Q40. The National Population Register was created under the provisions of which Act and Rules? a. Citizenship Act, 1965 b. Citizenship Rules, 2004 c. Citizenship Act, 1955 d. Citizenship Rules, 2003
[SSC MTS, 5 November 2024, Shift 3]
- (A) a and c
- (B) a and b
- (C) b and d
- (D) c and d
Answer: (D) c and d
Explanation: The National Population Register forms part of the framework under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. It records usual residents, not solely confirmed citizens, making this distinction important.
Q39. Which of the following is a unitary feature of the Indian Constitution?
[SSC MTS, 28 October 2024, Shift 3]
- (A) Division of Powers
- (B) Single citizenship
- (C) Written Constitution
- (D) Bicameralism
Answer: (B) Single citizenship
Explanation: Single citizenship is regarded as a unitary feature because there is one nationality throughout India. Distribution of powers, a written constitution and bicameral legislative arrangements are commonly associated with federal institutions. India combines federal and unitary characteristics.
Q38. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Constitution of India?
[SSC CGL Tier-I, 18 September 2024, Shift 2]
- (A) Universal adult franchise
- (B) Independent judiciary
- (C) Dual citizenship
- (D) Blend of rigidity and flexibility
Answer: (C) Dual citizenship
Explanation: The Indian Constitution establishes single rather than dual citizenship. Adult franchise, judicial independence and a mix of rigid and flexible amendment procedures are recognised constitutional features. The absence of state-level citizenship differentiates India from the United States.
Q37. Which of the following areas is exempted from the purview of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?
[UPSC CDS-II (General Knowledge), 1 September 2024]
- (A) Ladakh
- (B) Jammu and Kashmir
- (C) Sixth Schedule areas
- (D) Fifth Schedule areas
Answer: (C) Sixth Schedule areas
Explanation: The 2019 amendment does not apply to constitutionally protected Sixth Schedule tribal areas in the northeastern region. Areas covered by the Inner Line Permit regime are also exempt. These exclusions seek to preserve local demographic and cultural safeguards.
Q36. Which Article of the Constitution vests plenary power in Parliament to legislate on citizenship?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 11 July 2024, Shift 3]
- (A) Article 11
- (B) Article 5
- (C) Article 8
- (D) Article 6
Answer: (A) Article 11
Explanation: Article 11 expressly preserves Parliament’s power to make laws on acquisition, termination and all other matters concerning citizenship. The earlier Articles in Part II mainly identify people who qualified as citizens around commencement of the Constitution.
Q35. An Indian citizen may make a declaration renouncing Indian citizenship under the _____.
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 11 July 2024, Shift 2]
- (A) Citizenship Act, 1985
- (B) Citizenship Act, 1955
- (C) Citizenship Act, 1975
- (D) Citizenship Act, 1965
Answer: (B) Citizenship Act, 1955
Explanation: Section 8 of the Citizenship Act, 1955 governs voluntary renunciation by an Indian citizen of full age and capacity. A declaration must be registered in the prescribed manner; consequences for minor children and special conditions are also addressed.
Q34. Which of the following is NOT a condition for acquiring citizenship of India?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 10 July 2024, Shift 2]
- (A) Domicile
- (B) Holding property
- (C) Descent
- (D) Registration
Answer: (B) Holding property
Explanation: Owning property does not confer Indian nationality. Indian citizenship can be acquired under statutory conditions through birth, descent, registration, naturalisation or incorporation of territory. Domicile featured in the Constitution’s initial citizenship framework, but property ownership is not an independent criterion.
Q33. The Citizenship Act, 1955 does NOT deal with _____.
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 2 July 2024, Shift 3]
- (A) Acquisition
- (B) Termination
- (C) Election
- (D) Determination
Answer: (C) Election
Explanation: The Citizenship Act regulates nationality, including how it is acquired, determined or lost. Election administration is governed through separate constitutional provisions and election statutes such as the Representation of the People Acts. Citizenship and electoral eligibility are related but legally distinct.
Q32. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deal with citizenship?
[SSC CHSL Tier-I, 1 July 2024, Shift 4]
- (A) Articles 12–18
- (B) Articles 8–15
- (C) Articles 10–17
- (D) Articles 5–11
Answer: (D) Articles 5–11
Explanation: Articles 5 to 11 form Part II of the Constitution. They cover citizenship at commencement, migration in the Partition period, overseas persons of Indian origin, foreign citizenship and Parliament’s continuing authority to legislate on citizenship matters.
Q31. Which Part of the Constitution of India describes citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
[WBCS Main Examination, 2023, Paper V]
- (A) Part I
- (B) Part II
- (C) Part III
- (D) Part IV
Answer: (B) Part II
Explanation: Part II consists of Articles 5–11 and addresses citizenship in the foundational constitutional settlement. It includes the circumstances of Partition-related migration and the special position of persons of Indian origin living abroad, while empowering Parliament to enact later laws.
