessible, unlike a hard disk or optical disc used for persistent storage.

Q252. Which type of HTML tag supplies page metadata useful to search engines?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. div
  2. meta
  3. br
  4. table
  5. form

Answer: B. meta

Explanation: The HTML meta element can provide descriptions, encoding details and other document information. Search engines may use such metadata to interpret or present pages, though search ranking also depends on actual content and links.

Q251. Which Excel function returns a division remainder?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. QUOTIENT()
  2. DIVIDE()
  3. REMAINDER()
  4. MOD()
  5. ROUND()

Answer: D. MOD()

Explanation: The MOD function produces the remainder after a number is divided by another. For example, MOD(10,3) gives 1; QUOTIENT instead returns the integer portion of the division result.

Q250. What is the act of creating an extra copy of stored data for recovery?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Formatting
  2. Backup
  3. Restoration
  4. Renaming
  5. Encryption

Answer: B. Backup

Explanation: Backup means preserving an additional copy of information so it can be recovered after loss, corruption or failure. Restoration is the subsequent process of retrieving data from that previously created backup.

Q249. What command interpreter offers an interface to the UNIX kernel?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Compiler
  2. Shell
  3. Device driver
  4. Spreadsheet
  5. Boot sector

Answer: B. Shell

Explanation: A UNIX shell accepts user commands and launches programs through operating-system facilities. Bash and zsh are familiar examples; a terminal window provides a place to interact with the shell but is not itself the interpreter.

Q248. Which technology can support very short-range personal area network communication?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Long-distance twisted-pair trunk
  2. Cable TV backbone
  3. Infrared
  4. Geostationary satellite
  5. Submarine optical fibre

Answer: C. Infrared

Explanation: Infrared has been used for short-distance communication between nearby personal devices. Other common personal area networking technologies include Bluetooth, which was not among the original answer alternatives in this remembered question.

Q247. Which keyboard key displays Office ribbon access hints in Excel?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Ctrl
  2. Shift
  3. Alt
  4. Tab
  5. Esc

Answer: C. Alt

Explanation: Pressing Alt in Excel activates the ribbon access-key hints, after which letter keys can be used for command selection. The corresponding menu-navigation convention also existed in older Office interfaces.

Q246. Which item is not an ordinary component of a URL?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Protocol scheme
  2. Domain
  3. Path
  4. Query
  5. Bandwidth

Answer: E. Bandwidth

Explanation: A URL normally contains components such as its scheme, host, path and optional query. Bandwidth describes network transmission capacity, not part of a web address’s grammatical structure.

Q245. How are IPv6 addresses conventionally represented?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Binary words
  2. Dotted decimal numbers
  3. Hexadecimal groups
  4. Octal numbers
  5. ASCII codes

Answer: C. Hexadecimal groups

Explanation: IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses commonly written as colon-separated groups of hexadecimal digits. IPv4 instead normally appears in dotted decimal notation, and IPv6 permits shortening repeated groups of zeros.

Q244. Which statement best describes a dynamic website?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. It always shows identical fixed content
  2. It contains only fixed HTML pages
  3. It may update content based on user activity or changing data
  4. It cannot be edited after launch
  5. It cannot use a database

Answer: C. It may update content based on user activity or changing data

Explanation: A dynamic website can generate or alter pages using application logic, stored data and user actions. Personalized recommendations and a live shopping cart are examples of content that may differ between users.

Q243. Which malware class can independently spread between vulnerable computers?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Ordinary document virus
  2. Worm
  3. Trojan horse
  4. Spyware only
  5. Adware only

Answer: B. Worm

Explanation: A worm is self-replicating malware that can propagate across networks without attaching to a normal host program. Viruses traditionally infect other files or programs, while trojans are malicious software disguised as legitimate tools.

Q242. Which satellite navigation technology calculates position from radio signals?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Bluetooth
  2. GPS
  3. Wi-Fi
  4. Radar
  5. Infrared

Answer: B. GPS

Explanation: GPS receivers determine location by using timed radio signals from multiple navigation satellites. The receiver estimates its distance from each satellite and solves for location and clock differences using those measurements.

Q241. What does Strikethrough formatting do to text in Microsoft Word?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Underlines the text
  2. Draws a line over it
  3. Draws a line through its centre
  4. Changes font colour
  5. Converts it to capitals

Answer: C. Draws a line through its centre

Explanation: Strikethrough draws a line through selected characters, often indicating obsolete information or a completed task. It keeps the characters in the document rather than deleting or replacing them.

Q240. Which list contains only File Explorer display modes used in Windows?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Icons, Tiles, List, Details
  2. Preview, Table, Grid, Zoom
  3. Outline, Summary, Report, Icon
  4. Sort, Filter, Group, Arrange
  5. Folder, Link, Tree, Network

Answer: A. Icons, Tiles, List, Details

Explanation: Windows File Explorer can present files through icon sizes, Tiles, List and Details modes. The other answer groups combine actions or unrelated terms rather than a valid collection of layout choices.

Q239. Which technology can combine disks for redundancy and performance?

[IBPS RRB PO Mains 2025]

  1. Ordinary cloud account
  2. RAID
  3. Virtual memory
  4. CPU cache
  5. One SSD

Answer: B. RAID

Explanation: RAID combines physical storage devices through techniques such as mirroring and striping. Certain levels improve fault tolerance, others performance, and some both, although not all RAID levels protect against drive failure.

Q238. What HTTP status code reports a permanent redirection to a new web address?

[RRB NTPC, 13 October 2025, Shift 2]

  1. 500
  2. 302
  3. 404
  4. 301

Answer: D. 301

Explanation: Status 301 means Moved Permanently and tells browsers and search engines that the resource has a lasting new location. A 302 redirection is temporary, 404 means Not Found and 500 denotes an internal server error. The distinctions matter when handling websites.

Q237. What normally happens when a standard remove-directory command is applied to a directory containing files, without recursive deletion?

[RRB NTPC, 6 June 2025, Shift 2]

  1. Everything is removed automatically
  2. Files are left orphaned
  3. The command always requests item-by-item confirmation
  4. An error says the directory is not empty

Answer: D. An error says the directory is not empty

Explanation: Basic directory-removal commands such as rmdir generally remove only empty directories. They refuse a populated directory unless an appropriate recursive deletion mechanism is used. This safeguard prevents unintentionally destroying nested files and subdirectories. Exact switches and prompts vary by operating system.

Q236. What is the principal function of a laptop operating system?

[RRB NTPC, 5 June 2025, Shift 2]

  1. Typing documents
  2. Running web browsers only
  3. Managing hardware and software resources
  4. Editing videos

Answer: C. Managing hardware and software resources

Explanation: The operating system allocates processor time and memory, manages devices, controls files and provides services to applications. Word processors, browsers and video editors are application programs that run on top of it. Windows, Linux and macOS are familiar operating-system examples.

Q235. Which statement about unshielded twisted-pair cabling is false?

[RRB JE CBT-2, 22 April 2025, Shift 2]

  1. It resists electromagnetic interference better than shielded twisted pair
  2. It is commonly used in LANs
  3. It is relatively light and flexible
  4. It is economical for short links

Answer: A. It resists electromagnetic interference better than shielded twisted pair

Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair relies chiefly on twisting its conductors to cancel interference. Shielded twisted pair adds protective metal foil or braid and generally offers greater EMI resistance. UTP is widely deployed in Ethernet because it is inexpensive, flexible and straightforward to install.

Q234. Find the two’s complement of the six-bit binary number 101110.

[RRB JE CBT-2 (ECE), 22 April 2025, Shift 2]

  1. 010011
  2. 010010
  3. 110001
  4. 010001

Answer: B. 010010

Explanation: To obtain the two’s complement of a fixed-width binary number, reverse every bit and add one. Inverting 101110 gives 010001; adding one produces 010010. Two’s-complement representation is widely used for signed integer arithmetic inside processors and digital circuits.

Q233. Why is a network firewall primarily deployed?

[RRB JE CBT-2 (Civil), 22 April 2025, Shift 1]

  1. To increase internet speed
  2. To restrict unauthorised network access
  3. To remove every computer virus
  4. To store passwords

Answer: B. To restrict unauthorised network access

Explanation: A firewall filters inbound or outbound connections according to configured security rules. It may operate on a host or at the network boundary. Antivirus scanners and password managers perform different jobs; a firewall cannot guarantee total protection from malware or attacks.

Q232. Which RAM technology is comparatively fast and does not need periodic refresh?

[RRB JE CBT-2 (Civil), 22 April 2025, Shift 1]

  1. SRAM
  2. DRAM
  3. Flash memory
  4. ROM

Answer: A. SRAM

Explanation: Static RAM retains each stored bit in a transistor-based latch while power is available, so refresh cycles are unnecessary. Dynamic RAM uses capacitors whose charge leaks away and therefore requires refresh. SRAM is fast but expensive, making it suitable for processor caches.

Q231. Which listed device is not a constituent of a CPU?

[RRB JE CBT-2 (Civil), 22 April 2025, Shift 2]

  1. Arithmetic logic unit
  2. Control unit
  3. Cache memory
  4. Hard disk

Answer: D. Hard disk

Explanation: The CPU carries out instructions with help from control circuitry, arithmetic and logic hardware, registers and cache. A hard disk is separate nonvolatile secondary storage used for programs and files. Storage can supply instructions to memory, but it is not part of the processor.

Q230. Which key begins a PowerPoint slide show from its first slide?

[RRB JE CBT-2 (Civil), 22 April 2025, Shift 2]

  1. F5
  2. Alt + Tab
  3. Ctrl + P
  4. Shift + F5

Answer: A. F5

Explanation: F5 starts a PowerPoint slide show at the beginning, regardless of the slide selected in editing view. Shift + F5 generally starts at the current slide. Alt + Tab switches applications and Ctrl + P opens printing commands in many programs.

Q229. In Excel, what does COUNT() count?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 (held 20 January 2025)]

  1. Number of files stored
  2. Number of duplicate cells
  3. Cells containing numeric values
  4. Number of printed pages

Answer: C. Cells containing numeric values

Explanation: COUNT returns the quantity of numeric entries in the supplied arguments or ranges, and generally ignores blank or textual cells. COUNTA instead counts nonempty cells of several types. Spreadsheet functions return calculated values and do not physically change worksheet data.

Q228. When a new row is inserted into an Excel worksheet, what happens to existing rows below the insertion point?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 (held 20 January 2025)]

  1. They are sent to the bottom
  2. They shift right
  3. They are overwritten
  4. They shift downward

Answer: D. They shift downward

Explanation: Inserting an entire worksheet row creates space and moves existing rows from that position downward, preserving their contents. It does not overwrite the row’s original data. Formula references may adjust automatically when rows are inserted within referenced areas.

Q227. Which shortcut increases paragraph indentation in Microsoft Word 2010?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 (held 20 January 2025)]

  1. Ctrl + M
  2. Ctrl + K
  3. Ctrl + D
  4. Ctrl + U

Answer: A. Ctrl + M

Explanation: Ctrl + M increases the left paragraph indent in Word. Ctrl + K inserts a hyperlink, Ctrl + D opens font-related controls in many Word versions, and Ctrl + U toggles underlining. Paragraph indentation controls spacing relative to the margin.

Q226. Which Word control sets text alignment to left, centred, right or justified?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 (held 20 January 2025)]

  1. Paragraph Alignment
  2. Font Style
  3. Line Spacing
  4. Text Direction

Answer: A. Paragraph Alignment

Explanation: Paragraph alignment governs the horizontal position and distribution of text within a paragraph. Left, centre, right and justified alignment are distinct layout choices. Font style controls character appearance, while line spacing changes the vertical distance between baselines.

Q225. Which sequence starts a blank PowerPoint presentation through the application menu?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 (held 20 January 2025)]

  1. New, Blank Presentation, File
  2. File, New, Blank Presentation
  3. Blank Presentation, New, File
  4. File, Blank Presentation, New

Answer: B. File, New, Blank Presentation

Explanation: From the File menu, choose New and then Blank Presentation to begin an empty presentation. Users can alternatively choose a design template at creation time. Starting with a blank presentation leaves the designer to select layouts and visual styles.

Q224. How do you leave PowerPoint slide-show view and return to editing?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 (held 20 January 2025)]

  1. Ctrl + S
  2. Spacebar
  3. Alt + Tab
  4. Esc

Answer: D. Esc

Explanation: The Escape key closes the active slide-show presentation view and returns to the editor. Spacebar normally advances animations or slides, while Ctrl + S saves the presentation. Alt + Tab switches between windows rather than directly ending the slide show.

Q223. Which purpose most closely matches the role of ROM in a computer?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle (held 20 January 2025)]

  1. Storing startup firmware
  2. Saving all personal documents
  3. Providing volatile working space
  4. Replacing processor registers

Answer: A. Storing startup firmware

Explanation: Read-only memory, broadly including nonvolatile firmware storage, holds instructions that survive a power loss, such as boot firmware. RAM provides temporary working space. User documents are ordinarily stored on separate drives, not in the system’s boot firmware.

Q222. Consider these statements: 1. The CPU is commonly called the computer’s brain. 2. Its three main units are CU, ALU and cache memory. Which statement is correct?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle (held 20 January 2025)]

  1. Both 1 and 2
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. Neither

Answer: B. Only 1

Explanation: Calling the CPU the brain of a computer is conventional because it controls and processes instructions. The claim that its three main functional units necessarily comprise a control unit, arithmetic logic unit and cache memory is not the standard elementary classification.

Q221. In a multipart MIME email, what does the Content-Type boundary mark?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 20 January 2025]

  1. Message’s total length
  2. The limits between message parts
  3. Sender’s authentication method
  4. Maximum attachment size

Answer: B. The limits between message parts

Explanation: MIME multipart messages use a boundary delimiter to separate their individual parts, such as plain text and attachments. The boundary string does not specify maximum size or establish the sender’s identity.

Q220. Which action may be performed on emails waiting in an Outbox?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 20 January 2025]

  1. Delete already received messages
  2. Manage contacts
  3. View archives
  4. Edit mail not yet sent

Answer: D. Edit mail not yet sent

Explanation: An Outbox normally holds mail queued for sending and may allow modification before transmission. Received messages, contacts and archives are handled through other folders or dedicated sections.

Q219. Which Windows file extension most often identifies an executable installer?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 20 January 2025]

  1. .mp3
  2. .exe
  3. .jpg
  4. .txt

Answer: B. .exe

Explanation: Executable program and installer files on Windows commonly use the EXE extension. MP3 is audio, JPG is an image format, and TXT represents plain text documents rather than executable software.

Q218. Why does a multitasking desktop OS need dynamic memory management?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 20 January 2025]

  1. It runs one program only
  2. Memory allocation never changes
  3. Many processes need changing memory allocations
  4. It relies exclusively on fixed memory

Answer: C. Many processes need changing memory allocations

Explanation: Desktop systems run multiple processes whose memory demands vary during execution. Dynamic allocation and protection help manage available memory, whereas simpler embedded environments may have more fixed resource assumptions.

Q217. What does Windows User Account Control do before privileged settings change?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 20 January 2025]

  1. Adjust display brightness
  2. Perform automatic updates
  3. Measure CPU workload
  4. Ask for permission or credentials

Answer: D. Ask for permission or credentials

Explanation: User Account Control warns or requests approval when a task requires elevation of permissions. This reduces silent changes to protected settings, rather than measuring performance or acting as an update scheduler.

Q216. Which process is used to verify that digital data has not been altered?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 20 January 2025]

  1. Compression
  2. Hashing
  3. Duplication
  4. Caching

Answer: B. Hashing

Explanation: A cryptographic hash can provide a compact digest used to detect unintended or unauthorised changes in data. Compression reduces size; caching speeds access; duplication creates copies rather than proving integrity.

Q215. What is a basic reason to protect computer access with a password?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 20 January 2025]

  1. Enable printing
  2. Add an authentication barrier
  3. Reduce installed applications
  4. Improve network signal strength

Answer: B. Add an authentication barrier

Explanation: Passwords are a basic authentication factor that limits casual access to accounts and resources. They do not affect wireless signal strength or automatically prevent all attacks; strong passwords and additional safeguards are important.

Q214. Which behaviour may indicate infection by a computer virus?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 20 January 2025]

  1. More free drive space
  2. Guaranteed improved security
  3. Unexpected errors and slow performance
  4. Faster system startup

Answer: C. Unexpected errors and slow performance

Explanation: Unexpected crashes, error messages and unusual slowdowns may indicate malware, although they can also result from benign faults. Checking with reputable security tools is appropriate rather than treating symptoms as conclusive proof.

Q213. What is the chief benefit of inserting and deleting slides in a PowerPoint presentation?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 (held 18 January 2025)]

  1. Applying templates separately
  2. Automatically embedding multimedia
  3. Reorganising and adjusting content
  4. Enhancing transition effects

Answer: C. Reorganising and adjusting content

Explanation: Insertion and deletion make it possible to refine a presentation’s structure as topics are added or removed. This keeps the material ordered for its audience. Slide transitions and multimedia features are separate choices that do not depend on this basic organising operation.

Q212. Why would a user apply a PowerPoint template when beginning a presentation?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 (held 18 January 2025)]

  1. Consistent professional appearance
  2. Automatic addition of every media file
  3. Instant creation of interactive quizzes
  4. Automatic complex animations

Answer: A. Consistent professional appearance

Explanation: A template gives slides coordinated layouts, fonts, colours and design elements. It helps multiple slides look consistent and saves repetitive formatting effort. The template does not necessarily provide animations, interactive quizzes or automatically chosen multimedia content.

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle (held 18 January 2025)]

  1. Both statements
  2. Neither statement
  3. Only statement 2
  4. Only statement 1

Answer: A. Both statements

Explanation: Ordinary RAM is volatile, so data must be saved to nonvolatile storage before power is removed. ROM or other nonvolatile firmware stores startup instructions needed for initialisation. These are contrasting roles within a computer’s memory hierarchy.

Q210. Which kind of ROM can be electrically erased and programmed again many times?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle (held 18 January 2025)]

  1. Mask ROM
  2. EPROM
  3. PROM
  4. EEPROM

Answer: D. EEPROM

Explanation: Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory can be erased and rewritten through electrical signals. Ordinary EPROM historically requires ultraviolet light for erasure, whereas PROM is programmed only once. EEPROM is useful for maintaining reprogrammable settings without continuous power.

Q209. For a CPU, assess:
(i) clock speed regulates instruction-cycle timing;
(ii) cache speeds access to frequently used data and instructions.

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle (held 18 January 2025)]

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true
  2. Only (ii) is true
  3. Only (i) is true
  4. Both are false

Answer: A. Both (i) and (ii) are true

Explanation: Processor clocks coordinate internal operations, although performance also depends on architecture and work per cycle. Cache retains frequently needed instructions and data close to the processor, reducing average access latency compared with repeatedly reading slower main memory.

Q208. Why does dynamic RAM require regular refresh operations?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle (held 18 January 2025)]

  1. To clear unused files
  2. To let the CPU execute new instructions
  3. To eliminate interference from magnetic fields
  4. To replenish charge in memory-cell capacitors

Answer: D. To replenish charge in memory-cell capacitors

Explanation: DRAM represents stored bits with electrical charges in microscopic capacitors. Because charge leaks away, circuitry periodically refreshes the cells to maintain stored values. Static RAM does not use this same capacitor-refresh mechanism, though it still requires power to retain information.

Q207. Which technology enables voice or video communication directly through a compatible web browser?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 18 January 2025]

  1. FTP
  2. Email
  3. VoIP by itself
  4. WebRTC

Answer: D. WebRTC

Explanation: WebRTC provides browser-oriented real-time media and data communication APIs. Voice over IP is a broader technology family, but WebRTC specifically supports browser-to-browser voice and video without a dedicated standalone application.

Q206. What is electronic mail fundamentally designed to do?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 18 January 2025]

  1. Perform secure payments
  2. Transmit digital messages over networks
  3. Replace all cloud storage
  4. Make internet voice calls

Answer: B. Transmit digital messages over networks

Explanation: Email delivers digital messages to recipients over computer networks using standard protocols and mail systems. It is not principally a payment method, a file-storage platform or a real-time calling system.

Q205. What operation can Windows File Explorer directly perform?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 18 January 2025]

  1. Create user accounts
  2. Copy or move files
  3. Change all system policies
  4. Run hardware diagnostics

Answer: B. Copy or move files

Explanation: File Explorer manages locations and file operations such as copying, moving, renaming and deleting data. Account administration and advanced diagnostics belong to different system-management tools.

Q204. Which kind of virus attacks disk boot sectors or the master boot record?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 18 January 2025]

  1. Macro virus
  2. Resident virus
  3. Direct-action virus
  4. Boot-sector virus

Answer: D. Boot-sector virus

Explanation: Boot-sector viruses target disk-startup code, historically including floppy boot records and hard-disk master boot records. Macro viruses infect documents, while resident and direct-action describe different modes of virus activity.

Q203. Which protocol family is commonly used to encrypt sensitive data during transmission?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 18 January 2025]

  1. Decryption
  2. Hashing alone
  3. SSL/TLS
  4. Compression

Answer: C. SSL/TLS

Explanation: SSL and its successor TLS provide cryptographic protection for many network connections, including HTTPS. Hashing and compression alone do not encrypt a live communications channel or authenticate it as TLS can.

Q202. Which type of software installs operating-system patches without manual intervention?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2024 cycle, held 18 January 2025]

  1. Intrusion detection
  2. Secure Boot
  3. Firewall
  4. Patch management software

Answer: D. Patch management software

Explanation: Patch management tools distribute and schedule security and maintenance updates across systems. Intrusion detection observes suspicious activity, Secure Boot validates startup components, and firewalls regulate network access.

Q201. Consider these statements:
I. The Majorana 1 chip is expected to contribute to quantum computing.
II. Amazon Web Services introduced Majorana 1.
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which are correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims 2025]

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III

Answer: C. I and III only

Explanation: Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services, announced Majorana 1 in 2025, so statement II is incorrect. The technology was presented as a quantum-computing advance. Deep learning uses multilayer neural networks and is a specialised branch of machine learning; statements I and III hold.

Q200. How many secret keys are ordinarily shared for both encryption and decryption in symmetric cryptography?

[SSC CHSL Tier-II, 18 November 2024]

  1. Two
  2. One
  3. None
  4. Three

Answer: B. One

Explanation: Symmetric cryptography uses the same secret key, or equivalent shared secret, on both ends of communication. It is generally efficient for bulk encryption. The main practical challenge is distributing and protecting the key securely between sender and receiver.

Q199. An online retail marketplace selling products directly to consumers best illustrates which e-commerce category?

[SSC CHSL Tier-II, 18 November 2024]

  1. B2C
  2. B2B
  3. C2B
  4. C2C

Answer: A. B2C

Explanation: Business-to-consumer commerce covers transactions where a business sells goods or services to individual end users. It differs from B2B transactions between firms, C2C exchanges between consumers and C2B arrangements where individuals supply value or services to businesses.

Q198. What does the abbreviation WWW represent?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor 2022 recruitment (held 17 November 2024), GS Paper II]

  1. World Wide Web
  2. Wide World Web
  3. World Web Wide
  4. Web World Wide

Answer: A. World Wide Web

Explanation: The World Wide Web is a system of linked resources accessed with browsers over the internet. Tim Berners-Lee developed its foundational technologies, including HTML, HTTP and URLs. The web is one major service carried by the broader internet infrastructure.

Q197. Which technology uses a decentralised ledger of linked records, notably in cryptocurrencies?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor 2022 recruitment (held 17 November 2024), GS Paper II]

  1. Artificial intelligence
  2. Cloud computing
  3. Blockchain
  4. Internet of Things

Answer: C. Blockchain

Explanation: Blockchain links transaction records into blocks secured using cryptographic techniques and distributed agreement mechanisms. Cryptocurrency systems such as Bitcoin use this architecture to maintain a shared record without relying on a single central bookkeeper. It differs from AI and cloud computing.

Q196. In a default new Microsoft Word 2016 document, what is the usual body-text font size?

[SSC CHSL, 8 July 2024, Shift 2]

  1. 12 points
  2. 14 points
  3. 10 points
  4. 11 points

Answer: D. 11 points

Explanation: Word 2016 normally creates blank documents using the Calibri 11-point Normal style, although templates and user settings may change that choice. Font size is expressed in points, where one point is one seventy-second of an inch in standard typography.

Q195. Which of these is system software?

[SSC CHSL, 8 July 2024, Shift 1]

  1. Adobe Photoshop
  2. Microsoft Windows
  3. Google Chrome
  4. Microsoft Word

Answer: B. Microsoft Windows

Explanation: Microsoft Windows is an operating system and therefore system software. It coordinates hardware resources, files and running programs. Photoshop, Chrome and Word are applications intended for particular user tasks and depend on an operating system to run.

Q194. Which keyboard combination inserts a new slide in Microsoft PowerPoint?

[SSC CHSL, 2 July 2024, Shift 4]

  1. Ctrl + N
  2. Ctrl + D
  3. Ctrl + M
  4. Ctrl + I

Answer: C. Ctrl + M

Explanation: Ctrl + M creates a new slide in the current PowerPoint presentation. Ctrl + N ordinarily starts a new presentation, whereas Ctrl + D duplicates a selected object or slide in appropriate contexts. Shortcut meanings depend on the active application.

Q193. What is another name for symmetric-key encryption?

[SSC CHSL, 1 July 2024, Shift 4]

  1. Public-key encryption
  2. Asymmetric encryption
  3. Conventional encryption
  4. Hybrid encryption

Answer: C. Conventional encryption

Explanation: Conventional encryption is a traditional name for symmetric or secret-key cryptography. The two parties rely on a shared secret instead of a public-private key pair. Algorithms such as AES belong to this family and are widely used for protecting data.

Q192. Which term describes an interoperable network of shared three-dimensional virtual worlds with digital-property rights?

[UPSC CSE Prelims 2024]

  1. Big data analytics
  2. Cryptography
  3. Metaverse
  4. Virtual matrix

Answer: C. Metaverse

Explanation: The metaverse is the concept of interconnected persistent digital spaces in which people interact through avatars and may possess virtual objects. Big-data analytics studies datasets, while cryptography protects information. Neither term specifically denotes interconnected immersive worlds and digital ownership.

Q191. The term qubit, a fundamental two-level information unit, belongs to which field?

[UPSC CDS-I 2024 (General Knowledge)]

  1. Classical computing
  2. Classical cryptography
  3. Quantum computing
  4. Laser physics

Answer: C. Quantum computing

Explanation: A quantum bit or qubit is the basic unit of quantum information. Unlike a classical bit fixed at zero or one, a qubit can exist in superpositions until measurement. Quantum processors use controlled qubit operations to perform certain kinds of computation.

Q190. What is unauthorized malicious entry into a computer system commonly called?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Phishing
  2. Hacking
  3. Data mining
  4. Spoofing
  5. Data backup

Answer: B. Hacking

Explanation: Hacking can describe gaining access to or manipulating a system, particularly when unauthorized. Phishing is a narrower social-engineering technique for stealing information by impersonation, while data mining is an analytical technique.

Q189. Which online deception method is used to steal passwords or personal identity details?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Phishing
  2. Data encryption
  3. Cloud storage
  4. Firewall
  5. Debugging

Answer: A. Phishing

Explanation: Phishing tricks people into handing over confidential information through messages or fake sites that impersonate trusted organizations. Users should examine sender details and websites before entering credentials or financial information.

Q188. In email, what are the expansions of CC and BCC?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Current Copy and Blind Copy
  2. Carbon Copy and Blind Carbon Copy
  3. Central Communication and Backup Communication
  4. Clear Copy and Backup Carbon Copy
  5. Contact Copy and Blind Contact Copy

Answer: B. Carbon Copy and Blind Carbon Copy

Explanation: CC stands for Carbon Copy and BCC for Blind Carbon Copy. CC addressees are typically visible to recipients, whereas BCC addressees remain hidden from other recipients to protect mailing-list privacy.

Q187. Which application is principally used for sending and receiving electronic mail?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Adobe Photoshop
  2. Microsoft Word
  3. Microsoft Outlook
  4. VLC Media Player
  5. AutoCAD

Answer: C. Microsoft Outlook

Explanation: Microsoft Outlook is an email and personal information manager supporting messages, contacts and calendars. Photoshop is for digital image editing and VLC plays multimedia content, neither serving as a conventional mail application.

Q186. In an email address, what lies on the two sides of the @ symbol?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Username and password
  2. Local name and domain
  3. Email and telephone number
  4. Sender and receiver
  5. Two server names

Answer: B. Local name and domain

Explanation: A standard email address contains a local part, followed by @, then a domain name. The domain identifies the mail-routing destination, while the local part specifies the mailbox within that domain.

Q185. What Excel feature keeps particular rows or columns visible while scrolling?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Headers
  2. Freeze Panes
  3. Gridlines
  4. Active Cell
  5. Merge Cells

Answer: B. Freeze Panes

Explanation: Freeze Panes holds selected rows or columns in a fixed screen position while other worksheet content scrolls. This helps users retain context, especially heading rows, within large spreadsheet tables.

Q184. Who is commonly called the father of the computer?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Alan Turing
  2. Steve Jobs
  3. Bill Gates
  4. Charles Babbage
  5. John von Neumann

Answer: D. Charles Babbage

Explanation: Charles Babbage conceived the mechanical Difference Engine and the programmable Analytical Engine. His work on calculating machines helped establish ideas central to later general-purpose computer design, earning the familiar historical title.

Q183. Which malware can reproduce itself and travel between systems without a host file?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Virus
  2. Worm
  3. Trojan
  4. Spyware
  5. Ransomware

Answer: B. Worm

Explanation: Worms are self-replicating malicious programs capable of propagating through networks. Unlike ordinary file-infecting viruses, they do not have to attach to a separate executable, although they may still exploit security vulnerabilities.

Q182. Which Microsoft program is mainly used to create and edit text documents?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Excel
  2. PowerPoint
  3. Word
  4. Access
  5. Photoshop

Answer: C. Word

Explanation: Word contains word-processing features for text, tables, page layout and document formatting. Excel is intended primarily for spreadsheets, Access for databases, and PowerPoint for creating presentations.

Q181. What are the concentric circular recording paths on a hard disk known as?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Sectors
  2. Clusters
  3. Blocks
  4. Tracks
  5. Cylinders

Answer: D. Tracks

Explanation: A hard disk divides each platter surface into circular tracks that are split further into sectors. A cylinder groups tracks at the same radius across surfaces, while clusters are file-system allocation units.

Q180. Which programming language category includes FORTRAN?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2024 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Assembly language
  2. Machine language
  3. High-level language
  4. Only scripting language
  5. Low-level language

Answer: C. High-level language

Explanation: FORTRAN, meaning Formula Translation, is an early high-level language created for mathematical and scientific calculations. It made programming numerical problems easier than expressing each operation through machine-code instructions.

Q179. Which firewall technique checks network-layer packet headers against filtering rules?

[SSC CHSL Tier-II, 2 November 2023, Shift 1]

  1. Circuit-level gateway
  2. Application gateway
  3. Packet filtering
  4. Network filtering

Answer: C. Packet filtering

Explanation: Packet-filtering firewalls inspect attributes such as source and destination IP addresses, transport protocol and ports, and apply allow-or-deny rules. An application gateway can inspect higher-level content, whereas circuit-level gateways manage connection sessions more abstractly.

Q178. Which POP email modes are supported: I. deleting messages after retrieval; II. keeping messages on the server?

[SSC CHSL Tier-II, 2 November 2023, Shift 1]

  1. Neither
  2. Only II
  3. Only I
  4. Both I and II

Answer: D. Both I and II

Explanation: Post Office Protocol clients can be configured to delete downloaded mail from the server or leave copies there, depending on implementation and settings. These arrangements are often described as delete and keep modes. POP is designed primarily for email retrieval.

Q177. The Page Setup dialog in Microsoft Office 365 is accessed principally from which tab?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Home
  2. Draw
  3. Layout
  4. Insert

Answer: C. Layout

Explanation: Word’s Layout tab contains page setup tools for margins, orientation, paper size and related document settings. The Home tab focuses on editing and formatting text, while Insert adds content such as tables and images. Tab locations can vary by application.

Q176. In an Excel worksheet, what is called a cell?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. A standalone data file
  2. A full worksheet
  3. The intersection of a row and a column
  4. A small chart

Answer: C. The intersection of a row and a column

Explanation: A spreadsheet cell lies at the intersection of a specific row and column. It can hold values, text or formulas and is identified by a reference such as B7. A workbook contains one or more worksheets with many such cells.

Q175. What does the SUM function perform in Excel 2019?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Multiplies a range
  2. Adds the supplied numeric values
  3. Counts cells
  4. Averages values

Answer: B. Adds the supplied numeric values

Explanation: SUM computes the arithmetic total of its numeric arguments or cell ranges. AVERAGE computes the mean, COUNT counts numeric entries, and PRODUCT multiplies supplied numbers. Knowing these common functions is fundamental to spreadsheet calculations and basic data analysis.

Q174. What is the purpose of Print Preview in a Word document?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Adding pictures
  2. Changing fonts
  3. Checking spelling
  4. Seeing the expected printed page layout

Answer: D. Seeing the expected printed page layout

Explanation: Print Preview shows how a document will be arranged on physical pages, including margins, page breaks and headers. It allows users to catch layout problems before printing. Editing text, spell-checking and adding images are separate document-authoring activities.

Q173. What is the main job of random access memory while a computer operates?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023 (26 October 2023)]

  1. To archive all files permanently
  2. To store software for years
  3. To hold data and programs presently needed by the CPU
  4. To control external devices independently

Answer: C. To hold data and programs presently needed by the CPU

Explanation: RAM is fast, directly accessible working memory holding instructions and data for active processes. It is generally volatile, so its contents disappear when power is lost. Persistent files and archives belong on nonvolatile secondary storage such as SSDs or hard disks.

Q172. Which backup medium can hold complete system images but often takes comparatively long to restore?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023 (26 October 2023)]

  1. Magnetic tape drive
  2. Network-attached storage appliance
  3. Solid-state drive
  4. DVD-RW disc

Answer: A. Magnetic tape drive

Explanation: Magnetic tape can efficiently hold large backup archives and is widely used for long-term retention. Because tape is sequential-access media, locating and restoring particular files can be slower than working with disk systems. Restoration performance depends on the backup configuration.

Q171. What does cache memory normally retain to improve the speed of a computer?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023 (26 October 2023)]

  1. Permanent copies of all files
  2. Frequently reused instructions and data
  3. Control signals for every peripheral
  4. All memory-allocation tables

Answer: B. Frequently reused instructions and data

Explanation: Cache is a small, fast memory tier positioned near or inside the processor. By retaining recently or repeatedly used data and instructions, it reduces the frequency of accesses to slower main memory. This improves average execution performance through locality of reference.

Q170. The small, very fast memory between the CPU and main RAM is called which kind of memory?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023 (26 October 2023)]

  1. Read-only memory
  2. Virtual memory
  3. Cache memory
  4. Secondary memory

Answer: C. Cache memory

Explanation: Processor cache holds recently accessed or predicted-useful data in faster memory than typical RAM. Multiple cache levels may sit on a modern processor. Virtual memory instead extends an address space through hardware and operating-system mechanisms, often using slower storage.

Q169. Expand the register abbreviation MAR in computer architecture.

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023 (26 October 2023)]

  1. Main Access Register
  2. Memory Access Register
  3. Memory Address Register
  4. Main Address Register

Answer: C. Memory Address Register

Explanation: The Memory Address Register holds the address of the memory location the processor intends to read or write. It is distinct from the Memory Data Register, which holds transferred data, and from the Program Counter, which tracks instruction addresses.

Q168. Which listed peripheral acts as an input device?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023 (26 October 2023)]

  1. Monitor
  2. Touchscreen
  3. Printer
  4. Speaker

Answer: B. Touchscreen

Explanation: A touchscreen detects finger or stylus interactions and supplies position and gesture information to the computer, so it acts as an input device. It can also display output. A normal monitor, printer and speaker primarily deliver information from the computer.

Q167. A company provides subscribers with internet connectivity. What type of organisation is this?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Web server
  2. Internet service provider
  3. Web browser
  4. URL

Answer: B. Internet service provider

Explanation: An internet service provider supplies the actual connectivity required to reach online services. A browser renders web pages, a web server hosts resources, and a URL identifies a resource rather than providing access.

Q166. Which traditional email program is an example of a graphical user agent?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Elm
  2. Mail
  3. Pine
  4. Netscape

Answer: D. Netscape

Explanation: Netscape included graphical email interfaces alongside its browsing products. Elm, Mail, and Pine are historically known as text-based mail clients, so they do not represent the graphical category asked in this question.

Q165. When email sender and recipient use the same computer system, how many user agents are required?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Six

Answer: A. Two

Explanation: A user agent is the software interface through which a person composes, sends, reads, and manages messages. One agent serves the sender and another the recipient, even if both accounts share a host.

Q164. Which of these is not a web browser?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Facebook
  2. Safari
  3. Chrome
  4. Opera

Answer: A. Facebook

Explanation: Facebook is a social-networking service accessed through apps or browsers. Safari, Chrome, and Opera are web-browser applications that request content from web servers and render web pages on the user’s device.

Q163. Where does Windows 11 File Explorer place the option to show hidden items?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Home
  2. File
  3. View
  4. Share

Answer: C. View

Explanation: The View menu controls how file and folder items appear in File Explorer. Showing hidden items alters visibility rather than sharing, copying, or opening files; it does not itself change their hidden attribute.

Q162. Which Windows keyboard shortcut copies a selected item?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Ctrl+Z
  2. Ctrl+C
  3. Ctrl+X
  4. Ctrl+V

Answer: B. Ctrl+C

Explanation: Ctrl+C copies the selection to the clipboard without removing the original. Ctrl+X cuts, Ctrl+V pastes the clipboard, and Ctrl+Z normally reverses the most recent supported action.

Q161. In Windows File Explorer, what does Num Lock plus the asterisk key display for a selected folder?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. All nested subfolders
  2. Properties of the item
  3. Only immediate contents
  4. Collapsed folder

Answer: A. All nested subfolders

Explanation: The numeric-keypad asterisk expands the selected folder’s entire visible subtree in the navigation pane. This differs from merely opening one folder or displaying the item’s Properties dialog box.

Q160. In computer-network security, what is a firewall?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. File manager
  2. Email-borne virus
  3. Traffic-filtering security control
  4. Network speed amplifier

Answer: C. Traffic-filtering security control

Explanation: Firewalls inspect or filter network connections according to security rules. They can run as software or hardware appliances. Their purpose is access control, rather than virus reproduction, file management, or increasing bandwidth.

Q159. Which description identifies a Trojan horse in cybersecurity?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Secure network protocol
  2. Traffic-monitoring utility
  3. Firewall against malware
  4. Malware disguised as legitimate software

Answer: D. Malware disguised as legitimate software

Explanation: Trojan programs rely on disguise or deceptive installation to gain access. Unlike self-propagating worms, Trojans normally require some form of user action or delivery mechanism and may install unwanted capabilities.

Q158. What is RAM primarily intended to hold while a computer is running?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Permanent documents
  2. Archived system backups
  3. Data actively used by the CPU
  4. Unused peripherals

Answer: C. Data actively used by the CPU

Explanation: RAM is fast working memory that holds the instructions and information currently needed by running programs. Ordinary RAM is volatile, so its contents are generally lost on power-off, unlike saved storage.

Q157. Why does a CPU benefit from cache memory?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Permanent file archiving
  2. Rapid access to frequently needed information
  3. Replacement of all system buses
  4. Assigning user passwords

Answer: B. Rapid access to frequently needed information

Explanation: Cache stores recently or frequently accessed instructions and data near the processor. Faster access lowers average memory latency, reducing the need to retrieve every repeated item from slower main memory.

Q156. Within CPU architecture, what does MAR stand for?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Main Access Register
  2. Memory Access Register
  3. Memory Address Register
  4. Main Address Register

Answer: C. Memory Address Register

Explanation: The Memory Address Register holds the address of the memory location being accessed. It does not ordinarily hold the fetched instruction or the program’s next instruction address, which are other register functions.

Q155. Which listed computer component can receive touch input?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2023, 26 October 2023]

  1. Monitor without touch capability
  2. Touchscreen
  3. Printer
  4. Speaker

Answer: B. Touchscreen

Explanation: A touchscreen is a combination of display and touch-input capability, letting users select and manipulate on-screen elements. Conventional printers and speakers provide output, while an ordinary non-touch monitor only displays visual information.

Q154. Which information-retrieval software package was developed by UNESCO?

[DSSSB Librarian, 10 July 2023, Shift 1]

  1. DSpace
  2. Sanjay
  3. CDS/ISIS
  4. Librarian

Answer: C. CDS/ISIS

Explanation: CDS/ISIS is a UNESCO-supported package for managing and retrieving structured bibliographic information. Its name expands to Computerised Documentation Service/Integrated Set of Information Systems. It became widely known in library and information centres for database-based cataloguing and searching.

Q153. For Word 2010, assess these statements:
(i) a template may be chosen when making a new document;
(ii) Shift + End jumps to the end of the entire document.

[SSC CHSL, 26 June 2023, Shift 1]

  1. Both false
  2. Both true
  3. First true, second false
  4. First false, second true

Answer: C. First true, second false

Explanation: Word offers predefined templates when creating documents, making statement one correct. Shift + End selects text to the end of the current line, rather than the whole document. Ctrl + End navigates to the end of a document, so statement two is false.

Q152. Which of the following are components of a computer system?

[CG Vyapam Teacher, 10 June 2023]

  1. CPU
  2. RAM
  3. Motherboard
  4. All of these

Answer: D. All of these

Explanation: The CPU executes instructions, RAM provides active working memory, and the motherboard connects these and many other components. A functional computer integrates hardware and software; all three listed physical components participate in the system’s operation.

Q151. Microsoft Office is best classified as which of the following?

[CG Vyapam Teacher, 10 June 2023]

  1. System software
  2. Virus
  3. Software
  4. Hardware

Answer: C. Software

Explanation: Microsoft Office is an application software suite containing tools for word processing, spreadsheets and presentations. Its programs run under an operating system and help users complete productivity tasks. It is neither physical equipment nor malicious software.

Q150. A computer virus is a kind of ______.

[CG Vyapam Teacher, 10 June 2023]

  1. Spreadsheet
  2. Software
  3. Operating system
  4. None of the above

Answer: B. Software

Explanation: A computer virus is malicious software designed to attach to files or programs and reproduce when activated. Viruses may corrupt information or disrupt systems. They differ from legitimate operating systems and spreadsheets, even though all are ultimately collections of executable instructions or data.

Q149. The digital divide refers primarily to what inequality?

[MPPSC State Services Prelims 2022 cycle (held 21 May 2023), Paper II]

  1. Unequal access to digital technology and the internet
  2. Different opinions about technology
  3. Unequal access to food only
  4. Differences in household income alone

Answer: A. Unequal access to digital technology and the internet

Explanation: The digital divide is the gap between people or groups that can effectively access and use digital devices and the internet and those who cannot. Infrastructure, affordability, skills and accessibility all contribute to unequal access to online services and opportunities.

Q148. Which Excel 365 keyboard shortcut applies italic formatting to a selected cell?

[SSC CHSL, 16 March 2023, Shift 3]

  1. Ctrl + 4
  2. Ctrl + 3
  3. Ctrl + 6
  4. Ctrl + 2

Answer: B. Ctrl + 3

Explanation: Ctrl + 3 toggles italic formatting in Excel for selected cells or content. Ctrl + 2 applies bold and Ctrl + 4 applies underline. Another commonly recognised shortcut for italics is Ctrl + I, depending on program and keyboard layout.

Q147. Which programming language should a candidate choose as a standard object-oriented language?

[SSC CHSL, 15 March 2023, Shift 3]

  1. Java or Pascal
  2. Pascal
  3. BASIC
  4. Java

Answer: D. Java

Explanation: Java is a class-based object-oriented programming language with inheritance, encapsulation and polymorphism. Traditional BASIC and Pascal are generally taught primarily as procedural languages, although modern dialects can add object-oriented features. The unambiguous option in the stated exam is Java.

Q146. In Excel 365, which shortcut repeats the preceding action when repetition is supported?

[SSC CHSL, 14 March 2023, Shift 2]

  1. Ctrl + Z
  2. Shift + Z
  3. Ctrl + Y
  4. Shift + Y

Answer: C. Ctrl + Y

Explanation: Ctrl + Y repeats the most recent repeatable action in Excel and can also redo an undone action in appropriate circumstances. Ctrl + Z performs Undo. Repeating a formatting step across several cells can save time during spreadsheet editing.

Q145. To which computer generation is the IBM System/360 family commonly assigned?

[SSC CHSL, 13 March 2023, Shift 3]

  1. Second
  2. First
  3. Third
  4. Fourth

Answer: C. Third

Explanation: IBM’s System/360 was announced in 1964 and is conventionally associated with the third generation of computers. That period introduced integrated-circuit technology and more compatible system families. The earlier two generations centred on vacuum tubes and individual transistors.

Q144. Which shortcut switches into Print Preview in Microsoft Word?

[SSC CHSL, 9 March 2023, Shift 2]

  1. Ctrl + Alt + P
  2. Ctrl + Alt + I
  3. Alt + P
  4. Alt + I

Answer: B. Ctrl + Alt + I

Explanation: The Ctrl + Alt + I keyboard combination toggles Print Preview in supported versions of Microsoft Word. Print Preview displays how pagination and layout will appear on paper. By contrast, Ctrl + P opens the Print screen and related settings.

Q143. Which medium is not based on magnetic data storage?

[SSC CGL Tier-II, 7 March 2023]

  1. Winchester hard disk
  2. Floppy disk
  3. Flash memory card
  4. Magnetic tape

Answer: C. Flash memory card

Explanation: A flash memory card stores information electronically in semiconductor cells and contains no magnetic recording medium. Hard disks, floppy disks and magnetic tape record patterns of magnetisation. Solid-state cards are generally compact and withstand movement better than rotating disks.

Q142. Which Excel shortcut selects the entire current worksheet row?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 7 March 2023)]

  1. Shift + Page Down
  2. Ctrl + Spacebar
  3. Shift + Page Up
  4. Shift + Spacebar

Answer: D. Shift + Spacebar

Explanation: Shift + Spacebar selects the active row in an Excel worksheet. Ctrl + Spacebar instead selects the entire column. These shortcuts let users apply formatting or perform row and column operations without dragging the mouse across hundreds of cells.

Q141. What does Ctrl + E do to the selected paragraph in Microsoft Word 365?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 7 March 2023)]

  1. Justifies it
  2. Centres it
  3. Aligns right
  4. Displays File options

Answer: B. Centres it

Explanation: Ctrl + E centres a paragraph horizontally between its margins in Microsoft Word. Ctrl + L aligns left, Ctrl + R aligns right and Ctrl + J justifies. Such shortcuts apply paragraph formatting rather than adding spaces manually.

Q140. Which statement about Word line spacing is true? P. It controls vertical separation of lines. Q. It controls diagonal separation of lines.

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 7 March 2023)]

  1. P only
  2. P and Q
  3. Neither
  4. Q only

Answer: A. P only

Explanation: Line spacing determines the vertical space between adjacent lines of text in a paragraph. It may be single, double or set to a specific value. The concept does not describe diagonal separation, so only statement P is correct.

Q139. In Excel, what does MATCH(12,{10,13,30,40,60},1) return?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 7 March 2023)]

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. #N/A
  4. 2

Answer: B. 1

Explanation: With match_type equal to one, MATCH finds the largest sorted value not exceeding the lookup value and returns its position. Ten is the largest entry at most twelve, and it is in position one. The resulting value is therefore 1.

Q138. Which CPU register specifies the address of the memory location currently being accessed?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 7 March 2023)]

  1. Stack Pointer
  2. Program Counter
  3. Memory Address Register
  4. Instruction Register

Answer: C. Memory Address Register

Explanation: The Memory Address Register holds the address used for a current memory read or write. The Program Counter points to the next instruction in normal execution; the Instruction Register contains the instruction being processed. These registers serve different roles.

Q137. Which conventional connector is also called a mouse port in older personal computers?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 7 March 2023)]

  1. VGA
  2. HDMI
  3. FireWire
  4. PS/2

Answer: D. PS/2

Explanation: PS/2 is a small round six-pin connector historically used with keyboards and mice, frequently distinguished by colour coding. VGA primarily carries analogue video, HDMI digital audio and video, and FireWire supports high-speed data transfer with peripherals.

Q136. What term describes groups of signal lines that carry data and control signals between computer components?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 7 March 2023)]

  1. Buses
  2. Control Units
  3. Registers
  4. Caches

Answer: A. Buses

Explanation: Computer buses provide shared communication pathways for data, addresses and control information among system components. A processor register stores a small amount of data internally; cache is high-speed memory. A control unit coordinates operations rather than being the communication pathway itself.

Q135. Which of these does not belong to the LibreOffice suite?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. Writer
  2. LibreOffice Excel
  3. Calc
  4. Impress

Answer: B. LibreOffice Excel

Explanation: LibreOffice includes Writer for word processing, Calc for spreadsheets, and Impress for presentations. Excel is Microsoft’s spreadsheet product, not an application named LibreOffice Excel in that suite.

Q134. Which Windows utility provides settings for hardware and system configuration?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. Run
  2. Control Panel
  3. Taskbar
  4. Help and Support

Answer: B. Control Panel

Explanation: Control Panel traditionally groups administrative settings for devices, programs, accounts, and system options. The Run dialog launches commands, whereas the taskbar and Help interface have separate navigation and assistance roles.

Q133. Which of these web browsers was developed by Microsoft?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. Opera
  2. Chrome
  3. Edge
  4. Brave

Answer: C. Edge

Explanation: Microsoft Edge is the browser developed and maintained by Microsoft. Chrome is associated with Google, Opera with Opera Software, and Brave with Brave Software, although these products may share Chromium-based components.

Q132. In which Gmail folder are deleted messages normally placed?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. Trash
  2. Spam
  3. Inbox
  4. Drafts

Answer: A. Trash

Explanation: Deleting a Gmail message usually moves it to Trash before permanent deletion, subject to service retention rules. Spam is for suspected unsolicited content, Inbox for received mail, and Drafts for unfinished messages.

Q131. Which historic browser pioneered showing pictures inline with webpage text?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. Mozilla
  2. Mosaic
  3. Lynx
  4. Opera

Answer: B. Mosaic

Explanation: NCSA Mosaic helped popularise graphical browsing and inline images during the early web. Earlier text-based browsers such as Lynx did not present pages in the same graphical, inline-image format.

Q130. What kind of software secretly records typed passwords and keystrokes?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. Computer virus generally
  2. Keylogger
  3. Worm generally
  4. Ransomware

Answer: B. Keylogger

Explanation: A keylogger collects keyboard input and can reveal confidential credentials or messages. It may be implemented as malicious software or hardware. Ransomware chiefly extorts by restricting access, while worms primarily self-propagate.

Q129. The malware family CryptoLocker is an example of what?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. Ransomware
  2. Adware
  3. Spyware
  4. Worm

Answer: A. Ransomware

Explanation: CryptoLocker is known for encrypting victims’ files and demanding payment for decryption, making it ransomware. Advertising software and spyware may be harmful but do not necessarily encrypt files for extortion.

Q128. In Microsoft Word, what does Ctrl+E do?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. Justify paragraph
  2. Centre-align paragraph
  3. Right-align paragraph
  4. Open file menu

Answer: B. Centre-align paragraph

Explanation: Ctrl+E applies centre alignment to the current paragraph or selected paragraphs. Justification uses a different shortcut, and right alignment is not the same as placing text symmetrically between margins.

Q127. What is the result of =MATCH(12,{10,13,30,40,60},1) in Excel?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 7 March 2023]

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. #N/A
  4. 2

Answer: B. 1

Explanation: With match type 1, MATCH locates the largest sorted entry not exceeding the lookup value. Ten is the first eligible value when looking for twelve, so its one-based position is returned.

Q126. Which transport protocol segments application data for delivery across IP networks and supports ordered reliable transfer?

[SSC CGL Tier-II, 6 March 2023]

  1. PPP
  2. HTTP
  3. TCP
  4. SMTP

Answer: C. TCP

Explanation: Transmission Control Protocol uses sequence numbers, acknowledgments and retransmission to provide a reliable byte stream between endpoints. Internet Protocol addresses and forwards packets. PPP is a link-layer protocol, while HTTP and SMTP serve web browsing and electronic mail.

Q125. Which listed keyboard shortcut closes the Word application window?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Ctrl + F3
  2. Alt + F3
  3. Alt + F4
  4. Shift + F5

Answer: C. Alt + F4

Explanation: Alt + F4 is a common Windows shortcut for closing the active application window. A program may ask to save any unsaved document first. It differs from navigation or formatting shortcuts and works across many Windows desktop applications.

Q124. Which keyboard combination creates a blank new workbook in Excel 2010?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Ctrl + N
  2. Alt + Shift + W
  3. Alt + Shift + N
  4. Ctrl + W

Answer: A. Ctrl + N

Explanation: Ctrl + N creates a new workbook from the default blank workbook template in Excel. Ctrl + W normally closes the active workbook window. Creating a workbook is different from adding a worksheet to an already open file.

Q123. Regarding Excel MATCH(), assess:
P. It returns a matched item’s relative position.
Q. Syntax includes an optional match_type.
R. Every argument is mandatory.

Which statements hold?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Q only
  2. All P, Q and R
  3. P and R only
  4. P and Q only

Answer: D. P and Q only

Explanation: MATCH locates an item within a lookup array and reports its relative position. Its syntax is MATCH(lookup_value, lookup_array, [match_type]), making match_type optional. Since all arguments are not mandatory, P and Q are true but R is false.

Q122. Which buttons normally appear on Word 2010’s Quick Access Toolbar by default?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Undo, Redo, Name
  2. Undo, Redo, Cut
  3. Paste, Redo, Copy
  4. Save, Undo, Redo

Answer: D. Save, Undo, Redo

Explanation: The default Quick Access Toolbar provides frequently used commands such as Save, Undo and Redo. Users may customise it with other commands or move its display position. This toolbar supplies quick access without changing the document’s contents directly.

Q121. Which port transmits a byte as a sequence of individual bits, rather than sending all its bits together?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Parallel port
  2. USB as a category of display ports
  3. Serial port
  4. Display port

Answer: C. Serial port

Explanation: A serial connection sends data bits sequentially along a communication path. Traditional serial ports were used for modems and other peripherals. In contrast, a classic parallel interface places several bits on multiple signal lines at the same time.

Q120. Which storage item is commonly called a flash drive?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Disk array
  2. Hard disk drive
  3. Solid-state drive as a system disk
  4. USB pen drive

Answer: D. USB pen drive

Explanation: USB pen drives store information in nonvolatile flash memory and are widely called flash drives. Solid-state drives also use flash technology, but the everyday name pen drive refers to the portable USB storage device identified by this question’s options.

Q119. Which claim about cache is incorrect?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Cache is slower than main memory
  2. Cache can hold near-term program data
  3. Cache buffers requests between CPU and RAM
  4. Cache retains currently needed data temporarily

Answer: A. Cache is slower than main memory

Explanation: Cache memory is designed to be faster, not slower, than ordinary main RAM. Its smaller capacity and proximity to the processor help reduce average instruction and data access time. The false comparison reverses the normal computer memory-speed hierarchy.

Q118. A scanner-based device that recognises printed characters is called what?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Trackball
  2. Digitiser
  3. Magnetic Ink Character Reader
  4. Optical Character Reader

Answer: D. Optical Character Reader

Explanation: Optical Character Recognition technology converts printed characters captured from an image into machine-readable text. MICR specialises in recognising characters printed with magnetic ink, often on bank cheques. A trackball and digitiser are different types of input devices.

Q117. Which processor register holds the most recently fetched instruction?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Memory Address Register
  2. Instruction Register
  3. Program Counter
  4. Memory Buffer Register

Answer: B. Instruction Register

Explanation: The Instruction Register receives the fetched instruction and retains it for decoding and execution. The Memory Address Register identifies memory locations, while the Program Counter keeps track of the instruction address to fetch next. The Memory Buffer Register transfers data.

Q116. Which of these is not a magnetic disk?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 6 March 2023)]

  1. Disk pack
  2. DVD
  3. Winchester disk
  4. Zip disk

Answer: B. DVD

Explanation: DVDs are optical media read with a laser. Winchester and Zip disks store magnetic patterns on rotating surfaces, as do conventional disk packs. Distinguishing optical from magnetic storage is important when classifying physical computer data-storage technologies.

Q115. What Windows keyboard command opens File Explorer?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 6 March 2023]

  1. Windows+E
  2. Windows+R
  3. Windows+X
  4. Windows+W

Answer: A. Windows+E

Explanation: Windows+E opens the file-management interface called File Explorer. Windows+R opens Run and Windows+X opens the power-user menu, so those alternatives serve different tasks.

Q114. Which key combination opens the Properties dialog for a selected Windows item?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 6 March 2023]

  1. Alt+Shift+Space
  2. Ctrl+Shift+Space
  3. Alt+Enter
  4. Ctrl+Enter

Answer: C. Alt+Enter

Explanation: Alt+Enter shows Properties for the selected file, folder or other supported Windows item. Properties reveal metadata and editable settings such as attributes; the other combinations do not conventionally perform this action.

Q113. If you reply only to the original sender of a Gmail message, which command is appropriate?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 6 March 2023]

  1. Forward
  2. Reply and Forward
  3. Reply All
  4. Reply

Answer: D. Reply

Explanation: Reply addresses the response to the original sender, unlike Reply All, which can include other recipients. Forward prepares the original message for a different recipient and is not the same operation.

Q112. What malware can capture keystrokes using software or hardware?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 6 March 2023]

  1. Keylogger
  2. Rootkit
  3. Worm
  4. Trojan

Answer: A. Keylogger

Explanation: Keyloggers monitor keyboard events and can collect passwords and confidential typed information. Both physical devices and software can perform this function. Rootkits, worms and Trojans describe other malware behaviours.

Q111. Which malware attaches itself to a host program and replicates when the host runs?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 6 March 2023]

  1. Trojan
  2. Virus
  3. Adware
  4. Spyware

Answer: B. Virus

Explanation: A computer virus commonly embeds itself in or modifies another executable document or program, spreading when the host is run. Worms differ by propagating more independently, and Trojans rely on deceptive presentation.

Q110. Which Word Quick Access Toolbar claims are false?
P. Save, Undo, Redo appear by default.
Q. Cut, Undo, Redo appear by default.
R. More buttons can be added.
S. It cannot be displayed below the Ribbon.

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. Q and R only
  2. Q and S only
  3. P, Q and R
  4. All P, Q, R and S

Answer: B. Q and S only

Explanation: The Quick Access Toolbar defaults to Save, Undo and Redo and can be customised with additional commands. It may also be shown below the Ribbon. Consequently, Q wrongly identifies the default buttons and S wrongly denies the positioning option.

Q109. Which is an Excel mathematical or trigonometric function?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. TEXT
  2. ABS
  3. IF
  4. PMT

Answer: B. ABS

Explanation: ABS returns the absolute value of a number, removing its negative sign without changing its magnitude. TEXT is a formatting-related function, IF is logical, and PMT is financial. Spreadsheet functions are grouped into categories based on their purposes.

Q108. Each Excel worksheet cell is identified using a cell ______.

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. colour
  2. size
  3. rounding
  4. reference

Answer: D. reference

Explanation: A cell reference identifies its column and row, for example D12 for column D and row 12. References allow formulas to obtain values from other cells. They may be relative, absolute or mixed, depending on dollar-sign notation.

Q107. Which listed font effect is not provided by Word 2010’s Font dialog?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. Superscript
  2. Small caps
  3. Double strikethrough
  4. Equalize character height

Answer: D. Equalize character height

Explanation: Word offers effects including superscript, small caps and double strikethrough in its font settings. Equalize Character Height is not one of the standard options in that dialog. These effects modify appearance rather than changing the words stored in a document.

Q106. Which device is also known as a Visual Display Unit?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. Printer
  2. Scanner
  3. Trackball
  4. Monitor

Answer: D. Monitor

Explanation: A monitor is commonly called a Visual Display Unit because it displays a computer’s images, text and graphical interface. Printers produce hard copy, scanners capture information, and trackballs control on-screen pointers. These are separate peripheral functions.

Q105. A Line Printer Port is a traditional name for which port type?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. Parallel port
  2. VGA
  3. HDMI
  4. DisplayPort

Answer: A. Parallel port

Explanation: The traditional PC parallel printer interface, often labelled LPT, connected printers using multiple data lines. Modern printers more often use USB or networks. VGA, HDMI and DisplayPort are display interfaces, so they are unrelated to the old Line Printer Port designation.

Q104. Which description of secondary memory is false?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. It may serve for backup
  2. It normally retains information without power
  3. Some computers can run without local secondary storage
  4. It is inherently volatile memory

Answer: D. It is inherently volatile memory

Explanation: Secondary storage such as hard disks, SSDs and flash memory is generally nonvolatile, retaining information when electricity is removed. RAM, by contrast, is typically volatile. Network-booted or specially configured computers may operate without a conventional local disk.

Q103. Which memory type accelerates processing by making recently needed data available rapidly to the CPU?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. Backup memory
  2. Auxiliary memory
  3. Main memory
  4. Cache memory

Answer: D. Cache memory

Explanation: Cache memory is engineered for short access latency and normally retains useful copies of data already held elsewhere in the hierarchy. Keeping frequently accessed information close to the CPU reduces delays caused by repeated trips to relatively slower main memory.

Q102. Which processor category predates dual-core, triple-core and quad-core processors?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. Triple-core
  2. Single-core
  3. Dual-core
  4. Quad-core

Answer: B. Single-core

Explanation: A single-core processor contains one main processing core, the standard design before consumer multi-core chips became common. Dual-, triple- and quad-core designs integrate multiple cores and can execute multiple threads more efficiently when the software can parallelise tasks.

Q101. Which storage appliance delivers shared file storage over an Ethernet local-area network?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 3 March 2023)]

  1. Standalone SSD
  2. USB hard drive
  3. USB memory stick
  4. Network Attached Storage

Answer: D. Network Attached Storage

Explanation: Network Attached Storage devices expose files to network users through standard protocols over a LAN. They centralise storage and can provide access controls and redundancy. USB sticks and directly connected drives do not inherently deliver shared network file services.

Q100. A monitor is also commonly called what?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 3 March 2023]

  1. Printer
  2. Scanner
  3. Trackball
  4. Visual Display Unit

Answer: D. Visual Display Unit

Explanation: Visual Display Unit, or VDU, is an older term for a screen or computer monitor. Printers produce physical output; scanners capture input; trackballs control the on-screen pointer.

Q99. Which statement incorrectly describes secondary storage?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 3 March 2023]

  1. It is used for backups
  2. It usually retains data without power
  3. Computers can operate without separate secondary storage
  4. It is normally volatile

Answer: D. It is normally volatile

Explanation: Secondary storage, such as drives and flash media, generally retains contents after shutdown. Volatility is a characteristic of ordinary working RAM. Therefore describing standard secondary storage as volatile is the incorrect statement.

Q98. What are cookies that restore themselves after a user deletes them called?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 3 March 2023]

  1. Third-party cookies
  2. Zombie cookies
  3. Persistent cookies
  4. Session cookies

Answer: B. Zombie cookies

Explanation: Zombie cookies recreate their stored identifiers after apparent deletion through other storage mechanisms. Ordinary persistent cookies simply survive browser sessions for a configured duration; third-party cookies are defined by their domain context.

Q97. Which browser component is responsible for displaying a webpage?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 3 March 2023]

  1. Remote server
  2. Rendering engine
  3. URL resolver only
  4. Search engine

Answer: B. Rendering engine

Explanation: A browser’s rendering engine interprets the page’s document structure and style information to generate its visual presentation. A search engine finds pages online, and a web server supplies resources rather than displaying them locally.

Q96. What is a virus that stays embedded in system memory called?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 3 March 2023]

  1. File virus
  2. Resident virus
  3. Polymorphic virus
  4. Rootkit

Answer: B. Resident virus

Explanation: A resident virus installs code in memory so malicious activity can continue after the infected program’s initial execution. Polymorphism describes changing code appearance, whereas a rootkit is designed for stealthy privileged access.

Q95. Which malware is associated with unwanted adverts and pay-per-click income?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 3 March 2023]

  1. Worm
  2. Virus
  3. Spyware
  4. Adware

Answer: D. Adware

Explanation: Adware displays or injects advertising and may monetise impressions or clicks. It can be intrusive or malicious depending on its behaviour, but its central advertising purpose distinguishes it from worms and viruses.

Q94. Which File Explorer statement is incorrect?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 3 March 2023]

  1. The right pane is called the Navigation Pane
  2. The navigation pane shows folders
  3. Quick Access appears in the navigation area
  4. Navigation assists browsing

Answer: A. The right pane is called the Navigation Pane

Explanation: The navigation pane normally appears on the left side of File Explorer. The right pane typically displays files and folders for the selected location, so calling that area the navigation pane is inaccurate.

Q93. What shortcut bookmarks the current page in a mainstream browser?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 3 March 2023]

  1. Ctrl+N
  2. Ctrl+I
  3. Ctrl+B
  4. Ctrl+D

Answer: D. Ctrl+D

Explanation: Ctrl+D commonly opens the Add Bookmark or Add Favourite prompt. Ctrl+N usually opens a new window; the other combinations are assigned to different functions depending on the browser.

[SSC CGL Tier-II, 2 March 2023]

  1. Ctrl + K
  2. Ctrl + M
  3. Ctrl + H
  4. Ctrl + Z

Answer: A. Ctrl + K

Explanation: Ctrl + K brings up a hyperlink insertion interface in Word and numerous other applications. A hyperlink may point to a website, file, email address or place within a document. Ctrl + H normally opens Find and Replace.

Q91. Which Excel interface element directly below the title bar groups most commands on tabs?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. Scrollbars
  2. Status bar
  3. Ruler
  4. Ribbon

Answer: D. Ribbon

Explanation: The Ribbon organises Excel commands into tabs and groups across the top of the application window. The status bar appears near the bottom and may display calculation summaries. Scrollbars navigate through worksheet areas rather than present grouped commands.

Q90. Which Word printing option is used when selecting specified page numbers rather than the entire document?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. Print All Pages
  2. Print Current Page
  3. Print Selection
  4. Custom Print

Answer: D. Custom Print

Explanation: Custom Print allows users to specify particular pages or ranges, such as 2-4 and 8, instead of printing every page. Print Current Page outputs the active page, while Print Selection restricts output to selected text where supported.

Q89. Which Excel reference identifies column A, row 10?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. A-10
  2. 10A
  3. A10
  4. A:10

Answer: C. A10

Explanation: Excel cell references normally place the column letters before the row number, so A10 indicates column A and row 10. Formulas can then use this reference directly. Dollar signs may be added to lock a row or column during copying.

Q88. In Word 365, shading changes what property of selected text or paragraph?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. Colour around the text
  2. Background colour behind the text
  3. Colour of the characters
  4. Font size

Answer: B. Background colour behind the text

Explanation: Shading applies a fill or background colour behind selected text or a paragraph. Font Color changes the characters themselves, and borders can create lines around paragraphs. These separate controls let document authors highlight material without changing its wording.

Q87. Which storage medium is sometimes described as an electronic disk?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. USB stick
  2. Network storage server
  3. Solid-state drive
  4. External USB hard drive

Answer: C. Solid-state drive

Explanation: A solid-state drive uses integrated circuits rather than moving magnetic platters to retain data. Its electronic storage and lack of mechanical read heads make it different from a traditional hard drive, even though both appear as disks to an operating system.

Q86. Which high-speed storage element inside the CPU holds data during immediate processing?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. Arithmetic Logic Unit
  2. Auxiliary memory
  3. Control unit
  4. Registers

Answer: D. Registers

Explanation: Processor registers are tiny, extremely fast storage locations used for operands, addresses and intermediate results. An ALU performs calculations; a control unit coordinates instruction execution. Neither performs the same short-term storage role as a register file.

Q85. Which statement about cache is wrong?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. It may retain short-term data
  2. It permanently stores all user data
  3. It is faster than main RAM
  4. Its capacity is usually small

Answer: B. It permanently stores all user data

Explanation: A processor cache is small and relatively fast, holding temporary copies of selected instructions or data. It is not designed for permanent personal-file storage. Information normally persists on nonvolatile devices such as SSDs, hard drives or memory cards.

Q84. Which memory communicates most directly with the CPU in the conventional primary-versus-secondary-memory classification?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. Cache
  2. Backup
  3. Main memory
  4. Auxiliary memory

Answer: C. Main memory

Explanation: Main memory holds active program instructions and data for processor access; secondary or auxiliary memory retains larger collections of data more persistently. Modern CPUs include caches that mediate many accesses, but in the traditional classification the answer is main memory.

Q83. Which register retains an instruction fetched in advance but not yet ready for immediate execution?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. Current Instruction Register
  2. Memory Address Register
  3. Program Counter
  4. Instruction Buffer Register

Answer: D. Instruction Buffer Register

Explanation: In classic processor instruction sequencing, an Instruction Buffer Register holds a prefetched instruction awaiting execution. The Current Instruction Register holds the instruction actively being interpreted. The Memory Address Register specifies an address, and the Program Counter tracks instruction order.

Q82. A conventional VGA connector has how many signal-contact holes?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle (held 2 March 2023)]

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 18
  4. 15

Answer: D. 15

Explanation: The familiar blue VGA connector has fifteen contacts arranged in three rows of five. VGA is an analogue video interface historically common for linking monitors and projectors to computers. It differs physically and electrically from HDMI and DisplayPort.

Q81. Which Word print option specifies a custom list of pages?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 2 March 2023]

  1. Print All Pages
  2. Print Current Page
  3. Print Selection
  4. Custom Print

Answer: D. Custom Print

Explanation: Custom printing lets the user select page ranges or particular page numbers for output. Printing a current page or highlighted selection is narrower and does not express arbitrary page lists.

Q80. What does Shading do in MS Word?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 2 March 2023]

  1. Colour outside selected text
  2. Change background behind selected text
  3. Change text glyph colour
  4. Enable a pop-up effect

Answer: B. Change background behind selected text

Explanation: Shading adds a background fill to selected text or paragraph areas. It differs from Font Color, which changes the letters themselves, and from text effects unrelated to background colouring.

Q79. What data-transfer activity sends information from a customer’s computer to a server?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 2 March 2023]

  1. Browsing
  2. Uploading
  3. Forwarding
  4. Downloading

Answer: B. Uploading

Explanation: Uploading transfers a file or data from a local device towards a remote service. Downloading moves data in the opposite direction, while browsing and forwarding are broader activities rather than the directional transfer requested.

Q78. Outlook, Gmail and Yandex can all be examples of what?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 2 March 2023]

  1. Only Outlook and Yandex are email services
  2. Only Yandex is an email service
  3. Email-service providers
  4. Only Outlook is an email service

Answer: C. Email-service providers

Explanation: All three names refer to widely used email products or providers. Their user interfaces and ownership differ, but all enable electronic message transmission, so excluding any one of them is mistaken.

Q77. Which type of cookies may track users across unrelated websites?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 2 March 2023]

  1. Persistent first-party cookies only
  2. Third-party cookies
  3. Zombie cookies only
  4. Session cookies only

Answer: B. Third-party cookies

Explanation: Third-party cookies can be set by services embedded on multiple websites, enabling cross-site tracking if permitted by browser privacy controls. Persistence describes lifetime, while zombie behaviour concerns recreation after deletion.

Q76. What malware is commonly disguised as an ordinary legitimate application?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 2 March 2023]

  1. Trojan
  2. Ransomware
  3. Rootkit
  4. Keylogger

Answer: A. Trojan

Explanation: A Trojan misrepresents itself as trusted or desirable software to persuade a user to run it. Ransomware describes an extortion objective, while keylogging describes a specific data-capture behaviour.

Q75. Which claim about Trojan malware is false?

[SSC CGL Tier-II 2022 cycle, held 2 March 2023]

  1. It may appear legitimate
  2. Some create backdoors
  3. It always self-replicates to infect other files
  4. Users may spread it by executing attachments

Answer: C. It always self-replicates to infect other files

Explanation: Self-replication is characteristic of viruses and worms, not an inherent requirement of a Trojan. Trojan malware may install through deceptive attachments or downloads and may provide backdoor access.

Q74. At which institution was an early digital computer first installed in India?

[Rajasthan CET Senior Secondary, 11 February 2023, Shift 2]

  1. Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
  2. Institute of Social Science, Agra
  3. Indian Statistical Institute, Delhi
  4. Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata

Answer: D. Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata

Explanation: The Indian Statistical Institute in Kolkata installed the HEC-2M computer in 1955, an important early milestone in Indian digital computing. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research independently developed an early Indian-built computer in subsequent years, contributing to national computing capability.

Q73. Which listed Chhattisgarh initiatives formed part of the National e-Governance Plan:
(i) State Wide Area Network,
(ii) Citizen Contact Centre,
(iii) capacity building,
(iv) Agrisnet and PDS?

[CGPSC Prelims General Studies 2023]

  1. Only (i) and (iii)
  2. Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
  3. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
  4. All four

Answer: D. All four

Explanation: The National e-Governance Plan supported connectivity, public-service delivery and administrative digital capacity. In Chhattisgarh, the listed initiatives cover networking, citizen help services, training and sector-specific agriculture and public-distribution systems; accordingly, all four belong to the stated programme.

Q72. What is the numerical label of the first row in Excel?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. A
  2. 0
  3. 1
  4. 01
  5. None

Answer: C. 1

Explanation: Microsoft Excel labels columns alphabetically and rows numerically starting at 1. Consequently, the first cell at the upper-left corner has the combined reference A1, indicating column A and row 1.

Q71. Where can repeating page numbers and titles be inserted in Word?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Header and Footer
  2. Margins and Borders
  3. Paragraph and Alignment
  4. Font and Style
  5. Table and Chart

Answer: A. Header and Footer

Explanation: Word headers and footers are repeating areas at the top and bottom of document pages. They can contain fields for page numbers, dates and running titles without being part of the principal body text.

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Legal, A4, A5
  2. A4, A5, Legal
  3. A5, Legal, A4
  4. A5, A4, Legal
  5. Legal, A5, A4

Answer: D. A5, A4, Legal

Explanation: A5 is 148 by 210 millimetres, A4 is 210 by 297 millimetres, and Legal is about 216 by 356 millimetres. Comparing the areas gives A5 first and Legal last.

Q69. Which keyboard shortcut inserts a manual page break in Word?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Ctrl + Enter
  2. Ctrl + Shift + P
  3. Ctrl + B
  4. Ctrl + P
  5. Alt + Enter

Answer: A. Ctrl + Enter

Explanation: Ctrl + Enter inserts a page break at the cursor position. Other shortcuts perform different tasks, such as Ctrl + P for printing and Ctrl + B for applying bold formatting.

Q68. Which function key conventionally opens a software application’s Help system?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. F1
  2. F2
  3. F5
  4. F8
  5. F12

Answer: A. F1

Explanation: F1 is the conventional Help shortcut in many desktop applications, particularly in Windows software. Specific programs can redefine shortcut keys, but F1 remains the standard general-knowledge response.

Q67. What is the radix of the octal numeral system?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. 2
  2. 8
  3. 16
  4. 10
  5. 32

Answer: B. 8

Explanation: The octal system has base 8 and uses digits from zero to seven. Each octal digit corresponds to exactly three binary bits, making it a compact way to represent some binary values.

Q66. Which device is an example of an impact printer?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Inkjet printer
  2. Laser printer
  3. Dot-matrix printer
  4. Thermal printer
  5. 3D printer

Answer: C. Dot-matrix printer

Explanation: A dot-matrix printer strikes an inked ribbon using small pins to create marks on paper. It is therefore an impact printer, unlike laser and inkjet printers that form images without striking a ribbon.

Q65. How is Disk Defragmenter normally classified?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Application suite
  2. Database software
  3. Utility software
  4. Web browser
  5. Programming language

Answer: C. Utility software

Explanation: Defragmentation rearranges scattered data on a magnetic hard drive to improve sequential access and reduce head movement. Such housekeeping and optimization tasks are characteristic of utility software, not ordinary document applications.

Q64. What first-octet range identifies the historical Class A IPv4 address pattern?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. 10–128
  2. 0–127
  3. 192–223
  4. 128–225
  5. 128–191

Answer: B. 0–127

Explanation: The leftmost bit in classful Class A IPv4 addresses is zero, yielding a first-octet pattern from 0 through 127. Ordinary assigned unicast Class A networks conventionally exclude reserved 0 and 127 values.

Q63. What symbol is used for absolute cell references in Excel formulas?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. #
  2. @
  3. $
  4. &
  5. %

Answer: C. $

Explanation: Dollar signs fix either a row or column when copying Excel formulas. The notation $A$1 locks both positions, while $A1 locks only the column and A$1 locks only the row.

Q62. Which Excel feature displays lengthy cell contents on multiple lines?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. Merge Cells
  2. Text Orientation
  3. Wrap Text
  4. Format Painter
  5. Conditional Formatting

Answer: C. Wrap Text

Explanation: Wrap Text keeps long content in the same cell while displaying it on more than one visual line. Excel can increase the row height automatically to make all the wrapped text visible.

Q61. What is the binary representation of decimal ten?

[IBPS RRB PO/Clerk 2023 — Adda247 memory-based compilation; exact sitting not specified]

  1. 1010
  2. 1001
  3. 1100
  4. 1110
  5. 1000

Answer: A. 1010

Explanation: Ten equals eight plus two in decimal arithmetic. Setting the binary places representing 2 cubed and 2 to the first power yields 1010, with the remaining two bits zero.

Q60. The Government of India’s eSanjeevani telemedicine service was integrated with which digital initiative?

[UPSC NDA-II General Ability Test (4 September 2022)]

  1. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
  2. Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana
  3. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
  4. Universal Health Insurance Scheme

Answer: A. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission

Explanation: Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission provides an interoperable framework for digital health records and accounts. Integrating eSanjeevani allows telemedicine users to link health consultations and records through the national digital-health ecosystem. The other options are insurance-related schemes rather than this platform.

Q59. Which technology company announced a cyber-security centre in Bengaluru in February 2022?

[RRB Group D, 26 August 2022, Shift 1]

  1. Apple
  2. IBM
  3. Dell
  4. HCL Technologies

Answer: B. IBM

Explanation: IBM announced a cybersecurity centre in Bengaluru in early 2022 to support organisations responding to evolving cyber threats. IBM stands for International Business Machines. The firm offers enterprise computing, security, cloud and consulting services in addition to its hardware history.

Q58. Which device forwards IP data packets between distinct computer networks?

[MPPSC State Service Prelims 2021 cycle (held 19 June 2022)]

  1. Switch
  2. Router
  3. Brouter
  4. Gateway

Answer: B. Router

Explanation: A router examines network destination information and forwards packets between connected networks using its routing table. Ordinary switches mainly connect devices within a local network at the data-link layer. Routers provide the fundamental internetworking function used across the internet.

Q57. The ‘Aa’ control in the Font group of Word 2016 denotes what command?

[RRB NTPC, 15 June 2022, Shift 1]

  1. Text effects
  2. Change Case
  3. Clear formatting
  4. Strikethrough

Answer: B. Change Case

Explanation: The Change Case command converts selected text between uppercase, lowercase, sentence case and other capitalisation patterns without retyping it. In Word’s Home tab, the associated button often displays ‘Aa’. It affects letter case rather than font weight or decorations.

Q56. Which protocol is principally used to access documents on the World Wide Web?

[RRB NTPC, 9 May 2022, Shift 1]

  1. DNS
  2. SNMP
  3. HTTP
  4. FTP

Answer: C. HTTP

Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol allows a client, usually a browser, to request resources from a web server. DNS resolves domain names, SNMP monitors network devices, and FTP transfers files. Secure web connections use HTTPS, which encrypts HTTP traffic.

Q55. In which technological context is the term ‘qubit’ used?

[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022]

  1. Cloud services
  2. Quantum computing
  3. Visible-light communications
  4. Wireless communications

Answer: B. Quantum computing

Explanation: A qubit is a quantum analogue of the classical information bit. Superposition allows it to be represented by a combination of basis states until measurement. Researchers manipulate interacting qubits with quantum gates to solve some computational problems differently from classical machines.

Q54. Which of the following can be classed as short-range communication technologies:
1. CCTV;
2. RFID;
3. Wireless LAN?

[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022]

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: CCTV installations serve a local premises, RFID reads tags over limited distances, and wireless LANs cover a local area. These technologies are commonly treated as short-range systems in the exam’s framing, unlike communication infrastructures designed for long-distance public networks.

Q53. Regarding Web 3.0, consider:
1. users may control their data;
2. social platforms may employ blockchains;
3. networks may be collectively operated.

Which statements are correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022]

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Web 3.0 is commonly associated with decentralised online services and user control over digital identity and data. Blockchain-based applications can distribute governance and records among participants. These are aspirational principles rather than universal properties of every modern website.

Q52. With respect to Software as a Service, assess:
1. buyers may configure interfaces and fields;
2. access is possible by mobile;
3. webmail services are SaaS.

Which hold?

[UPSC CSE Prelims 2022]

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Software as a Service delivers provider-hosted applications over a network. Users can often configure application settings, reach services from phones, and use hosted email such as Outlook or Yahoo Mail. The provider ordinarily operates the underlying infrastructure and application platform.

Q51. Which international technology corporation is popularly nicknamed ‘Big Blue’?

[WBCS Mains 2021, Paper IV (held May 2022)]

  1. IBM
  2. Microsoft
  3. Apple
  4. Cognizant

Answer: A. IBM

Explanation: IBM, short for International Business Machines, has long been known by the nickname Big Blue, commonly linked to its corporate identity and historical branding. The company played a major role in mainframe computers, business information systems and personal computing.

Q50. What does MIME stand for in electronic messaging technology?

[MP SET Library and Information Science 2022]

  1. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
  2. Mail Internet Mobile Extensions
  3. Mouse Extension Input Motherboard
  4. Mobile Input Mail Extensions

Answer: A. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

Explanation: Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions permits email to carry attachments and content types beyond plain ASCII text, including images, audio and encoded files. MIME specifies headers and content encoding so receiving applications can interpret and display the message’s different parts.

Q49. Which network protocol is designed for standardised searching and retrieval from remote bibliographic databases?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Library and Information Science 2022, Paper II]

  1. HTTP
  2. FTP
  3. SNMP
  4. Z39.50

Answer: D. Z39.50

Explanation: Z39.50 is a client-server protocol used for searching and retrieving records from information systems, especially library catalogues. HTTP mainly transfers web resources, FTP exchanges files, and SNMP monitors and manages network devices rather than supporting this specialised search interface.

Q48. In basic networking terminology, bandwidth commonly indicates what?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Library and Information Science 2022, Paper II]

  1. The physical separation between devices
  2. A computer’s data-storage volume
  3. Only the radio-frequency range in every context
  4. Maximum data-transfer capacity of a connection

Answer: D. Maximum data-transfer capacity of a connection

Explanation: In everyday networking, bandwidth describes the data-carrying capacity of a link, usually expressed in bits per second. In signal theory, bandwidth also describes a frequency span. The recruitment question uses the common internet-connection speed or capacity sense.

Q47. The Semantic Web is conventionally associated with which version of the web?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Library and Information Science 2022, Paper II]

  1. Web 1.0
  2. Web 2.0
  3. Web 3.0
  4. Web 4.0

Answer: C. Web 3.0

Explanation: The Semantic Web vision adds machine-readable structure and meaning to online information. It has commonly been described as part of Web 3.0 in educational material, though contemporary Web3 also refers to decentralisation and blockchain technologies, which are not identical concepts.

Q46. Which body develops and promotes standards for the internet’s protocol suite?

[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Library and Information Science 2022, Paper II]

  1. Internet Engineering Task Force
  2. International Organization for Standardization
  3. International Telecommunication Union
  4. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers

Answer: A. Internet Engineering Task Force

Explanation: The Internet Engineering Task Force develops widely used internet standards through open working groups and Requests for Comments. Organisations such as ISO, ITU and IEEE also develop technical standards, but IETF is particularly associated with TCP/IP internet protocols.

Q45. Which early commercial online system is recognised for pioneering worldwide information retrieval services?

[MP SET Library and Information Science 2022]

  1. DuckDuckGo
  2. Google
  3. DIALOG
  4. EBSCO

Answer: C. DIALOG

Explanation: DIALOG was an influential early commercial online information retrieval service developed in the 1960s. It gave users remote access to searchable bibliographic and other databases before the modern web became widespread. Google and DuckDuckGo emerged considerably later as web search services.

Q44. Which programming language was central to Japan’s original Fifth Generation Computer Systems initiative?

[Rajasthan Gram Vikas Adhikari, 27 December 2021, Shift 1]

  1. ALGOL
  2. COBOL
  3. C
  4. PROLOG

Answer: D. PROLOG

Explanation: Prolog is a logic programming language based on facts, rules and logical queries. Japan’s Fifth Generation Computer Systems project emphasised logic programming and inference technologies for knowledge processing. Its direction contrasted with the procedural style of languages such as C and COBOL.

Q43. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

[SSC CHSL, 9 August 2021, Shift 2]

  1. 32
  2. 24
  3. 16
  4. 12

Answer: A. 32

Explanation: IPv4 addresses are 32 bits long and are conventionally displayed as four decimal octets separated by dots. IPv6 addresses, by comparison, use 128 bits. This distinction explains why IPv6 offers a vastly larger theoretical address space than IPv4.

Q42. What does the abbreviation JPEG expand to?

[SSC CHSL, 6 August 2021, Shift 3]

  1. Joint Photography Exports Group
  2. Joint Pixel Experts Group
  3. Joint Photographic Experts Group
  4. Joint Pixel Exports Group

Answer: C. Joint Photographic Experts Group

Explanation: JPEG expands to Joint Photographic Experts Group, the standards group associated with a widely used image compression format. JPEG is particularly effective for photographic content, where some loss of information may be acceptable to reduce file size significantly.

Q41. Which extension usually denotes a temporary file?

[SSC CHSL, 12 April 2021, Shift 1]

  1. .tmp
  2. .txt
  3. .tnt
  4. .tar

Answer: A. .tmp

Explanation: Many programs use the .tmp filename extension for intermediate or temporary data generated during processing. Such files may be discarded when no longer required. By comparison, .txt is plain text and .tar is an archive format often used on Unix-like systems.

Q40. Convert the binary number 11010001 into octal notation.

[MPPSC Assistant Engineer 2021]

  1. 321
  2. 123
  3. 641
  4. 146

Answer: A. 321

Explanation: Group binary digits into sets of three starting on the right: 011 010 001. These represent octal digits 3, 2 and 1 respectively. Thus binary 11010001 equals octal 321. The method works because eight equals two cubed.

Q39. Ubuntu is best identified as what kind of software?

[RRB NTPC, 28 December 2020, Shift 1]

  1. Malware
  2. Operating system
  3. External hard disk
  4. Web browser

Answer: B. Operating system

Explanation: Ubuntu is a Linux-based open-source operating system distribution maintained with support from Canonical and a developer community. It manages a computer’s resources and provides a platform for applications. It is neither a web browser nor a piece of external hardware.

Q38. For computer architecture, expand the abbreviation RISC.

[UPPSC Assistant Engineer 2019 recruitment (exam held 13 December 2020)]

  1. Redefined Instruction Set Computer
  2. Reduced Instruction Set Computer
  3. Restructured Instruction Set Computer
  4. Regional Instruction Set Computer

Answer: B. Reduced Instruction Set Computer

Explanation: RISC stands for Reduced Instruction Set Computer. It describes a processor design philosophy favouring a relatively simple and regular instruction repertoire, often facilitating efficient pipelines. The concept is contrasted with Complex Instruction Set Computer architectures, though real processors may blend approaches.

Q37. Find the one’s complement of the binary word 0000 1111 0010 1101.

[RRB JE, 19 September 2019, Shift 1]

  1. 1111 1100 1010 1100
  2. 1111 0000 1101 0010
  3. 1111 0000 0010 1101
  4. 1001 0010 1010 1100

Answer: B. 1111 0000 1101 0010

Explanation: The one’s complement is produced by changing every zero to one and every one to zero, without adding a final unit. Inverting the sixteen bits of 0000 1111 0010 1101 yields 1111 0000 1101 0010.

Q36. What is the expansion of PPP in data communications?

[RRB JE, 1 September 2019, Shift 2 (Electronics)]

  1. Packet to Point Protocol
  2. Point-to-Point Protocol
  3. Point to Packet Protocol
  4. Packet-to-Packet Protocol

Answer: B. Point-to-Point Protocol

Explanation: Point-to-Point Protocol is a data-link layer protocol designed to carry packets across a direct connection between two network nodes. It can support link configuration and authentication. PPP was widely used for dial-up networking and dedicated point-to-point communication links.

Q35. In an entity–relationship diagram, which shape denotes a multivalued attribute?

[RRB JE, 1 September 2019, Shift 2]

  1. Rectangle
  2. Dashed ellipse
  3. Double ellipse
  4. Diamond

Answer: C. Double ellipse

Explanation: An ER diagram draws ordinary attributes as ellipses and multivalued attributes as double ellipses. A person having several telephone numbers is a classic illustration. Rectangles usually denote entity types and diamonds represent relationships between entities.

Q34. A modem marked ’56K’ refers to which property?

[RRB JE, 1 September 2019, Shift 2]

  1. Physical size
  2. Memory capacity
  3. Storage capacity
  4. Data transmission rate

Answer: D. Data transmission rate

Explanation: The old ’56K’ label describes a nominal maximum downstream communication rate of around 56 kilobits per second under suitable conditions. It is not a memory or physical-size designation. Actual speeds over telephone connections could be lower because of line quality.

Q33. In packet-switched networking, which delays may occur: transmission, processing and queuing?

[RRB JE, 1 September 2019, Shift 1]

  1. Transmission only
  2. Processing only
  3. Queuing only
  4. All of these

Answer: D. All of these

Explanation: Routers may incur processing delay while checking headers, queueing delay while packets wait, and transmission delay while bits are placed onto a link. Propagation delay is another component. Together these affect end-to-end response time in packet-switched networks.

Q32. Which measure is often used to evaluate cache-memory performance?

[RRB JE, 31 August 2019]

  1. Register
  2. Associative mapping
  3. Hit ratio
  4. Set-associative mapping

Answer: C. Hit ratio

Explanation: Cache hit ratio is the fraction of memory accesses satisfied by the cache instead of slower memory. A high hit rate usually reduces average memory-access time. Associative mapping and set associativity describe placement methods, not the performance proportion requested here.

Q31. Which of the following fall within the system development life cycle: feasibility, coding and implementation?

[RRB JE, 30 August 2019]

  1. Implementation only
  2. Feasibility only
  3. All three
  4. Coding only

Answer: C. All three

Explanation: System development normally proceeds through requirements, feasibility assessment, design, implementation, testing and deployment, sometimes followed by maintenance. The named activities therefore all belong to a complete development life cycle. Their exact ordering and iteration depend on the chosen development method.

Q30. Which data-communication mode permits both directions, but only one direction to transmit at a time?

[RRB JE, 30 August 2019]

  1. Simplex
  2. Half-duplex
  3. Three-quarters duplex
  4. All choices

Answer: B. Half-duplex

Explanation: Half-duplex communication allows either endpoint to send data, but the parties take turns rather than transmit simultaneously. A walkie-talkie is a familiar example. Full duplex permits simultaneous two-way transmission; simplex permits communication in a single direction only.

Q29. What is the full form of the computer character code EBCDIC?

[RRB JE, 29 August 2019]

  1. Extended Binary Control Decimal Interchange Code
  2. Enhanced Binary Control Data Interchange Code
  3. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
  4. Enhanced Binary Coded Data Integration Code

Answer: C. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

Explanation: Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code is an eight-bit character-encoding family associated especially with IBM mainframe systems. Its mapping differs from ASCII, so translation may be needed when exchanging data between EBCDIC-based and ASCII-compatible platforms.

Q28. Computers are applied in communication, transportation and simulation. Which option describes the applicable fields?

[Chhattisgarh Teacher SETE, 11 August 2019]

  1. Communication only
  2. Transportation only
  3. Simulation only
  4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: Computers support communication through networks and messaging, transportation through navigation and booking systems, and simulation through computational models. These varied applications demonstrate their role as general-purpose information-processing machines across industries, education and scientific research.

Q27. What was the standard maximum file attachment size offered directly by Gmail?

[Chhattisgarh Teacher SETE, 11 August 2019]

  1. 25 KB
  2. 25 MB
  3. 15 MB
  4. 50 MB

Answer: B. 25 MB

Explanation: Gmail has generally permitted attachments up to 25 MB for ordinary direct sending, with larger files often shared through cloud-storage links. The figure refers to an attachment limit rather than mailbox capacity. Individual providers may impose additional restrictions.

Q26. A dot-matrix printer is an example of what kind of printer?

[Chhattisgarh Teacher SETE, 11 August 2019]

  1. Impact printer
  2. Page printer
  3. Non-impact printer
  4. Spray printer

Answer: A. Impact printer

Explanation: Dot-matrix printers produce characters by striking pins against an inked ribbon and paper. The mechanical impact makes them noisy but allows multipart forms to be printed. Laser and inkjet printers instead use non-impact imaging or ink deposition techniques.

Q25. Which component is often referred to as the brain of a computer?

[CG Vyapam Assistant Teacher, 11 August 2019]

  1. ALU
  2. Keyboard
  3. CPU
  4. Monitor

Answer: C. CPU

Explanation: The central processing unit fetches, decodes and executes program instructions. It coordinates calculations, control flow and information exchange. Although an ALU performs arithmetic and logic, the CPU as a whole is commonly described as the computer’s brain.

Q24. At which Indian city is C-DAC, known for the PARAM supercomputer series, based?

[Territorial Army Official Paper II, 28 July 2019]

  1. Chennai
  2. Pune
  3. Bengaluru
  4. Kolkata

Answer: B. Pune

Explanation: Pune hosts the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing, associated with the PARAM series of Indian high-performance computers. PARAM 8000 marked an early milestone in indigenous supercomputing. Such systems execute highly parallel scientific and engineering workloads.

Q23. Which among the listed frequencies is used by Wi-Fi networks?

[RRB ALP, 23 January 2019, Shift 1]

  1. 2.4 MHz
  2. 5 MHz
  3. 10 GHz
  4. 5 GHz

Answer: D. 5 GHz

Explanation: Wi-Fi has long used the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz radio bands, with newer standards also incorporating 6 GHz. Frequencies measured in MHz in the distractors are far below the usual bands. Wireless routers select channels within their supported bands.

Q22. Which term denotes support for two-way mobile communication?

[RRB ALP, 23 January 2019, Shift 1]

  1. Triplexing
  2. Duplexing
  3. Simplexing
  4. Quadraplexing

Answer: B. Duplexing

Explanation: Duplex communication provides transmission in both directions between two endpoints. Frequency-division duplex uses separate frequency bands, while time-division duplex separates directions in time. Simplex communication permits transmission in only one direction. Mobile networks employ duplexing for two-way exchanges.

Q21. In cellular communication, LTE stands for which expression?

[RRB ALP, 23 January 2019, Shift 1]

  1. Long Term Evolution
  2. Last Time Evolution
  3. Least Time Evolution
  4. Long Time Evolution

Answer: A. Long Term Evolution

Explanation: Long Term Evolution is a standard family for high-speed cellular communication and a foundation of 4G mobile broadband. Its specifications were developed under the 3GPP partnership. LTE improved spectral efficiency, latency and data throughput compared with many earlier mobile technologies.

Q20. In optical fibre transmission, LEDs and laser diodes serve as which components?

[RRB ALP, 23 January 2019, Shift 1]

  1. Detectors
  2. Light sources
  3. Repeaters
  4. Amplifiers

Answer: B. Light sources

Explanation: At the transmitting end of an optical fibre link, an LED or laser diode converts an electrical signal into modulated light. At the receiving end, a photodetector changes arriving light back into an electrical signal. Sources and detectors therefore play distinct roles.

Q19. What is the general name for instructions and programs that direct a computer’s operations?

[CG Vyapam Patwari 2019]

  1. Hardware
  2. Keyboard
  3. Software
  4. Mouse

Answer: C. Software

Explanation: Software consists of programs and related instructions that tell computing hardware what operations to perform. System software manages resources, while application software provides specific user functions. Keyboards and mice are tangible hardware rather than executable programs.

Q18. Which logical implication is a tautology?

[UPPSC LT Grade Assistant Teacher (Computer), 29 July 2018]

  1. (a OR b) implies (b AND c)
  2. (a AND b) implies (b OR c)
  3. (a OR b) implies (b implies c)
  4. None of these

Answer: B. (a AND b) implies (b OR c)

Explanation: Whenever a AND b is true, b is necessarily true, and therefore b OR c must also be true. When the antecedent is false, the implication is true by definition. Thus the second expression is true under every Boolean assignment.

Q17. Which mathematical system underpins binary logical operations in a computer?

[RPSC RAS Prelims 2018]

  1. Abstract algebra
  2. Matrix algebra
  3. Boolean algebra
  4. Linear algebra

Answer: C. Boolean algebra

Explanation: Boolean algebra works with logical values such as true and false, commonly represented by binary one and zero. Its operations AND, OR and NOT form the basis of digital logic. Processor circuits implement these operations using electronic gates.

Q16. A USB pen drive belongs to which broad storage category?

[WBCS Prelims 2018]

  1. Primary storage
  2. Secondary storage
  3. Tertiary storage
  4. None of these

Answer: B. Secondary storage

Explanation: A pen drive is nonvolatile removable secondary storage, typically using NAND flash memory. It retains documents even when unplugged. Primary memory such as RAM is used for active processing, while tertiary storage often describes large automated archival media systems.

Q15. In a traditional 16-bit word-size context, a sequence of 16 bits is called a ______.

[WBCS Prelims 2018]

  1. Word
  2. Nibble
  3. Memory block
  4. Byte

Answer: A. Word

Explanation: A word is a processor-dependent group of bits handled as a unit; sixteen bits constitute a word on a 16-bit architecture. A nibble contains four bits and a byte contains eight. Word size is not universally fixed across computers.

Q14. Where does a computer connect external accessories such as a printer or keyboard?

[MPPSC General Studies 2016]

  1. Port
  2. Ring
  3. Bus
  4. ZIP

Answer: A. Port

Explanation: A port is a physical or logical interface for exchanging information with connected devices. USB, HDMI and Ethernet sockets are familiar physical ports. A bus is a broader system of signal paths and does not specifically mean an external accessory socket.

Q13. Which portion of ‘http://www.google.co.in’ identifies the communication protocol?

[Rajasthan TRA Paper I, 2 August 2015]

  1. .co
  2. .in
  3. www
  4. http

Answer: D. http

Explanation: The scheme before the colon identifies the protocol or access method of a URL. Here ‘http’ means Hypertext Transfer Protocol. The ‘www’ part is a host label, while ‘.co.in’ contributes to the domain name structure.

Q12. Which statement about a modem is correct?

[RPSC RAS Prelims 2013]

  1. It is software
  2. It stabilises voltage
  3. It is an operating system
  4. It converts digital signals to analogue and back

Answer: D. It converts digital signals to analogue and back

Explanation: The name modem comes from modulator-demodulator. The hardware translates digital data to signals suitable for transmission over a communication medium and reverses the operation for incoming information. It does not replace the operating system or regulate supply voltage.

Q11. The names Celeron, Pentium and Core refer to which computer component family?

[RPSC RAS Prelims 2013]

  1. RAM chips
  2. Generic memory modules
  3. Processors
  4. All of the above

Answer: C. Processors

Explanation: Celeron, Pentium and Core are Intel processor brand families. A processor interprets and executes instructions and performs arithmetic and logical operations. RAM is separate working memory. Naming may change between product generations, but these labels historically refer to CPU ranges.

Q10. Which is the largest data-storage unit among bit, byte, megabyte and gigabyte?

[RPSC Assistant Engineer GK & General Science 2013]

  1. Byte
  2. Bit
  3. Gigabyte
  4. Megabyte

Answer: C. Gigabyte

Explanation: A bit is a binary digit and eight bits commonly form a byte. A megabyte represents roughly one million bytes and a gigabyte roughly one billion bytes under decimal conventions. Thus the gigabyte is largest among the four choices.

Q9. What semiconductor material is most commonly used to manufacture integrated circuit chips?

[Chhattisgarh Police SI Prelims 2012]

  1. Chromium
  2. Iron oxide
  3. Silicon
  4. Silica

Answer: C. Silicon

Explanation: Silicon is a semiconductor extensively used in integrated-circuit fabrication. Transistors and interconnections can be patterned onto treated silicon wafers. Silica is silicon dioxide, whereas the elemental semiconductor silicon is the principal material intended in this question.

Q8. Which device was traditionally attached to a computer’s parallel port?

[Chhattisgarh Police SI Prelims 2012]

  1. Printer
  2. Monitor
  3. Mouse
  4. External hard disk

Answer: A. Printer

Explanation: The older parallel printer interface was widely used to attach printers to personal computers before USB and network printing became common. A parallel port could transfer multiple data bits concurrently using dedicated signal lines and a standard connector.

Q7. Under the traditional binary-based convention used in computer-memory questions, one kilobyte equals how many bytes?

[Chhattisgarh Police SI Prelims 2012]

  1. 1000
  2. 1024
  3. 1048
  4. None of these

Answer: B. 1024

Explanation: Traditional computing examinations often define one kilobyte as 1024 bytes because 1024 equals two raised to the tenth power. Strict modern SI notation uses kilobyte for 1000 bytes and kibibyte for 1024 bytes; the historical exam answer is 1024.

Q6. Who is commonly credited as the father of the computer?

[Uttar Pradesh PCS Preliminary Examination 2007]

  1. Bill Gates
  2. Bill Clinton
  3. Charles Babbage
  4. Guglielmo Marconi

Answer: C. Charles Babbage

Explanation: Charles Babbage proposed mechanical calculating machines, most notably the Analytical Engine, which anticipated many structural features of programmable computers. Bill Gates later co-founded Microsoft, while the other options are associated with politics and radio communications rather than early computing designs.

Q5. Consider the statements:
1. Adam Osborne introduced an early portable computer.
2. Ian Wilmut led work that produced the cloned sheep Dolly.

Which is correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims 2004]

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Adam Osborne introduced the Osborne 1 portable computer in 1981. Ian Wilmut led the research team associated with Dolly, the sheep cloned from an adult cell. Both statements identify notable pioneers, although their achievements belong to entirely different fields.

Q4. Assess these claims:
1. A smart card contains an embedded chip.
2. Satellite and fibre-optic systems are used for digital communication.
3. Digital libraries can only be accessed over the internet.

Which are correct?

[UPSC CSE Prelims 2004]

  1. 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Smart cards contain integrated circuits that can hold information or execute secure processing. Satellites and optical fibres carry digital communications. Digital libraries need not be exclusively internet-based, because collections can also be accessed over institutional or local electronic networks.

Q3. Which electronic circuit is commonly used as a basic storage element in computer memory and registers?

[SSC Combined Graduate Level Preliminary Examination 2002]

  1. Rectifier
  2. Flip-flop
  3. Comparator
  4. Attenuator

Answer: B. Flip-flop

Explanation: A flip-flop is a bistable digital circuit capable of storing one bit of binary information. Groups of flip-flops can form processor registers and certain memory structures. A rectifier converts alternating current, a comparator evaluates signals and an attenuator reduces signal strength.

Q2. According to this historical computer-awareness question, in which country was the digital computer developed?

[Uttarakhand PCS Mains 2002]

  1. Russia
  2. Britain
  3. United States of America
  4. Japan

Answer: B. Britain

Explanation: The original examination key identifies Britain, a country associated with early electronic digital computing such as the Colossus machines during the Second World War. Computer development involved parallel advances elsewhere, so the broad historical wording should be understood in its exam-specific context.

Q1. Who is widely known as the father of the computer for designing the Analytical Engine?

[Uttarakhand PCS Mains 2002]

  1. Bill Gates
  2. Charles Babbage
  3. Narayana Murthy
  4. Tim Berners-Lee

Answer: B. Charles Babbage

Explanation: Charles Babbage developed designs for the Difference Engine and the programmable Analytical Engine in the nineteenth century. The Analytical Engine’s conceptual architecture included memory, computation and control, earning him the familiar title father of the computer in introductory computer-history examinations.

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