10. Which Article of the Constitution defines the name and territory of India?
[WBCS Preliminary Examination (2016)]
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
Answer: (A) Article 1
Explanation: Article 1 names India, also called Bharat, and describes it as a Union of States. It additionally identifies the territory of India as including states, Union Territories and any acquired territories. The next three articles address territorial changes.
9. Which authority is empowered under the Indian Constitution to alter state boundaries?
[UPPSC Mains, General Studies (2015)]
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (A) Parliament
Explanation: Article 3 confers the legislative power on Parliament as a whole, not the Lok Sabha alone. The President recommends the proposal’s introduction and refers it to the concerned state legislature. After consideration, Parliament may enact the alteration.
8. Under which constitutional provision does Parliament have the power to create a new state?
[Chhattisgarh PSC Preliminary Examination (2014)]
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
(E) Article 5
Answer: (C) Article 3
Explanation: Article 3 empowers Parliament to carve a new state from existing state territory or unite territories into a new state. Article 2 concerns admission and establishment, while Article 4 governs consequential schedule adjustments and excludes these laws from Article 368.
7. Which of the following was NOT a Union Territory?
[UPPSC Mains, General Studies (2013)]
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Goa
(D) Puducherry
Answer: (C) Goa
Explanation: Goa became India’s twenty-fifth state on 30 May 1987. The remaining choices were Union Territories when this examination was held in 2013. Daman and Diu subsequently merged administratively with Dadra and Nagar Haveli in 2020.
6. Consider:
(1) Union Territories have no Rajya Sabha representation;
(2) the Chief Election Commissioner decides election disputes;
(3) Parliament comprises only Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Which are correct?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (2012)]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) None
Answer: (D) None
Explanation: Certain Union Territories have Rajya Sabha representation, making statement 1 false. Election disputes fall under the jurisdiction of appropriate courts, not the Chief Election Commissioner. Under Article 79, Parliament consists of the President as well as both Houses.
5. Which statement about forming new states is NOT correct?
[UPPSC Mains, General Studies (2011)]
(A) Parliament may form a new state by law
(B) Such law may amend the First and Fourth Schedules
(C) Such law is deemed an amendment under Article 368
(D) The affected state legislature must be consulted through the prescribed process
Answer: (C) Such law is deemed an amendment under Article 368
Explanation: Article 4 explicitly states that laws enacted under Articles 2 and 3 are not amendments for Article 368 purposes. Parliament can make incidental schedule changes through ordinary legislation. The affected state legislature expresses views, but its approval is not essential.
4. Which is the correct chronological order of the formation of these as full states of the Indian Union?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (2007)]
(A) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(B) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
Answer: (B) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: Nagaland acquired statehood in 1963, Haryana in 1966, Sikkim in 1975 and Arunachal Pradesh in 1987. Ordering these milestones chronologically gives Nagaland, Haryana, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. These dates refer to full statehood, not earlier administrative arrangements.
3. Which Constitutional Amendment integrated Sikkim as a full-fledged state of the Indian Union?
[UPPSC Mains, General Studies (2005)]
(A) 34th Amendment
(B) 35th Amendment
(C) 36th Amendment
(D) 37th Amendment
Answer: (C) 36th Amendment
Explanation: The Thirty-fifth Amendment of 1974 introduced an associate-state arrangement for Sikkim. The Thirty-sixth Amendment of 1975 replaced that arrangement by formally admitting Sikkim as a full-fledged Indian state and introducing special constitutional provisions through Article 371F.
2. How many states and Union Territories resulted from the States Reorganisation Act of 1956?
[MPPSC Preliminary Examination (2004)]
(A) 14 states and 6 Union Territories
(B) 17 states and 6 Union Territories
(C) 14 states and 8 Union Territories
(D) 17 states and 8 Union Territories
Answer: (A) 14 states and 6 Union Territories
Explanation: The large-scale restructuring in 1956 reorganised India into fourteen states and six Union Territories. It followed the States Reorganisation Commission’s work and broadly reflected linguistic considerations, while the Seventh Constitutional Amendment changed the older classification of states.
1. Which Schedule of the Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
[UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (2003)]
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Fourth Schedule
Answer: (A) First Schedule
Explanation: The First Schedule lists states and Union Territories together with their territorial descriptions. When Parliament reorganises state boundaries or creates states, corresponding changes may be necessary. The Fourth Schedule, by contrast, allocates representation in the Council of States.
