Q10. Who described India as a “quasi-federal State”?
[UPPSC Civil Services Prelims, General Studies I, 2019]
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) Ivor Jennings
(C) Harold Laski
(D) K. C. Wheare
Answer: (D) K. C. Wheare
Explanation: K. C. Wheare described the Indian Constitution as quasi-federal because it incorporates federal machinery alongside substantial centralising provisions. Distribution of powers, an independent judiciary and a written Constitution coexist with single citizenship, emergency arrangements and strong Union authority.
Q9. Assertion (A): India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. Reason (R): “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted between “Sovereign” and “Democratic” by the 42nd Amendment, 1976. Choose the correct answer.
[CGPSC State Services Prelims, Paper I, 2019]
(A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer: (B) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
Explanation: Both statements are factually true. The 42nd Amendment inserted the two terms into the Preamble. However, the historical fact of their insertion alone does not explain the complete constitutional character asserted, which also includes sovereignty, democracy and republicanism.
Q8. Which system of government was adopted by India?
[CTET Paper II, Social Studies, December 2018]
(A) Parliamentary and unitary
(B) Presidential and federal
(C) Presidential and unitary
(D) Parliamentary and federal
Answer: (D) Parliamentary and federal
Explanation: India follows parliamentary government, with a Council of Ministers accountable to the directly elected House, alongside a federal division of governmental powers. The Constitution also includes substantial unitary characteristics, so its federal arrangement is not identical to the American model.
Q7. In which case did the Supreme Court first hold that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution’s basic structure?
[MPPSC Assistant Professor, Political Science II, 11 July 2017]
(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: The Kesavananda Bharati judgment of 1973 established the basic structure doctrine. It recognised broad parliamentary power to amend the Constitution while protecting its foundational characteristics from destruction. Judicial review, constitutional supremacy and democratic principles are among recognised basic features.
Q6. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Indian federalism?
[UPSC CSE Prelims, General Studies Paper I, 2017]
(A) An independent judiciary exists
(B) Powers are divided between Centre and States
(C) States have unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha
(D) The federation arose from an agreement among States
Answer: (D) The federation arose from an agreement among States
Explanation: India’s federation was not created by a compact between previously independent States. Article 1 therefore describes an enduring Union of States. Its independent judiciary, divided constitutional powers and unequal State representation in the Rajya Sabha are all consistent with India’s distinctive federal arrangement.
Q5. Which of these are unitary elements in Indian federalism: (i) written Constitution, (ii) rigid Constitution, (iii) constitutional supremacy, (iv) Governor’s appointment, (v) decentralisation, (vi) President’s assent to State bills, (vii) constitutional emergencies, (viii) one Supreme Court?
[CGPSC State Services Prelims, Paper I, 2017]
(A) i, iii and vii
(B) ii, v and viii
(C) i, ii and v
(D) iv, vi and vii
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) iv, vi and vii
Explanation: The centrally appointed Governor, presidential consideration of certain State bills and emergency powers strengthen the Union’s control and represent unitary elements. Written constitutional rules, division of powers and constitutional supremacy are usually associated with federalism rather than its centralising characteristics.
Q4. Consider: (1) Article 368 provides the procedure for constitutional amendment. (2) Every constitutional amendment requires the consent of the States. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
[UPSC NDA-I, General Ability Test, 17 April 2016]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: Article 368 sets out the constitutional amendment mechanism, making statement 1 correct. State ratification is necessary only for specified amendments affecting federal provisions, and approval by at least half the States suffices. Therefore, not every constitutional amendment needs State consent.
Q3. Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Constitution of India?
[UPSC NDA-I, General Ability Test, 19 April 2015]
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Independence of the judiciary
(C) Federalism
(D) Parliament’s unquestioned right to amend every part of the Constitution
Answer: (D) Parliament’s unquestioned right to amend every part of the Constitution
Explanation: Parliament has wide powers under Article 368 but cannot destroy the Constitution’s basic structure. The judiciary established this limitation in Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Constitutional fundamentals such as federalism, judicial independence and protection of essential rights cannot be eliminated through amendment.
Q2. Consider: (1) A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (2) Changes affecting the federal character require ratification by all State legislatures. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
[UPSC CSE Prelims, General Studies Paper I, 2013]
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Constitution Amendment Bills can originate in either House of Parliament, so statement 1 is false. For specified federal provisions, approval by at least half of the State legislatures is required, not every State. Consequently both statements are incorrect.
Q1. In Indian polity, which one is supreme?
[45th BPSC Prelims, held in 2002]
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Constitution
(C) Parliament
(D) Religion
Answer: (B) Constitution
Explanation: The Constitution is India’s supreme legal authority. Parliament legislates within constitutional limits, while courts interpret and enforce those limits through judicial review. Neither institution is sovereign above the Constitution. This supremacy is central to constitutional government and the rule of law.
