# vidyaar.com


## Posts

- [Inter-State Relations](https://vidyaar.com/inter-state-relations/): 40. In its judgment on February 2, 2026, the Supreme Court directed the Union Government to constitute an inter-state water disputes tribunal…
- [Centre–State Relations](https://vidyaar.com/centre-state-relations/): 40. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body. What is its primary function under Article 280? [SSC Selection Post 2026 (Graduate Level),…
- [Federal System](https://vidyaar.com/federal-system/): Q40. Which features establish the “Federal nature” of the Indian Constitution? [MPSC Group C Mains 2025, held 12 July 2026] (A) Supremacy…
- [Parliamentary System](https://vidyaar.com/parliamentary-system/): 40. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India: 1. Unstarred questions are…
- [Basic Structure of the Constitution](https://vidyaar.com/basic-structure-of-the-constitution/): 40. Which of the following cases for the first time held the Preamble to be part of the Constitution? [RRB NTPC (UG)…
- [Fundamental Duties](https://vidyaar.com/fundamental-duties/): Q40. Fundamental Duties were added by which amendment? Select the most appropriate option. [RSMSSB Forester, 28 June 2026] Answer: (C) 42nd Amendment…
- [Directive Principles of State Policy](https://vidyaar.com/directive-principles-of-state-policy/): Q40. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are similar to the “Instruments of Instructions” enumerated in _________. [DSSSB…
- [Fundamental Rights](https://vidyaar.com/fundamental-rights/): Q100. The Fundamental Rights under “Right against Exploitation” are mentioned in which Articles? [DSSSB MTS, 22 April 2026, Shift 1] (A) Articles…
- [Citizenship](https://vidyaar.com/citizenship/): Q60. India follows which model of citizenship under its Constitution? [RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I, 9 May 2026, Shift 2] Answer: (C) One:…
- [Union and Its Territory](https://vidyaar.com/union-and-its-territory/): 40. Which of the following scenarios would not require a constitutional amendment under Article 368? [SSC Selection Post, Graduate Level (18 Sep…
- [Preamble of the Indian Constitution](https://vidyaar.com/preamble-of-the-indian-constitution/): Q40. The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares which of the following dates for the adoption of the Constitution by the…
- [Salient Features of the Constitution](https://vidyaar.com/salient-features-of-the-constitution/): Q40. Which of the following describes India as a “Secular State”? [RSMSSB Forester, 28 June 2026] (A) Preamble (B) Fundamental Rights (C)…
- [Making of the Constitution](https://vidyaar.com/making-of-the-constitution/): Q40. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is primarily based on which resolution drafted and introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru? [RRB NTPC…
- [Historical Background](https://vidyaar.com/historical-background/): 70. Which outcome followed the Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley–Minto Reforms)? [RRB NTPC (UG), CBT-I, 18 June 2026, Shift 3] Answer:…
- [Transport System in India](https://vidyaar.com/transport-system-in-india/): 150. As of 31 March 2025, approximately how long was India’s National Highway network? [RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 27 March 2026] (A)…
- [Research Centres in India](https://vidyaar.com/research-centres-in-india/): Q80. In April 2025, an affordable electro-fluidic device for preliminary screening of sickle-cell disease was developed by which Indian research institute? [SSC…
- [Multipurpose River Valley Projects in India](https://vidyaar.com/multipurpose-river-valley-projects-in-india/): 150. Which dam is constructed across the Sutlej River? [SSC GD Constable (7 May, Shift 1), 2026] (A) Bhakra Dam (B) Nagarjuna…
- [Natural Disasters in India](https://vidyaar.com/natural-disasters-in-india/): Q120. Which among the following are consequences of deforestation? A. Land erosion B. Landslides C. Increase in wastelands D. Higher cropland productivity…
- [Green Revolution in India](https://vidyaar.com/green-revolution-in-india/): Q70. Which of the following is an effect of the Green Revolution on rural India? [DSSSB MTS, 25 July 2026, Shift 1]…
- [Urbanisation in India](https://vidyaar.com/urbanisation-in-india/): Q150. What is the full form of AMRUT? [DSSSB MTS [25 Feb 2026, Shift 3]] (A) Atal Mechanism for Rejuvenation and Urban…
- [Population of India](https://vidyaar.com/population-of-india/): Q100. According to Census 2011, what was the sex ratio among the Scheduled Tribe population in India? [RRB NTPC UG CBT-I, 19…
- [Industries in India](https://vidyaar.com/industries-in-india/): Q150. Which of the following industries uses cotton as its main raw material? [RRB NTPC UG, 17 Jun 2026] (A) Textile industry…
- [Energy Resources of India](https://vidyaar.com/energy-resources-of-india/): Q150. Which energy resource is exhaustible and causes substantial pollution? [RRB NTPC Undergraduate, 19 June 2026] (A) Wind energy (B) Coal (C)…
- [Mineral Resources of India](https://vidyaar.com/mineral-resources-of-india/): Q150. Which mineral is regarded as a key metal for industrial development? [SSC GD Constable, 29 May 2026, Shift 3] (A) Copper…
- [Marine Resources of India](https://vidyaar.com/marine-resources-of-india/): Q150. Consider statements about ocean currents: 1. Water-density differences are a major cause of currents. 2. Water density depends on temperature, salinity…
- [Livestock Resources of India](https://vidyaar.com/livestock-resources-of-india/): Q150. Which breed of cattle in Rajasthan is popularly known as the Kamdhenu of Rajasthan due to its high milk-yielding capacity? [RSMSSB…
- [Agriculture of India](https://vidyaar.com/agriculture-of-india/): 2026 Q151. Zing terracing is suitable for what range of land slope? [UPSSSC Agriculture Technical Assistant (AGTA), 2026] (A) More than 33%…
- [Irrigation of India](https://vidyaar.com/irrigation-of-india/): Q150. Which is India’s largest multipurpose river-valley project among the options? [RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (18 June 2026, Shift 2)] (A) Damodar…
- [Environment (Indian Geography)](https://vidyaar.com/environment-indian-geography/): 2026 Q208. Which statements on the foxtail orchid (Rhynchostylis retusa) hold true? 1. It is epiphytic. 2. It occurs only in North-east…
- [Natural Vegetation of India](https://vidyaar.com/natural-vegetation-of-india/): 2026 Q150. With reference to mangroves and climate resilience, consider: 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater for paddy cultivation. 2.…
- [Soils of India](https://vidyaar.com/soils-of-india/): Q143. Which Peninsular Plateau region has black soil produced through the weathering of volcanic rock? [DSSSB Court Attendant (2 June 2026, Shift…
- [Climate of India](https://vidyaar.com/climate-of-india/): Q170. Which seasonal process over India is triggered when the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts northwards to about 20°N–25°N by mid-July,…
- [Drainage System of India](https://vidyaar.com/drainage-system-of-india/): Q250. Identify the river: it follows an antecedent course, passes through three countries, rises on the Tibetan Plateau, supports irrigation and has…
- [Geological Structure of India](https://vidyaar.com/geological-structure-of-india/): Q100. Which mountain range lies immediately to the south of the Vindhyan Range, separated by the Narmada Valley? [RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I…
- [Physiography of India](https://vidyaar.com/physiography-of-india/): Q270. For the Peninsular Block, assess: 1. Some western coastal sections submerged because of tectonic processes. 2. Veliconda and Mahendragiri are residual…
- [General introduction of India](https://vidyaar.com/general-introduction-of-india/): Q170. Consider the following statements: I. The Prime Meridian is the same as the International Date Line. II. West of the International…
- [Independence with Partition](https://vidyaar.com/independence-with-partition/): Q80. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India are correct?1. Its members were chosen through indirect elections by…
- [Press & Newspapers During India’s Freedom Struggle](https://vidyaar.com/press-newspapers-during-indias-freedom-struggle/): Q70. Which English newspaper associated with Sri Aurobindo helped prepare public opinion for a nationalist revolution? [OSSC CGLRE Mains, GS Paper II…
- [Constitutional, Administrative and Judicial Developments](https://vidyaar.com/constitutional-administrative-and-judicial-developments/): Q220. Which Act introduced the principle of elections in India for the first time? [OSSC CGLRE 2025 Mains Paper II (8 July…
- [Freedom Fighters of India and Their Contribution](https://vidyaar.com/freedom-fighters-of-india-and-their-contribution/): Q280. Who wrote Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, a major critique of the colonial drain of wealth? [OSSC CGLRE Mains, Paper…
- [Quit India Movement](https://vidyaar.com/quit-india-movement/): Q220. What were the volunteer groups of the Prati Sarkar called? [RRB NTPC UG CBT-I, 17 June 2026, Shift 1] (A) Gram…
- [Communist Party of India](https://vidyaar.com/communist-party-of-india/): Q80. When was the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) formed within the Indian National Congress? [RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I (14 June 2026, Shift…
- [Revolutionary Movements in India](https://vidyaar.com/revolutionary-movements-in-india/): 110. Which of these historical events occurred earliest? [UPSC CAPF AC Paper I (19 July 2026)] A. Dandi March B. Chauri Chaura…
- [Civil Disobedience Movement](https://vidyaar.com/civil-disobedience-movement/): 110. Which of these historical events occurred earliest? [UPSC CAPF AC Paper I (19 July 2026)] A. Dandi March B. Chauri Chaura…
- [Non-Cooperation Movement- Indian National Movement (1919–1929)](https://vidyaar.com/non-cooperation-movement-indian-national-movement-1919-1929/): Q180. In which year did the Non-Cooperation Movement commence in Bihar? [MPESB Hospital Assistant, 24 June 2026] A. 1 August 1921 B.…
- [Home Rule Movement, Annie Besant & Lucknow Pact](https://vidyaar.com/home-rule-movement-annie-besant-lucknow-pact/): Q65. Who founded the Home Rule League in 1916 in India? [DSSSB Court Attendant (5 June 2026, Shift 2)] Answer: (D) Bal…
- [Emergence of Gandhi](https://vidyaar.com/emergence-of-gandhi/): 130. Consider three statements about the Rowlatt Act of 1919: I. Gandhi launched nationwide Satyagraha against it. II. It passed despite Indian…
- [Swadeshi Movement](https://vidyaar.com/swadeshi-movement/): Q150. Which of the following activities formed a central component of the extremist strategy of political mobilisation in the early nationalist struggle?…
- [Extremists - Rise of Extremism in Indian National Movement](https://vidyaar.com/extremists-rise-of-extremism-in-indian-national-movement/): Q200. Which English newspaper, edited by Sri Aurobindo, was described as almost unique in its influence in preparing the people for revolution?…
- [Socio-Religious Reform Movements](https://vidyaar.com/socio-religious-reform-movements/): Q149. What was Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s greatest social achievement? [RRB NTPC UG CBT-I, Shift 2 — 2026] (A) Promoting English education…
- [Peasant Movements](https://vidyaar.com/peasant-movements/): 80. Which of the following portrays the movement led by Baba Ramchandra? [RRB NTPC (UG), CBT-I, 18 June 2026, Shift 2] Answer:…
- [Indian National Congress and Early Political Associations](https://vidyaar.com/indian-national-congress-and-early-political-associations/): Q80. Which statement best describes the role of Gopal Krishna Gokhale in the early Indian national movement? [RRB NTPC UG CBT-I, 20…
- [Revolt of 1857](https://vidyaar.com/revolt-of-1857/): 100. In which year was Tantia Tope, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857, executed by the British? [RRB NTPC (Graduate)…
- [Tribal Movements in India](https://vidyaar.com/tribal-movements-in-india/): 60. Which plateau region was the principal centre of the Kol Rebellion of 1831–32? [RRB JE CBT-II (Civil & Allied Engineering), 2…
- [Civil uprisings before 1857](https://vidyaar.com/civil-uprisings-before-1857/): Q60. The Mappila Uprisings of the 19th century occurred mainly in which region of India? [RRB JE CBT-2 (Civil), 2 July 2026]…
- [Governor-General and Viceroy of India](https://vidyaar.com/governor-general-and-viceroy-of-india/): 160. What was the primary objective of the Vernacular Press Act (1878)? [RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (13 Jun 2026, Shift 3) —…
- [British Policies in India](https://vidyaar.com/british-policies-in-india/): 60. Who wrote the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, which examined the colonial drain of Indian wealth? [OSSC CGL Mains…
- [Acts and Regulations Under British Rule](https://vidyaar.com/acts-and-regulations-under-british-rule/): Q150. The Morley-Minto Reforms were introduced in which year? [RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-II, Shift 1 (2026)] A. 1919 B. 1909 C. 1905…
- [Establishment of British Rule in India- Colonialism in India](https://vidyaar.com/establishment-of-british-rule-in-india-colonialism-in-india/): 150. Which battle in 1757 marked the Company’s rise to political power in Bengal? [RRB Technician Grade III, 10 March 2026, Shift…
- [Advent of Europeans in India](https://vidyaar.com/advent-of-europeans-in-india/): Q150. Which European rival decisively weakened Dutch power in India during the eighteenth century? [RRB NTPC (UG), 20 Jun 2026, Shift 1]…
- [Decline of the Mughal Empire](https://vidyaar.com/decline-of-the-mughal-empire/): Q50. In which of the following places was Bahadur Shah Zafar sent to prison after the Revolt of 1857? [DSSSB Assistant Superintendent,…
- [Maratha State and Confederacy](https://vidyaar.com/maratha-state-and-confederacy/): Q70. Which statement best explains the long-term significance of Shivaji’s achievements in early modern India? [UP PGT (History), 2026] (A) He built…
- [Sikh Sect](https://vidyaar.com/sikh-sect/): Q50. In what year was the Khalsa established by Guru Gobind Singh? [SSC GD Constable 2026 – 26 May, Shift 3] (A)…
- [Mughal Empire: Art & Culture](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-empire-art-culture/): Q100. Which Mughal artist received the title Nadir-ul-Asr? [UP PGT (Arts), 10 May 2026] Answer: (A) Ustad Mansur Explanation: Jahangir bestowed the…
- [Mughal Administration](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-administration/): Q100. The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was mainly a system of which type? [RRB NTPC (UG), 07 May 2026, Shift 1]…
- [Mughal Empire- Aurangzeb](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-empire-aurangzeb/): Q40. Which structure in Agra Fort is characterized by its white marble arches and was used by Shah Jahan to view the…
- [Mughal Empire- Shah Jahan](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-empire-shah-jahan/): Q40. In which year was the Taj Mahal inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site? [2026 — RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I —…
- [Mughal Empire - Jahangir](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-empire-jahangir/): Q40. The Shalimar Bagh in Jammu and Kashmir was built by which Mughal emperor?[SSC GD Constable 2026 – 25 May, Shift 1]A.…
- [Mughal Empire- Akbar](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-empire-akbar/): 50. Akbar’s policy of religious tolerance was called: [DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 2 July 2026, Shift 2] A. Zabt B. Sulh-i-Kul C. Din-i-Ilahi…
- [Mughal Empire- Sher Shah](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-empire-sher-shah/): Q40. Which of the following best explains the administrative significance of the road network developed under Sher Shah Suri?[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-2…
- [Mughal Empire- Humayun](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-empire-humayun/): Q30. The Battle of Chausa, fought on 26 June 1539, was a military engagement between which of the following? [RRB NTPC (UG)…
- [Mughal Empire- Babur](https://vidyaar.com/mughal-empire-babur/): Q50. The Battle of Khanwa (1527) was fought between Babur and which ruler? [RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I, 16 June 2026, Shift 2]…
- [Bhakti and Sufi Movement](https://vidyaar.com/bhakti-and-sufi-movement/): Q150. Which of the following forms of Hindustani music is especially associated with Sufi devotional music?[RRB NTPC (UG), 14 June 2026, Shift…
- [Vijayanagara Empire](https://vidyaar.com/vijayanagara-empire/): Q150. Why did the rulers of Vijayanagara incorporate agricultural tracts within the fortified area of the capital?[UPSC CDS-II – 2026] A. To…
- [Delhi Sultanate: Literature](https://vidyaar.com/delhi-sultanate-literature/): Q50. Which composition in Hindustani music is especially associated with Sufi devotional music?[RRB NTPC (UG) 2026] A. QawwaliB. TaranaC. DhrupadD. Tappa Answer:…
- [Delhi Sultanate: Art and Architecture](https://vidyaar.com/delhi-sultanate-art-and-architecture/): Q50. The Qutub Minar was constructed to commemorate whose victory?[OSSC CGLRE Mains – 2026] A. BalbanB. IltutmishC. Qutb-ud-din AibakD. Alauddin Khalji Answer:…
- [Delhi Sultanate: Administration](https://vidyaar.com/delhi-sultanate-administration/): 2026 Q50. Who among the following introduced the system of branding of horses (Dagh) and maintaining descriptive rolls of soldiers (Chehra)?[RRB NTPC…
- [Delhi Sultanate: Slave Dynasty, Khalji Dynasty, Tughluq Dynasty & Lodi Dynasty](https://vidyaar.com/delhi-sultanate-slave-dynasty-khalji-dynasty-tughluq-dynasty-lodi-dynasty/): Q200. Which Delhi Sultan introduced the Dagh (branding of horses) and Chehra (descriptive roll of soldiers) systems?[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-II, 2026] A.…
- [Muslim Invasion of India](https://vidyaar.com/muslim-invasion-of-india/): Q120. Which interpretation best explains Mahmud of Ghazni’s campaigns in India? [UP PGT History — 2026] A. Primarily resource-oriented raids supporting his…
- [Ancient Literature and Litterateur](https://vidyaar.com/ancient-literature-and-litterateur/): Q200. Ancient Pali texts contain definite references to coins such as Kahapana, Nikkha, Kamsa and Kakanika. The emergence of such coinage was…
- [South India (Chola, Chalukya, Pallava and Sangam Period)](https://vidyaar.com/south-india-chola-chalukya-pallava-and-sangam-period/): Q200. Which of the following king–dynasty pairs of early historical Tamilakam is/are incorrectly matched?[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] A. 1 and 2B. 2…
- [Architecture in Ancient India](https://vidyaar.com/architecture-in-ancient-india/): Q100. Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?[UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] A. 1 onlyB.…
- [Gupta and Post-Gupta Period](https://vidyaar.com/gupta-and-post-gupta-period/): Q200. Which inscription records the history and activities of a guild of silk weavers during the Gupta period?[UPSC NDA-II – 2026] A.…
- [Post-Mauryan Period](https://vidyaar.com/post-mauryan-period/): Q50. Which of the following rulers issued the famous Junagadh inscription?[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-II – 10 July 2026, Shift 1] A) NahapanaB)…
- [Maurya Empire](https://vidyaar.com/maurya-empire/): Q150. The inscriptions of Emperor Ashoka were predominantly composed in which script?[RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-II, 2026] A. KharosthiB. DevanagariC. BrahmiD. Gupta Answer:…
- [Jainism](https://vidyaar.com/jainism/): Q150. The achievements of King Kharavela are recorded in which of the following inscriptions?[OSSC CGL Mains – 2026] A. Allahabad Pillar InscriptionB.…
- [Buddhism](https://vidyaar.com/buddhism/): Q200. Which Buddhist text contains stories concerning the previous births of Gautama Buddha?[RRB NTPC – 2026] A. Jataka TalesB. Sutta PitakaC. DhammapadaD.…
- [Vedic Age](https://vidyaar.com/vedic-age/): Q150. In which Vedic text does the expression “Kshetra-patni” occur?[2026 – UPSC CSE] A. RigvedaB. AtharvavedaC. SamavedaD. Yajurveda Answer: B. Atharvaveda Explanation:…
- [Indus Valley Civilization](https://vidyaar.com/indus-valley-civilization/): 210. The large well supplying water to the Great Bath of Mohenjo-daro was located:[NDA-I 2026 — 12 April 2026] A. Near the…
- [Stone Age / Pre-historic Period](https://vidyaar.com/stone-age-prehistoric-period/): 110. The ‘Mesolithic Age’ is regarded as a transitional phase because it represents the shift between which two prehistoric periods? [RRB NTPC…
- [Awards and Trophies](https://vidyaar.com/awards-and-trophies/): 200. Which UK-born professor at an American university received a Nobel Prize in 2025? [UPSC CSE Prelims — 2026] (A) John Clarke (B) Joel Mokyr (C) Richard Robson (D) Michel H. Devoret Answer: (A) John Clarke Explanation: John Clarke was born in Cambridge, England, and worked at the University of California, Berkeley. He shared the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics for experimental discoveries concerning macroscopic quantum tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit. 199. Which statements about the BAFTA-recognised Indian film Boong are correct: (1) it won the Children’s and Family Film category, (2) Lakshmipriya Devi directed it, (3) it…
- [Sports](https://vidyaar.com/sports/): Q200. Which country won the greatest total number of medals at the Paris 2024 Summer Olympics? [RRB NTPC UG CBT I — 2026] A) United States of America B) India C) China D) Australia Answer: A) United States of America Explanation: The United States led the total medal count at Paris 2024, winning 126 medals. The American delegation also collected 40 gold medals, the same number as China, but had more silver and bronze medals. Distinguishing the exact Olympic edition prevents confusion with other notable Indian performances. Q199. Which international sporting event adopted the official motto “IT’s Your Vibe” for its…
- [Indian Security System](https://vidyaar.com/indian-security-system/): Q100. Exercise DUSTLIK-2026: I. It is a military exercise between India and the UAE. II. It aims to improve joint operations in semi-mountainous terrain. Which statement is correct? [UPSC NDA & NA II 2026] (A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II Answer: (B) II only Explanation: DUSTLIK is a bilateral Army exercise between India and Uzbekistan, not the UAE. Its training scenarios develop interoperability and coordinated tactical operations, including in challenging semi-mountainous terrain. Therefore the first statement is false and the second is correct. Q99. About Vayu Shakti-2026: I. It took place…
- [Energy Sector of India](https://vidyaar.com/energy-sector-of-india/): Q100. The Bhadla Solar Park, one of the largest in the world, is located in which Indian state? [RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I, 09 May 2026 Shift 1] (A) Gujarat (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Rajasthan (D) Maharashtra Answer: (C) Rajasthan Explanation: Bhadla Solar Park is in the arid Phalodi region of Rajasthan. Its high solar irradiation and extensive land availability made it suitable for a large photovoltaic complex. The park is an important landmark in India’s utility-scale solar expansion. Q99. Which is the largest solar park in India by installed capacity as of 2025? [RRB NTPC (Graduate) CBT-I, 17 March 2026 Shift…
- [Indian Space Programme](https://vidyaar.com/indian-space-programme/): Q80. Which Indian solar mission began regular science observations using the SUIT instrument and released initial data sets in early 2025? [SSC GD Constable, 04 May 2026 (Shift 2)] A. AstroSat-2 B. Aditya-L1 C. Chandrayaan-3 D. XPoSat Answer: B. Aditya-L1 Explanation: Aditya-L1 carries the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT), which observes the solar photosphere and chromosphere in near-ultraviolet wavelengths. From a halo orbit around Sun–Earth L1, the observatory can watch the Sun continuously and support studies of solar activity. Q79. What was significant about the Chandrayaan-2 mission despite the unsuccessful landing of its lander? [SSC GD Constable, 04 May 2026 (Shift…
- [Census of India](https://vidyaar.com/census-of-india/): 130. Which authority is responsible for conducting the upcoming Census of India 2027? [RRB Group D 2025 Paper, 4 Aug 2026 Shift 1] A. National Informatics Centre B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation C. Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India D. Election Commission of India Answer: C. Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India Explanation: The Registrar General and Census Commissioner works under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This office coordinates population enumeration across states and union territories. The proposed 2027 Census is distinct from elections and from statistical sample surveys run by other agencies.…
- [Books and Authors](https://vidyaar.com/books-and-authors/): Q150. Who wrote The Star from Calcutta, published in March 2026? [RRB Group D • 12 Aug 2026, Shift 3] A) Sujata Massey B) Ramachandra Guha C) Shashi Tharoor D) Vikram Sampath Answer: A) Sujata Massey Explanation: Sujata Massey’s historical mystery belongs to her Perveen Mistry series. Set in colonial-era India amid the silent-film world, it follows a pioneering woman lawyer and combines crime fiction with the social history of the 1920s. Q149. Who wrote Zubeen Garg: The Voice that Bridged Worlds? [RRB Group D • 10 Aug 2026, Shift 1] A) Anuradha Sharma B) Prosenjit Nath C) Parismita Singh D)…
- [Important Days](https://vidyaar.com/important-days/): 100. The theme of World Water Day 2026 is “Water and Gender”. On which date is this day observed annually? [RRB Group D — 25 Aug 2026, Shift 3] Answer: (A) 22 March Explanation: World Water Day is observed on 22 March to underline the importance of freshwater and sustainable management. The 2026 focus on water and gender emphasizes unequal access and the different responsibilities associated with collecting, managing and using water. 99. What was the official United Nations theme for International Women’s Day 2026? [RRB Group D — 20 Aug 2026, Shift 3] Answer: (B) Rights. Justice. Action. For ALL…
- [Wildlife in India](https://vidyaar.com/wildlife-in-india/): 100. Regarding Madhav National Park, assess: 1. It became a tiger reserve in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, a Ramsar site, lies within it. 3. The park is spread over Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Which statements are correct? [UPSC CSE Prelims – 2026] (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only Explanation: Madhav National Park lies entirely in Shivpuri district, Madhya Pradesh. It was notified as a tiger reserve in 2025, while Sakhya Sagar is a recognised Ramsar wetland inside the park. Hence statements 1 and 2 alone…
- [World Heritage Sites in India](https://vidyaar.com/world-heritage-sites-in-india/): 100. The Kumbhalgarh Fort, a component of the Hill Forts of Rajasthan World Heritage property, lies in which state? [RRB Group D — 25 Aug 2026, Shift 1] A. Maharashtra B. Rajasthan C. Uttar Pradesh D. Himachal Pradesh Answer: B. Rajasthan Explanation: Kumbhalgarh is a historic Mewar fortress in Rajsamand district, Rajasthan. UNESCO inscribed the Hill Forts of Rajasthan serial property in 2013. Kumbhalgarh is famous for its long fortification wall and its association with ruler Rana Kumbha. 99. Hampi, now on the World Heritage List, functioned as the capital of which historical empire? [RRB NTPC UG CBT-I — 8 May…
- [Tribes in India](https://vidyaar.com/tribes-in-india/): 100. What is the typical formation of Santhal dance? [SSC GD Constable, 31 May 2026, Shift 1] (A)Solo dance by women (B)Group dance in a circular or line formation involving both men and women (C)Martial dance with swords (D)Dance performed sitting down Answer: (B) Group dance in a circular or line formation involving both men and women Explanation: Santhal dance is characteristically communal, involving coordinated steps in linked lines or circles. Men and women participate in celebrations associated with agrarian and community life. Such formations express cooperation and collective identity among the Santhal people of eastern India. 99. Nongkrem dance is…
- [Art and Culture](https://vidyaar.com/art-and-culture/): Q400. Which Carnatic raga corresponds most closely to Hindustani Raga Bilawal? [UPSC CSE Prelims – 2026] (A) Nat Bhairavi (B) Kamavardhini (C) Hanumatodi (D) Dheera Shankarabharanam Answer: (D) Dheera Shankarabharanam Explanation: Both Bilawal and Dheera Shankarabharanam use the seven natural notes of the major scale. Shankarabharanam is the twenty-ninth melakarta raga of the Carnatic system. The other listed ragas employ altered scale degrees and therefore do not match Bilawal. Q399. Which of these temples possess Nagara-style shikharas? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami; 2. Huchimalligudi, Aihole; 3. Dashavatara, Deogarh; 4. Virupaksha, Pattadakal. [UPSC CSE Prelims – 2026] (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2…
- [National and International Organizations](https://vidyaar.com/national-and-international-organizations/): Q100. What growth rate did the IMF’s January 2026 World Economic Outlook project for the global economy in 2026? [DSSSB Court Attendant, 12 Jun 2026] (A) 2.1% (B) 1.5% (C) 6.2% (D) 3.3% Answer: (D) 3.3% Explanation: The January 2026 World Economic Outlook Update projected world output growth of 3.3 percent for 2026. The International Monetary Fund issues the WEO to evaluate global economic trends, risks and policy challenges. The figure is a forecast from that particular update, not a permanent statistic. Q99. Which grouping did India chair during 2026? [RRB Group D, 17 Aug 2026 Shift 1] (A) OECD (B)…
- [Important Schemes](https://vidyaar.com/important-schemes/): 100. Regarding Sagarmala: I. It seeks port-led growth through sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. Shipping growth and better port rankings show its effectiveness. III. Sagarmala 2.0 advances maritime innovation. Which relationships hold? 1. II supports I; 2. III extends I; 3. I contradicts III. [UPSC CSE Prelims, Paper I – 2026] A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 only Answer: B. 1 and 2 Explanation: Sagarmala began in 2015 to improve ports, connectivity and coastal development. Shipping and logistics gains support its initial strategy, while Sagarmala 2.0 adds shipbuilding and innovation. The newer programme extends, rather…
- [Neighbouring Countries of India](https://vidyaar.com/neighbouring-countries-of-india/): 100. Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries: 1. Maitri Setu over the Feni connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar. 3. Mechi bridge connects Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. Which are correct? [UPSC CSE Prelims, GS Paper I (2026)] Answer: (D) 3 only Explanation: Only the Mechi Bridge statement is correct. Maitri Setu actually connects Sabroom in India with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, opposite to statement 1. Jhulaghat spans the Kali River on the India–Nepal border, not the India–Myanmar border. 99. Which statement about…
- [State and Union Territories of India](https://vidyaar.com/state-and-union-territories-of-india/): Q100. As per Census 2011, about what share of India’s population lived in Rajasthan? [SSC GD Constable (08 May 2026, Shift 3), 2026] Answer: (A) 5.5% Explanation: Rajasthan had approximately 6.85 crore residents in the 2011 Census, or around 5.66 percent of India’s total. Of the offered rounded percentages, 5.5 percent is closest. Its share of national land area is much higher, approximately 10.4 percent. Q99. Under Article 155, who formally appoints the Governor of a State? [DSSSB Primary Teacher (19 Feb 2026, Shift 1), 2026] Answer: (D) President of India Explanation: Article 155 empowers the President to appoint a Governor…
- [First in World](https://vidyaar.com/first-in-world/): 100. Which Indian state elected the world’s first democratically elected communist government headed by E. M. S. Namboodiripad? [SSC GD Constable, 30 April 2026, Shift 3] Answer: (B) Kerala Explanation: Kerala elected a Communist Party of India-led government in 1957, with E. M. S. Namboodiripad becoming Chief Minister. This landmark is frequently described in competitive exams as the first democratically elected communist government, distinguishing an electoral victory from revolutionary seizures of power. 99. Who launched a rocket equipped with a fully single-piece 3D-printed engine in 2024? [SSC GD Constable, 9 May 2026, Shift 3] Answer: (A) Agnikul Explanation: Chennai-based Agnikul Cosmos…
- [First in India (Female)](https://vidyaar.com/first-in-india-female/): 100. Who became the first woman Municipal Commissioner of the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation? [SSC Selection Post (Higher Secondary), 18 Sep 2026, Shift 2] A) Smita Sabharwal B) Ashwini Bhide C) Kiran Bedi D) Aruna Roy Answer: B) Ashwini Bhide Explanation: Ashwini Bhide took charge as the first woman Commissioner of the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation in March 2026. A Maharashtra-cadre IAS officer, she had earlier led Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation and was closely associated with the Metro Line 3 project. 99. Preeti Rajak became the first woman in the Indian Army to be promoted to which rank? [SSC Selection Post (Graduate), 17…
- [First in India (Male)](https://vidyaar.com/first-in-india-male/): 100. Which Indian sprinter became the first Indian to run the 100 metres under 10.1 seconds at the 2026 Federation Cup in Ranchi? [RRB Group D (13 Aug 2026, Shift 2)] A) Amlan Borgohain B) Gurindervir Singh C) Muhammed Anas D) Manikanta Hoblidhar Answer: B) Gurindervir Singh Explanation: Gurindervir Singh broke the 10.10-second threshold for an Indian men’s 100-metre runner in May 2026. His officially reported 10.09-second performance at the Federation Cup in Ranchi became an Indian sprinting milestone. It was not a sub-ten-second run. 99. In May 2026, which Indian athlete became the first Indian sprinter to run the men’s…
- [External Sector, Global Institutions and Population](https://vidyaar.com/external-sector-global-institutions-and-population/): 200. Which international institution reclassified India’s exchange-rate arrangement to a crawl-like regime in 2025? [RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I (27 March, Shift 1) — 2026] (A) World Bank (B) Asian Development Bank (C) International Monetary Fund (D) Bank for International Settlements Answer: (C) International Monetary Fund Explanation: The IMF monitors member countries’ exchange-rate policies through surveillance exercises. A crawl-like arrangement denotes small adjustments or gradual movement in an exchange rate rather than a permanently fixed parity. The reclassification concerns the rupee’s observed behaviour, not a law changing India’s currency. 199. According to the IMF January 2026 World Economic Outlook, what rate of…
- [Money, RBI, Banking and Financial Markets](https://vidyaar.com/money-rbi-banking-and-financial-markets/): Q400. Which statement about UPI and the Digital Rupee is incorrect? [UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] A. UPI enables real-time payments while the digital rupee represents sovereign money B. UPI shifts bank deposits whereas e-rupee moves digital cash between wallets C. UPI debits appear in bank statements whereas wallet-to-wallet e-rupee transfers generally do not D. In both UPI and digital-rupee transactions, liability rests with users and their banks Answer: (D) In both UPI and digital-rupee transactions, liability rests with users and their banks Explanation: A UPI payment transfers a claim on commercial banks. Digital rupees are liabilities of the Reserve Bank of…
- [Planning, NITI Aayog and Welfare Schemes](https://vidyaar.com/planning-niti-aayog-and-welfare-schemes/): Q141. Regarding the Multidimensional Poverty Index, which statements are correct: (1) It uses the Alkire–Foster method; (2) NITI Aayog’s index has twelve indicators; (3) Maternal Health and Bank Account appear in both India’s and UNDP’s indices? [UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 only Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only Explanation: India’s National MPI employs the Alkire–Foster approach and covers twelve indicators. Its two additional indicators, maternal health and bank accounts, are absent from the ten-indicator global MPI. The third statement therefore incorrectly identifies them as common…
- [Public Finance, Budget and Taxation](https://vidyaar.com/public-finance-budget-and-taxation/): Q180. In fiscal policy, what does the crowding-out effect principally mean? [UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] (A) Public borrowing stimulates additional private investment (B) Government borrowing raises interest rates and reduces private investment (C) Higher taxes necessarily increase private capital formation (D) Government expenditure has no effect on aggregate demand Answer: (B) Government borrowing raises interest rates and reduces private investment Explanation: When the government borrows heavily, demand for available loanable funds may rise, pushing up financing costs for firms. As private projects become less profitable at higher interest rates, some investments are deferred. This displacement is called crowding out. Q179. What…
- [Services, Digital Economy and Employment](https://vidyaar.com/services-digital-economy-and-employment/): 80. Which factors explain the expansion of the gig economy in India: (A) growth of online businesses, (B) preference for working from home, (C) project-specific consultancy hiring, (D) growth in organised-sector jobs? [UGC NET Economics – 30 June 2026] (A) A, B and C only (B) C and D only (C) B only (D) A and D only Answer: (A) A, B and C only Explanation: Online platforms create demand for flexible assignments, remote arrangements make independent work feasible, and firms often contract experts for individual projects. These three factors support gig work. A general increase in regular organised-sector employment does…
- [Industry, MSMEs and Infrastructure](https://vidyaar.com/industry-msmes-and-infrastructure/): 80. Which of the following is included among India’s sunrise sectors? [UPSC CDS-I, General Knowledge — 2026] (A) Manufacturing sector (B) Food-processing sector (C) Textile sector (D) Services sector Answer: (B) Food-processing sector Explanation: Food processing is considered a sunrise sector because demand for processed food, value addition, cold chains and export opportunities are expanding. It connects farm producers with manufacturing and logistics while generating employment and reducing losses of perishable agricultural products. 79. With reference to the Industrial Revolution, consider: 1. Power-driven machines replaced much handicraft production. 2. Industrial nations relied on other countries for raw materials. 3. Factory machinery…
- [Agriculture and Allied Sectors](https://vidyaar.com/agriculture-and-allied-sectors/): 140. Under Rainfed Area Development of NMSA, which objective is included? Consider: 1. Encouraging monoculture; 2. Increasing irrigated rice area; 3. Improving productivity and reducing climatic risks through integrated farming systems. [UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only Answer: D. 3 only Explanation: Rainfed Area Development encourages diversified integrated farming systems, combining crops with allied enterprises. It is intended to manage climate risk in rainfed districts, not increase monoculture or expand irrigated rice cultivation. 139. The Rural Prosperity and Resilience programme announced in Union Budget 2025–26 was intended…
- [Sustainable Development, Poverty and HDI](https://vidyaar.com/sustainable-development-poverty-and-hdi/): 80. Which pair of actions most directly advances sustainable development? [RRB Group D, 10 Aug 2026, Shift 1] Answer: A. Expansion of renewable energy and afforestation Explanation: Renewable sources lower dependence on exhaustible fuels, while afforestation helps maintain carbon sinks, biodiversity and soil stability. Both support present welfare without needlessly weakening ecological resources available to future generations. The remaining combinations actively intensify environmental degradation. 79. Which three broad achievements form the Human Development Index? [RRB NTPC (UG), 15 Jun 2026, Shift 3] Answer: A. Longevity, educational attainment and income Explanation: The HDI summarizes a long and healthy life, access to knowledge,…
- [National Income, GDP and Economic Growth](https://vidyaar.com/national-income-gdp-and-economic-growth/): Q180. Who introduced the expression “Hindu rate of growth” in Indian economic discourse? [SSC GD Constable (29 May 2026, Shift 2)] A. Montek Singh Ahluwalia B. Raj Krishna C. Jagdish Bhagwati D. Amartya Sen Answer: B. Raj Krishna Explanation: Raj Krishna used this expression for the persistently modest rate of expansion of India’s economy over several post-independence decades. It referred to sluggish national output growth, not to the growth rate of any religion or religious population. Q179. Identify the flow variable among the following. [SSC GD Constable (31 May 2026, Shift 1)] A. National income B. Money supply C. Capital stock…
- [Nature of the Indian Economy and Economic Reforms](https://vidyaar.com/nature-of-the-indian-economy-and-economic-reforms/): Q119. Which set correctly lists the three sub-indices of RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index? [UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] (A) Credit access, insurance depth and pension coverage (B) Bank access, GDP share and financial literacy (C) Access, usage and quality (D) Access, affordability and transparency Answer: (C) Access, usage and quality Explanation: The RBI index groups financial inclusion into access, usage and quality. These dimensions distinguish having the possibility of using formal finance from actual participation and service standards. Aggregate scores therefore represent more than account ownership alone. Q118. What is the key objective of the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)? [UPSC…
- [Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology](https://vidyaar.com/genetic-engineering-and-biotechnology/): Q150. Consider genetic medicines: 1. They can correct or compensate for defective genes. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles may deliver them. 3. They always rewrite the entire genome. Which are correct? [UPSC CSE (Pre) 2026] Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only Explanation: Genetic medicines address particular genes or their products rather than rewriting all chromosomes. Engineered viral vectors and lipid nanoparticles help deliver therapeutic genetic material into cells. Therefore the first two statements are correct, while the third is an overgeneralisation. Q149. What is the fundamental hereditary material of most cellular organisms? [UPSC CSE — Practice] Answer: (a) DNA Explanation:…
- [Deficiency, Non-Communicable and Other Diseases](https://vidyaar.com/deficiency-non-communicable-and-other-diseases/): Q150.Smoking increases the risk of which blood-vessel-related disease? [RRB Group D 2025 cycle (held 25 Aug 2026, Shift 3) — 2026] (a) Anaemia (b) Diabetes (c) Goitre (d) Cardiovascular disease Answer: (d) Cardiovascular disease Explanation: Tobacco smoke damages blood-vessel lining and promotes atherosclerosis and clot formation. These processes raise the risk of heart attacks, stroke and peripheral arterial disease. Smoking cessation is a major preventable cardiovascular risk reduction measure. Timely recognition matters because reduced organ blood supply can become an emergency. Q149.Which element is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine hormone? [RRB Group D 2025 cycle (held 12 Aug…
- [Plant Diseases](https://vidyaar.com/plant-diseases/): Q50. Plant disease pathogens may be carried from one plant to another by which media? [RRB Group D — 09 February 2026, Shift 3] (A) Soil alone (B) Both soil and air (C) Air alone (D) Neither soil nor air Answer: (B) Both soil and air Explanation: Soil can carry persistent fungal structures and infected plant debris, while wind disperses many fungal spores. Water, seeds, tools and insect vectors are additional routes. Therefore, restricting transmission to either soil or air alone would be scientifically incorrect. Q49. Rice blast should be classified primarily as which type of plant disease? [CGPSC Preliminary Examination…
- [Genetic Disorders](https://vidyaar.com/genetic-disorders/): Q50. A rare genetic disorder makes the hard matrix of bone less rigid, leading to frequent fractures. Which explanation is most likely? [RRB Group D – 17 Aug 2026, Shift 2] (A) Loss of sugars from cartilage (B) Reduced plasma proteins (C) A type I collagen defect due to mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2 (D) Excess haemoglobin in bones Answer: (C) A type I collagen defect due to mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2 Explanation: Osteogenesis imperfecta, or brittle-bone disease, frequently involves defects in type I collagen. The collagen framework gives bone tensile strength, while minerals provide hardness. Faulty collagen therefore makes…
- [Fungal Diseases](https://vidyaar.com/fungal-diseases/): Q40. A chronic infection is caused by a eukaryote with a chitinous cell wall that produces spores. Which organism is implicated? [RRB Group D | 2026 | PYQ (2025 recruitment cycle)] Answer: (A) Fungus Explanation: Fungi possess a true nucleus and cell walls containing chitin. Many reproduce by spores and some cause persistent infections in humans. Bacteria lack a true nucleus; protozoa usually lack a rigid chitin wall, making fungus the appropriate identification. Q39. A fungal culture grows best in a warm, moist incubator. Which biological process is most directly favoured? [RRB Group D | 2026 | PYQ (2025 recruitment cycle)]…
- [Bacterial Diseases](https://vidyaar.com/bacterial-diseases/): Q80. Which disease–category pairing is incorrect? [UPSC CDS-I 2026, General Knowledge] Answer: (C) Dengue — non-viral Explanation: Dengue is caused by dengue viruses, so calling it non-viral is wrong. Whooping cough is caused by Bordetella pertussis; athlete’s foot is a fungal infection, while poliomyelitis is viral. The question tests accurate distinctions among infectious agents. Q79. What was the 2025 World Leprosy Day theme? [RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I, 9 May 2026] Answer: (B) Unite. Act. Eliminate. Explanation: The 2025 World Leprosy Day theme was “Unite. Act. Eliminate.” The observance promotes early detection, effective multidrug treatment and reduction of discrimination. Leprosy, or Hansen’s…
- [Viral Diseases](https://vidyaar.com/viral-diseases/): Q80. Which pairing of a disease with its causative category is incorrect? [UPSC CDS (I) 2026] (A) Polio — viral (B) Athlete’s foot — fungal (C) Dengue — non-viral (D) Whooping cough — bacterial Answer: (C) Dengue — non-viral Explanation: Dengue is caused by dengue virus, a flavivirus transmitted mainly by Aedes mosquitoes. Polio is also viral, athlete’s foot is a fungal infection, and whooping cough results from Bordetella pertussis bacteria. Thus the dengue classification is the erroneous pair. Q79. Which laboratory method allows one-tube detection of dengue, chikungunya and Zika viruses? [RRB Group D, 14 August 2026] (A) Bacterial culture…
- [Plant: Economic Importance](https://vidyaar.com/plant-economic-importance/): Q70. Which of the following combinations correctly describes economic botany? [UPSC CSE — Practice] Answer: (B) Study of economically useful plants and their products Explanation: Economic botany examines plant resources that support food, medicine, fibres, timber, oils and commerce. It links botanical identification with cultivation, harvesting and industrial uses. Because plants form the foundation of many supply chains, the field has important livelihood applications. Q69. Which plant family includes the principal cereals wheat, rice and maize? [WBCS — Practice] Answer: (A) Poaceae Explanation: Wheat, rice and maize are grasses belonging to Poaceae, formerly Gramineae. Their carbohydrate-rich grains are staple foods for…
- [Plant Reproduction](https://vidyaar.com/plant-reproduction/): Q50. What do the ovary and the ovule generally develop into after fertilisation in a flowering plant? [RRB Group D, 4 February 2026, Shift 2] (A) Ovary becomes seed; ovule becomes fruit (B) Ovary becomes fruit; ovule becomes seed (C) Ovary becomes radicle; ovule becomes plumule (D) Both become cotyledons Answer: (B) Ovary becomes fruit; ovule becomes seed Explanation: Following double fertilisation, the ovary typically matures into a fruit, while its ovules become seeds. The ovary wall forms the pericarp, and the integuments form seed coats. These changes protect the developing embryo and assist dispersal. Q49. The pollen tube growing through…
- [Plant Hormones](https://vidyaar.com/plant-hormones/): Q30. Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as a herbicide? [RE-NEET 2026] (A) 2,4-D (B) Kinetin (C) Abscisic acid (D) Gibberellin Answer: (A) 2,4-D Explanation: 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D) is a synthetic auxin widely applied as a selective herbicide, particularly against broad-leaved weeds. At excessive concentrations, it causes uncontrolled growth in susceptible plants. Kinetin is a cytokinin, whereas abscisic acid and gibberellin serve different regulatory functions. Q29. Which plant growth regulator promotes internode elongation before flowering in cabbage? [RE-NEET 2026] (A) Abscisic acid (B) Gibberellin (C) Indole-3-butyric acid (D) Ethephon Answer: (B) Gibberellin Explanation: Gibberellins promote bolting, the rapid…
- [Nutrition in Plants](https://vidyaar.com/nutrition-in-plants/): Q50. Which statement accurately describes photosynthesis in green plants? [RRB NTPC (Graduate), CBT-I — 25 March 2026] (A) It occurs mainly in mitochondria (B) It changes light energy into chemical energy (C) It breaks down glucose to release energy (D) It occurs mainly at night Answer: (B) It changes light energy into chemical energy Explanation: Photosynthesis captures solar energy through chlorophyll and stores it in chemical bonds of carbohydrates. Chloroplasts, not mitochondria, are its principal sites in green plant cells. Glucose breakdown belongs to cellular respiration, whereas photosynthesis mainly synthesises energy-rich organic substances. Q49. The primary food substance formed by a…
- [Photosynthesis](https://vidyaar.com/photosynthesis/): 50. Which process is involved in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis? [UPSC CDS-II, General Knowledge (13 Sep 2026)] Answer: (A) Calvin cycle Explanation: The Calvin cycle uses ATP and NADPH generated during the light reactions to fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules. It operates in the chloroplast stroma. Hill reaction, photosystem excitation and light absorption belong to the light-dependent stage. 49. Which of the following is NOT a function of carotenoid pigments? [UPSC CDS-I, General Knowledge (12 Apr 2026)] Answer: (D) Acting as the reaction centre of a photosystem Explanation: Carotenoids are accessory pigments that absorb additional wavelengths and protect photosynthetic…
- [Reproduction and Embryogenesis](https://vidyaar.com/reproduction-and-embryogenesis/): Q40. Which organ sheds its inner lining during menstruation? [RRB Technician Grade III — 9 October 2026] (A) Fallopian tube (B) Uterus (C) Liver (D) Ovary Answer: (B) Uterus Explanation: Menstrual bleeding occurs when the functional layer of the uterine endometrium breaks down and is expelled. Falling ovarian hormone levels trigger this process if implantation has not occurred. The ovaries regulate the cycle, but the lining being shed belongs to the uterus. Q39. Which event is counted as Day 1 of the human menstrual cycle? [RRB Technician Grade III — 8 October 2026, Shift 2] (A) Beginning of menstrual bleeding (B)…
- [Endocrine System](https://vidyaar.com/endocrine-system/): Q80. Which element is essential for the thyroid gland to synthesise thyroxine? [RRB Group D, 18 August 2026, Shift 1 (memory-based paper)] (A) Iodine (B) Calcium (C) Vitamin D (D) Iron Answer: (A) Iodine Explanation: Iodine is incorporated into thyroid hormones T3 and T4. Inadequate iodine intake may reduce thyroid-hormone production and cause goitre. Iodised salt is a major public-health measure against iodine-deficiency disorders. This attribution comes from a memory-based paper rather than an official question booklet. Q79. Which statements about the pituitary are correct? (a) It has adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis; (b) it secretes FSH; (c) it secretes MSH; (d) it…
- [Nervous System](https://vidyaar.com/nervous-system/): 50. Which statement about nervous tissue is incorrect? [RRB Group D (9 Aug 2026, Shift 1; 2025 recruitment cycle)] Answer: (D) The cells responsible for nerve impulses are called nephrons. Explanation: Neurons, not nephrons, are the excitable signalling cells of nervous tissue. Nephrons are microscopic functional units of the kidneys. A neuron possesses a cell body and processes, including an axon, that help transmit information through the nervous system. 49. The brain and spinal cord are composed primarily of which tissue? [SSC GD Constable (19 May 2026, Shift 3)] Answer: (C) Nervous tissue Explanation: The brain and spinal cord constitute the…
- [Excretory System](https://vidyaar.com/excretory-system/): Q40. Which structures in the human kidney remove soluble nitrogenous wastes from the blood? [SSC MTS 2025 Cycle (held 11 February 2026)] (a) Urethra (b) Nephrons (c) ATP molecules (d) Xylem vessels Answer: (b) Nephrons Explanation: Nephrons are microscopic filtering and urine-forming units inside the kidneys. They filter plasma at the renal corpuscle, selectively reabsorb useful substances and eliminate nitrogenous wastes through urine. The urethra merely carries urine outside the body and does not filter blood. Q39. Which of the following are selectively reabsorbed from the initial kidney filtrate: I. glucose; II. amino acids? [SSC CHSL Tier-I (17 November 2025)] (a)…
- [Circulatory System](https://vidyaar.com/circulatory-system/): 80. Oxygen in human blood is chiefly carried by binding to which pigment? [RRB Group D — 21 August 2026, Shift 2] Answer: (B) Haemoglobin Explanation: Haemoglobin is an iron-containing protein inside red blood cells. Each haemoglobin molecule can reversibly bind four oxygen molecules, enabling oxygen pickup in the lungs and delivery to tissues. Myoglobin mainly stores oxygen in muscle, whereas plasma carries only a small dissolved fraction. 79. Consider: Assertion (A): Veins have thinner walls than arteries. Reason (R): Veins transport blood under high pressure. Choose the correct relation. [RRB Group D — 21 August 2026, Shift 1] Answer: (C)…
- [Respiratory System](https://vidyaar.com/respiratory-system/): Q80. Which of the following properties of alveoli is/are helpful in gaseous exchange during respiration in human beings? I. Very thin epithelial lining. II. Elastic fibres in the alveolar wall. III. Many surrounding blood capillaries. Select the correct answer. [UPSC NDA-II (13 September 2026)] (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) III only (d) I, II and III Answer: (D) I, II and III Explanation: The alveolar epithelial layer is extremely thin, reducing diffusion distance. Numerous surrounding capillaries maintain concentration gradients for oxygen and carbon dioxide. Elastic fibres permit stretching and recoil during ventilation. Together these three…
- [Vitamins and Nutrition](https://vidyaar.com/vitamins-and-nutrition/): Q170. Why must vitamins A and K be maintained adequately in broiler poultry feed? [RRB JE CBT-I, 20 Feb 2026, Shift 1] Answer: (b) Proper nourishment for growth and development Explanation: Growing broilers require balanced dietary vitamins as well as energy and protein. Vitamin A supports epithelial health and development, whereas vitamin K is required for normal coagulation, contributing to proper nutrition and healthy growth. Q169. What food-related concerns were highlighted in the World Food Safety Day 2025 awareness campaign? [RRB Group D, 5 Feb 2026, Shift 1] Answer: (d) Hidden sugars, fats and oils Explanation: The public-health awareness campaign emphasised…
- [Digestive System](https://vidyaar.com/digestive-system/): 70. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth. Where is it completed? [RRB Group D (18 Aug 2026, Shift 3)] Answer: (b) Small intestine Explanation: Salivary amylase begins hydrolysing starch in the mouth. Pancreatic amylase continues carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine, and intestinal brush-border enzymes convert disaccharides into absorbable monosaccharides. Therefore, the small intestine is where this digestion is completed. 69. If peristalsis in the oesophagus is impaired, what is likely to happen after swallowing? [RRB Group D (18 Aug 2026, Shift 1)] Answer: (d) Food will not reach the stomach efficiently Explanation: The oesophagus propels a swallowed bolus by coordinated…
- [Skeletal and Muscle System](https://vidyaar.com/skeletal-and-muscle-system/): 60. Which of the following elements of the human skeletal framework is classified as the smallest individual bone in the human body? [SSC Selection Post (Graduate), 17 September 2026, Shift 1] (a) Scapula bone (b) Rib cage (c) Stapes bone (d) Coxal bone Answer: (c) Stapes bone Explanation: The stapes is a tiny stirrup-shaped auditory ossicle in the middle ear. It conveys vibrations from the incus to the oval window. In contrast, the femur is the longest human bone, while the rib cage comprises multiple bones. 59. A football player tears a structure that connects muscles to bones during practice. Which…
- [Biofertilizers](https://vidyaar.com/biofertilizers/): Q60. In legume nodules, nitrogen fixation requires low oxygen despite active respiration. Which mechanism maintains this balance? [UP PGT Biology, 9 May 2026] (a) Suppression of respiration lowers oxygen levels (b) Leghemoglobin buffers oxygen, permitting respiration while protecting nitrogenase (c) Direct diffusion of nitrogen into mitochondria produces ATP (d) Storage-compound synthesis consumes all excess oxygen Answer: (b) Leghemoglobin buffers oxygen, permitting respiration while protecting nitrogenase Explanation: Leghemoglobin binds oxygen reversibly inside legume root nodules. It maintains a low concentration of free oxygen, protecting oxygen-sensitive nitrogenase, while still permitting oxygen delivery for energy-producing respiration. This coordination enables nitrogen-fixing bacteroids to function effectively.…
- [Heredity](https://vidyaar.com/heredity/): 60. What is the term for different forms of the same gene? [DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 6 July 2026 (Shift 2)] (a) Chromosomes (b) Traits (c) Genotypes (d) Alleles Answer: (d) Alleles Explanation: Alleles are alternative versions of a particular gene at the same chromosomal locus. A diploid organism generally receives one allele from each parent. Different allelic combinations help explain inherited variation, such as contrasting seed colours in pea plants. 59. Assertion (A): In polygenic inheritance, each gene has a major and easily identifiable phenotypic effect. Reason (R): Polygenes usually exert only slight effects individually. Select the correct answer. [UPHESC Assistant…
- [Cell](https://vidyaar.com/cell/): Q60. In which of the following processes is active transport NOT used? [UPSC CDS (II), General Knowledge 2026] (a) Reabsorption of amino acids and glucose from kidney into blood (b) Loading sugar from photosynthesizing leaf cells into phloem tissue for transportation (c) Passage of Na⁺ and Cl⁻ through hydrophilic channels formed by protein molecules (d) Absorption of glucose and electrolytes into the bloodstream Answer: (c) Passage of Na⁺ and Cl⁻ through hydrophilic channels formed by protein molecules Explanation: Ion passage through an open channel can occur by facilitated diffusion, following the electrochemical gradient without direct ATP consumption. By contrast, active transport…
- [Taxonomy](https://vidyaar.com/taxonomy/): 175. An organism has many cells, no cell wall and depends on other organisms for nutrition. Which kingdom fits it? [RRB Group D 2025 recruitment, 21 Aug 2026 Shift 2] (A) Fungi (B) Plantae (C) Animalia (D) Monera Answer: (C) Animalia Explanation: Members of Animalia are multicellular eukaryotes without rigid cell walls and are heterotrophic. Plants have cellulose walls and generally photosynthesize, while fungi have chitin-containing walls. Monerans are prokaryotic and principally unicellular. 174. Two bacteria share an order but belong to different families. Which higher taxonomic categories must they share? [RRB Group D 2025 recruitment, 20 Aug 2026 Shift 1]…
- [Evolution of Life](https://vidyaar.com/evolution-of-life/): Q60. Small differences accumulating among individuals over generations eventually produce new life forms. What does this illustrate? [RRB Group D, 12 August 2026, Shift 1] (A) Ecological succession (B) Evolution of biodiversity (C) Taxonomic classification (D) Genetic drift Answer: (B) Evolution of biodiversity Explanation: Evolutionary biodiversity develops as inherited differences accumulate and populations diverge over successive generations. New traits can affect survival and reproduction. Ecological succession changes the community occupying a place, whereas classification merely organises known forms and genetic drift is one particular evolutionary mechanism. Q59. Which criterion best establishes common ancestry and evolutionary relationships between closely related species? [RRB…
- [Subdivisions of Biology](https://vidyaar.com/subdivisions-of-biology/): 40. The scientific study of insects is called: [DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 3 July 2026, Shift 2] (a) Botany (b) Ornithology (c) Ecology (d) Entomology Answer: (d) Entomology Explanation: Entomology is the branch of zoology devoted to insects, their classification, structure, life cycles, behaviour and ecological importance. It is essential in agricultural pest control, insect-borne disease prevention and pollinator conservation. Ornithology, by contrast, is concerned with birds. 39. His family business involves the cultivation of flowering plants for export. Choose the correct term. [OSSSC Forester / Forest Guard / Excise Constable, 23 April 2026, Shift 3] (a) Horticulture (b) Agriculture (c) Sericulture…
- [Fertilizers](https://vidyaar.com/fertilizers/): Q35. Which two elements are primarily added to soil by green manure? [RRB JE CBT 1 (20 February 2026, Shift 1)] (A) Phosphorus and calcium (B) Potassium and magnesium (C) Nitrogen and phosphorus (D) Nitrogen and potassium Answer: (C) Nitrogen and phosphorus Explanation: Green manuring means growing a crop, often a legume, and incorporating it into the soil while green. It adds nitrogen-rich biomass and organic matter, improves soil microbial activity, and supports phosphorus cycling. The examination’s intended pair is nitrogen and phosphorus. Q34. What is a key difference between chemical fertilisers and manures in terms of nutrient release to plants?…
- [Detergents and Soap](https://vidyaar.com/detergents-and-soap/): 35. What happens to soap molecules when they are added to water? [RRB Group D (2025 recruitment cycle), Shift 3 — 25 Aug 2026] (A) The hydrocarbon tail remains in water while the ionic heads project outwards (B) Soap molecules dissolve randomly without any specific orientation (C) The ionic heads remain in water while the hydrocarbon tails project outwards (D) Both the ionic heads and tails remain completely inside water Answer: (C) The ionic heads remain in water while the hydrocarbon tails project outwards Explanation: Soap molecules possess an ionic, water-attracting head and a non-polar, water-repelling tail. At a water–air interface,…
- [Food Preservation, Nutrition, Medicine, etc.](https://vidyaar.com/food-preservation-nutrition-medicine-etc/): Q50. A packet of potato chips is filled with nitrogen gas before sealing. What is the main reason for using nitrogen in the packet? [RRB Group D, 9 August 2026, Shift 2] (A) Nitrogen increases the crispness of chips (B) Nitrogen removes moisture from chips (C) Nitrogen prevents oxidation of oils and fats (D) Nitrogen reacts with oil to stabilize it Answer: (C) Nitrogen prevents oxidation of oils and fats Explanation: Nitrogen is comparatively inert under packaging conditions and displaces oxygen in the packet. Reduced oxygen exposure slows oxidation of the fats present in fried chips. This helps preserve flavour, prevents…
- [Organic Chemistry](https://vidyaar.com/organic-chemistry/): The collection includes hydrocarbons, alcohols, polymers, organic acids, explosive substances, fuels, and related organic chemistry topics. 280. Unsaturated hydrocarbons usually produce: [RRB Group D — 10 Feb 2026, Shift 2] (A) Yellow flame with black smoke (B) Clean blue flames (C) White flame with sparkles (D) No flame at all Answer: (A) Yellow flame with black smoke Explanation: Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain carbon–carbon double or triple bonds. In ordinary air they tend to burn with a luminous, smoky flame when combustion is incomplete. Soot consists of fine carbon particles, whereas complete combustion chiefly yields carbon dioxide and water. 279. Which property of…
- [Non-metals](https://vidyaar.com/non-metals/): Non-metals: Carbon and its forms, Hydrogen and its compounds, Sulphur, Nitrogen, Halogens, Inert Gases, and Acids, Bases and Salts. 180. When hydrochloric acid reacts with copper oxide, which product gives a blue-green solution? [UPSC CDS — 2026] (A) Copper hydrochloride (B) Copper(II) chloride (C) Copper(I) chloride (D) Copper(I) hydride Answer: (B) Copper(II) chloride Explanation: Copper(II) oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce copper(II) chloride and water. Copper ions account for the blue-green appearance of the resulting solution. The structure and bonding of water-related compounds largely determine their physical and chemical properties. 179. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct…
- [Alloys](https://vidyaar.com/alloys/): Q35. Which of the following substances has the highest resistivity? [RRB Group D 2025-cycle Official Paper (21 August 2026, Shift 1)] (A) Manganin (B) Silver (C) Tungsten (D) Iron Answer: (A) Manganin Explanation: Manganin is a copper–manganese–nickel alloy with much greater electrical resistivity than the three pure metals listed. Its resistance changes very little with temperature, making it useful in precision resistance standards and meter shunts. Silver, by contrast, is an excellent electrical conductor. Q34. Why are alloys preferred for heating elements in appliances like toasters? [RRB Group D 2025-cycle Official Paper (3 August 2026, Shift 1)] (A) Because they have…
- [Metals, Minerals, Ores: Properties & Uses](https://vidyaar.com/metals-minerals-ores-properties-uses/): Q80. Which of the following is NOT one of the belts of iron ore deposits in India? [SSC Selection Post (Graduate Level), 18 September 2026, Shift 1] (A) Durg–Bastar–Chandrapur belt (B) Bellary–Chitradurga–Tumkur belt (C) Maharashtra–Goa belt (D) Ludhiana–Delhi–Kanpur belt 𝐀𝐧𝐬𝐰𝐞𝐫: (D) Ludhiana–Delhi–Kanpur belt Explanation: The Ludhiana–Delhi–Kanpur region is an industrial and urban corridor, not a principal iron-ore mining belt. Major iron-ore belts occur in the peninsular shield, including Odisha–Jharkhand, Durg–Bastar–Chandrapur, Karnataka and Maharashtra–Goa. Q79. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to ___ per cent. [SSC GD Constable, 7 May 2026, Shift 3] (A)…
- [Inorganic Chemistry](https://vidyaar.com/inorganic-chemistry/): Q35. Which chemical weathering process occurs when atmospheric or soil carbon dioxide dissolves in water? [RRB NTPC Graduate Level CBT-II, 10 July 2026] (A) Carburation (B) Carbolation (C) Carboxylation (D) Carbonation Answer: (D) Carbonation Explanation: Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form weak carbonic acid. This acid attacks carbonate minerals, especially limestone, producing more soluble bicarbonates. The chemical weathering process involving carbonic acid formation and its attack on rocks is called carbonation. Q34. What property of noble gases accounts for their very low chemical reactivity under standard conditions? [RRB NTPC Undergraduate CBT-I, 20 June 2026, Shift 2] (A) Completely filled valence…
- [Physical and Chemical Changes, Solution](https://vidyaar.com/physical-and-chemical-changes-solution/): 50. Which of the following is NOT an example of a colloid? [RRB Group D, 25 Aug 2026, Shift 2] (A) Milk (B) Blood (C) Sugar solution (D) Ice cream Answer: (C) Sugar solution Explanation: A sugar solution is a true homogeneous solution: individual sugar molecules are distributed throughout water and are too small to produce appreciable Tyndall scattering. Milk and ice cream are colloidal systems; blood contains dispersed components and colloidal plasma constituents. 49. Which of the following is a characteristic of a true solution? [RRB Group D, 25 Aug 2026, Shift 1] (A) Solute particles are easily separated by…
- [Atomic Structure](https://vidyaar.com/atomic-structure/): 50. Which of the following phenomena is explained by Bohr’s model? [RRB Group D — 14 Aug 2026, Shift 1] (A) Rutherford scattering (B) Diffraction of neutron (C) Diffraction of proton (D) Hydrogen line spectrum Answer: (D) Hydrogen line spectrum Explanation: Bohr proposed discrete, stable electron energy levels in hydrogen. Electrons emit or absorb photons while moving between levels, producing specific spectral lines rather than a continuous spectrum. This successfully explains the regular pattern of the hydrogen line spectrum. 49. Which of the following best represents the characteristic properties of isotopes? [RRB Group D — 14 Aug 2026, Shift 3] (A)…
- [Scientists & Inventions](https://vidyaar.com/scientists-inventions/): Q100. Consider the following inventor–invention pairs: 1. Flying shuttle loom — John Kay; 2. Water frame — James Hargreaves; 3. Spinning jenny — Richard Arkwright. How many pairs are correctly matched? [UPSC NDA (I) – 2026] (A) Only one (B) Only two (C) All three (D) None Answer: (A) Only one Explanation: John Kay developed the flying shuttle, improving weaving speed. The water frame is associated with Richard Arkwright, while James Hargreaves invented the spinning jenny. Therefore, only the first pairing is correct; the other two inventors have been interchanged. Q99. Who is credited with the discovery of the electron? [RRB…
- [Defence Technology](https://vidyaar.com/defence-technology/): Q150. On 11 January 2026, DRDO successfully tested which third-generation fire-and-forget missile capable of top attack against moving targets? [DSSSB MTS, 26 July 2026, Shift 2] (A) Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (B) HELINA (C) SANT (D) Nag missile Answer: (A) Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile Explanation: The MPATGM is an indigenous portable anti-tank guided missile intended for infantry use. Its imaging infrared seeker guides the weapon after launch, while its top-attack capability aims at the relatively vulnerable upper armour of tanks. Q149. Which missile did DRDO and the Indian Navy test on 27 February 2025 from Chandipur? [DSSSB PRT, 19…
- [Space](https://vidyaar.com/space/): Q110. Consider the following statements about private entities in India’s space programme: 1. IN-SPACe is an autonomous agency facilitating private participation. 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using a 3D-printed rocket engine. 3. Skyroot Aerospace developed liquid fuel for GSLV. Which statements are correct? [UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only Explanation: IN-SPACe enables private participation in India’s space sector, while Agnikul demonstrated a flight using its additively manufactured engine. Skyroot develops independent launch vehicles; it did not…
- [Computer & Information Technology](https://vidyaar.com/computer-information-technology/): Q292. Which generation of computers employed microprocessors as its defining hardware technology? [UPSC CDS 2026 (General Knowledge)] Answer: C. Fourth generation Explanation: Fourth-generation systems brought an entire central processing unit onto a microprocessor chip, making computers substantially smaller and cheaper. Earlier generations were characterised chiefly by vacuum tubes, transistors and integrated circuits respectively. The microprocessor became central from the early 1970s. Q291. Which application-layer protocol is used by browsers to request and receive web pages? [RRB JE, 2 July 2026] Answer: C. HTTP Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol governs the request-and-response exchange between a web browser and a web server. FTP transfers…
- [Nuclear Physics](https://vidyaar.com/nuclear-physics/): Q100. Under Rutherford’s atomic model, which description best fits the nucleus? [RRB Group D (20 August 2026, Shift 1)] (A) A broad negatively charged region (B) A tiny, dense, positively charged centre (C) A diffuse neutral cloud (D) A shell consisting only of electrons Answer: (B) A tiny, dense, positively charged centre Explanation: Rutherford inferred a compact central nucleus from the rare large-angle deflections of alpha particles passing through thin metal foil. Almost all atomic mass is concentrated in this extremely small, positively charged region, whereas electrons occupy the surrounding space. Q99. Which observation in Rutherford’s alpha-scattering experiment supported the conclusion…
- [Conductivity](https://vidyaar.com/conductivity/): Q40. Two conducting wires of the same material have lengths L and 1.2L. If the longer wire has half the volume of the shorter wire, how does its electrical resistance compare? [UPSC NDA II, General Ability, 13 September 2026] A. 288% larger B. 200% larger C. 188% larger D. 108% larger Answer: C. 188% larger Explanation: Resistance is ρL/A. Since volume equals area times length, the longer wire has area A/2.4 if the shorter has area A. Its resistance is then 1.2 × 2.4 = 2.88 times the original, or 188% larger. Q39. Three wires X, Y and Z have equal…
- [Electric Current](https://vidyaar.com/electric-current/): Q100. How much electrical energy is consumed when a 1 kW appliance operates for one hour? [RRB Group D — 18 August 2026, Shift 3] (A) 1 watt-hour (B) 1 kilowatt-hour (C) 1 joule (D) 1 kilowatt Answer: (B) 1 kilowatt-hour Explanation: Electrical energy equals power multiplied by the operating time. A 1,000-watt device running for one hour consumes 1,000 watt-hours, or 1 kilowatt-hour. The kilowatt-hour measures energy, not power, and is commonly used for household billing. Q99. Which electrical quantity is identical across resistors connected in parallel? [RRB Group D — 17 August 2026, Shift 3] (A) Current through each…
- [Sound](https://vidyaar.com/sound/): Q100. Consider these statements about sound: I. Sound speed decreases with increasing temperature at constant atmospheric pressure. II. It increases with humidity. III. At constant temperature it does not change when atmospheric pressure changes. Which are correct? [UPSC NDA II, September 2026] Answer: (B) II and III only Explanation: For an ideal gas, sound speed is proportional to the square root of absolute temperature, so statement I is false. Moisture reduces average molecular mass, increasing speed. At fixed temperature, changing pressure also changes density proportionately, leaving their ratio unchanged. Q99. The speed of sound in a large ideal-gas container is x.…
- [Wave Motion](https://vidyaar.com/wave-motion/): Q60. If the frequency of a sound wave increases while its speed in air remains constant, what happens to its wavelength? [RRB Group D — 25 Aug 2026, Shift 1] (A) Its wavelength remains unchanged (B) Its wavelength decreases (C) Its wavelength increases (D) Its wavelength fluctuates randomly Answer: (B) Its wavelength decreases Explanation: The wave equation is v = fλ, where v is speed, f is frequency and λ is wavelength. If the speed remains fixed in the same air, increasing the frequency must reduce the wavelength by the same proportion. Q59. A sound wave with a frequency of 15…
- [Heat and Thermodynamics](https://vidyaar.com/heat-and-thermodynamics/): 100. An insulated vessel initially has 250 g water at 20°C. Steam at 100°C heats it to 25°C and the water mass becomes 252 g. If the specific heat of water is 1 cal/g°C, what is the steam’s latent heat? [UPSC NDA-II GAT, September 2026] (A) 530 cal/g (B) 540 cal/g (C) 550 cal/g (D) 560 cal/g Answer: (C) 550 cal/g Explanation: The original water gains 250 × 5 = 1,250 calories. Two grams of steam condense and their resulting water cools from 100°C to 25°C. Therefore 2(L + 75) = 1,250, giving L = 550 cal/g. 99. Choose the correct…
- [Optics](https://vidyaar.com/optics/): Q160. In a concave mirror, a ray is incident parallel to the principal axis. After reflection, the ray passes through the _______. [RRB Group D, 21 Aug 2026] (A) Anywhere on the mirror (B) Pole (C) Focus (D) Centre of curvature Answer: (C) Focus Explanation: A concave mirror is converging: rays parallel to its principal axis reflect through the principal focus. This occurs because the curved reflecting surface changes their directions according to the law of reflection. The focus lies in front of the mirror. Q159. Which scenario best illustrates the use of a convex mirror based on the nature of…
- [Physical Properties of Materials](https://vidyaar.com/physical-properties-of-materials/): Q60. When water is poured slowly from a jug and clings to its side, which property chiefly accounts for this behaviour? [UPSC NDA-II – 2026] (A) Surface tension (B) Low vapour pressure (C) Negligible compressibility (D) Low viscosity Answer: (A) Surface tension Explanation: Surface tension, together with adhesion to the jug surface, makes water follow the spout or edge rather than separate immediately. Cohesive attraction helps maintain the thin liquid sheet. The phenomenon is familiar when water trickles down a vessel while pouring. Q59. Which physical property is generally characteristic of metals? [RRB Group D – August 2026] (A) They conduct…
- [Motion under Gravity](https://vidyaar.com/motion-under-gravity/): Q60. Why is the work done by gravity negative while a body is being lifted? [RRB Group D — 18 Aug 2026, Shift 2] (A) Gravity does positive work only in a fall (B) The net force must be zero (C) The magnitude of gravity changes (D) The displacement is upward while gravity acts downward Answer: (D) The displacement is upward while gravity acts downward Explanation: Work is the scalar product of force and displacement. Lifting moves the body upward, whereas its gravitational force points downward. Their angle is 180 degrees, so W = Fs cos 180° is negative. Q59. Why…
- [Mechanics](https://vidyaar.com/mechanics/): Q60. On a level circular cycling track of radius 10 m, riders P, Q and R travel at 2, 3 and 5 m/s respectively. If tyre-road friction is 0.1 and g = 10 m/s², which rider slips? [UPSC NDA-II, 13 Sep 2026] (A) P only (B) Q only (C) R only (D) All three riders Answer: (C) R only Explanation: Friction provides the centripetal force on a level road. The maximum safe speed is √(μrg) = √10, approximately 3.16 m/s. P and Q remain below this limit, while R requires greater friction than the road can supply and slips. Q59. A…
- [Measurement & Units](https://vidyaar.com/measurement-units/): EXAM YEAR 2026 Q100. Which of these is a derived SI unit rather than an SI base unit? [DSSSB MTS – 25 July 2026] A. Ampere B. Coulomb C. Metre D. Kilogram Answer: B. Coulomb Explanation: The coulomb is the derived unit of electric charge. Charge equals current multiplied by time, so one coulomb is one ampere-second. Ampere, metre and kilogram are among the seven independent base units of the International System of Units. Q99. Which correctly pairs the SI unit of work or energy with its dimensional formula? [RRB NTPC Undergraduate – 19 June 2026] A. Pascal — [ML⁻¹T⁻²] B.…
- [Election in India](https://vidyaar.com/election-in-india/): 40. In May 2026, the Supreme Court observed that the Election Commission of India’s power to conduct Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is derived from which Article of the Constitution? [RRB Group D – 2026, 18 August, Shift 1] (A) Article 324 (B) Article 327 (C) Article 326 (D) Article 325 Answer: (A) Article 324 Explanation: Article 324 gives the Election Commission supervisory authority over electoral rolls and elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President and Vice-President. Article 325 prohibits discriminatory electoral rolls, Article 326 concerns adult suffrage, and Article 327 empowers Parliament to legislate regarding elections. 39. As per…
- [Co-operative Societies](https://vidyaar.com/co-operative-societies/): Q40. Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the 97th Constitutional Amendment? [DSSSB Assistant Superintendent – 2026] A. Recognition of cooperative societies as fundamental institutions B. Introduction of GST in the Indian economy C. Making compulsory education mandatory for children D. Constitutional status to anti-defection law Answer: A. Recognition of cooperative societies as fundamental institutions Explanation: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, strengthened the constitutional position of cooperative societies. It aimed to encourage voluntary formation, democratic control, autonomous functioning and professional management, thereby addressing weaknesses in cooperative governance and protecting members’ interests. Q39. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted…
- [Non-Constitutional Bodies](https://vidyaar.com/non-constitutional-bodies/): Q170. In which year was the Central Vigilance Commission set up on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee? [DSSSB MTS, 1 Aug 2026 Shift 2] (A) 1972 (B) 1968 (C) 1976 (D) 1964 Answer: (D) 1964 Explanation: The CVC began in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption headed by K. Santhanam. It originally functioned through an executive resolution and received statutory recognition under a 2003 parliamentary law. Q169. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in which year? [DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 7 Jul 2026 Shift 1] (A) 2016 (B) 2014 (C) 2015 (D) 2013 Answer:…
- [Constitutional Bodies](https://vidyaar.com/constitutional-bodies/): Q175. Which constitutional Article establishes the Finance Commission in India? [DSSSB MTS, 1 August 2026 (Shift 1)] Answer: (A) Article 280 Explanation: Article 280 directs the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years, or sooner if necessary. The Commission recommends division of tax proceeds between the Union and the States and principles governing grants-in-aid. Q174. Who chaired the Sixteenth Finance Commission, whose report was tabled in February 2026? [RRB Group D, 9 August 2026 (Shift 1)] Answer: (A) Arvind Panagariya Explanation: The President constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission in December 2023 under Arvind Panagariya. Its central responsibility was to…
- [Union Territories, Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas](https://vidyaar.com/union-territories-scheduled-areas-and-tribal-areas/): Q60. Consider: (1) The Fifth Schedule governs tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. (2) Certain tribal communities receive income-tax exemptions on specified incomes. 3) The Constitution reserves Panchayat seats for women belonging to SCs and STs. Which conclusion is correct? [UPSC CSE Prelims 2026] (A) Two statements are correct, including statement 2 (B) Two statements are correct, namely 1 and 3 (C) Only one statement is correct (D) All three statements are correct Answer: (A) Two statements are correct, including statement 2 Explanation: The northeastern tribal areas named in statement 1 fall under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth.…
- [Panchayati Raj & Municipalities](https://vidyaar.com/panchayati-raj-municipalities/): Q100. Which of these Article–provision pairs is incorrectly matched? [UPSC CDS-I (General Knowledge) | 2026] A. Article 243A – Gram Sabha B. Article 243B – Constitution of Panchayats C. Article 243C – Composition of Panchayats D. Article 243D – Election to Panchayats Answer: (D) Article 243D – Election to Panchayats Explanation: Article 243D addresses reservation of seats, especially for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women. Election supervision for Panchayats belongs under Article 243K. The other three pairs correctly identify Gram Sabha, constitution and composition provisions introduced through the Seventy-third Amendment. Q99. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment deals with which subject? [SSC GD…
- [High Courts, Tribunals & Subordinate Courts](https://vidyaar.com/high-courts-tribunals-subordinate-courts/): Q200. Which river is at the centre of the interstate dispute for which a tribunal was directed in February 2026? [RRB Group D, 2025 cycle (held 2026)] A. Krishna B. Pennaiyar C. Godavari D. Cauvery Answer: (B) Pennaiyar Explanation: The Pennaiyar dispute concerns Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. In February 2026, the Supreme Court asked the Union government to constitute an interstate water-disputes tribunal. Such specialized adjudication is governed by the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. Q199. What best describes the role played by tribunals in India’s judicial framework? [DSSSB MTS, Shift 1, 2026] A. Speedy and specialist dispute resolution B.…
- [State Legislature](https://vidyaar.com/state-legislature/): Q100. What modification was made to Article 171(1) of the Indian Constitution by the Seventh Amendment? [RRB NTPC UG CBT-I (14 Jun 2026, Shift 1)] A. The term one-half was replaced by one-fourth B. The term one-fourth was replaced by one-half C. The term one-fourth was replaced by one-third D. The term one-third was replaced by one-fourth Answer: C. The term one-fourth was replaced by one-third Explanation: The Seventh Constitutional Amendment, 1956, changed the upper limit on a State Legislative Council from one-fourth to one-third of the Assembly membership. Article 171 governs Council composition and maintains a minimum of forty members,…
- [State Council of Ministers](https://vidyaar.com/state-council-of-ministers/): Q100. To which body is the State Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister, collectively responsible? [DSSSB MTS, 2026 (1 August, Shift 2)] Answer: (C) State Legislative Assembly Explanation: Article 164(2) makes the State Council of Ministers collectively accountable to the elected Legislative Assembly. Even in bicameral states, the Legislative Council cannot bring down the government through a no-confidence vote. Loss of Assembly confidence requires the entire ministry to resign. Q99. Who administers the oath of office to the Chief Minister of an Indian state? [DSSSB MTS, 2026 (27 July, Shift 3)] Answer: (A) Governor of the concerned state Explanation:…
- [Chief Minister](https://vidyaar.com/chief-minister/): 150. Who became the new Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu following the May 2026 Assembly elections? [RRB Group D 2025 paper, held 21 August 2026, Shift 2] (A) Edappadi K. Palaniswami (B) Udhayanidhi Stalin (C) C. Joseph Vijay (D) M. K. Stalin Answer: (C) C. Joseph Vijay Explanation: C. Joseph Vijay assumed office after the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly elections. This is a time-specific current-affairs question. The constitutional position is unchanged: the Governor appoints the person able to command the confidence of the State Legislative Assembly under Article 164. 149. Who took oath as Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu in May…
- [Governor](https://vidyaar.com/governor/): Q150. What did the Supreme Court hold regarding a Governor indefinitely delaying action on State Bills in the Tamil Nadu Governor case? [RRB Group D 2025 (20 August 2026, Shift 1)] (A) The Governor has an unlimited absolute veto (B) The Governor may amend any bill independently (C) The Governor cannot indefinitely refuse or delay action on bills (D) A pocket veto can be exercised without restriction Answer: (C) The Governor cannot indefinitely refuse or delay action on bills Explanation: The April 2025 Tamil Nadu Governor decision condemned indefinite inaction. A later five-judge advisory opinion in November 2025 rejected binding judicial…
- [Parliament](https://vidyaar.com/parliament/): Q150. For parliamentary starred and unstarred questions, consider: 1. Unstarred questions require oral replies. 2. Starred questions require written replies. 3. Supplementary questions cannot be asked on unstarred questions. How many statements are correct? [UPSC CSE Prelims (2026)] (A) All three (B) Two, including statement 2 (C) Only one (D) None Answer: (C) Only one Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. Starred questions receive oral answers and permit supplementary questions; unstarred questions receive written answers and do not permit supplementaries. The first two statements deliberately interchange these two types of parliamentary questions. Q149. About the Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of Scheduled…
- [Judicial Review, Judicial Activism & Public Interest Litigation](https://vidyaar.com/judicial-review-judicial-activism-public-interest-litigation/): Q70. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Ninth Schedule, later scrutinised in I. R. Coelho (2007)? [SSC Selection Post (Graduate Level), 23 September 2026, Shift 1] (A) 24th Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment (C) 44th Amendment (D) 1st Amendment Answer: (D) 1st Amendment Explanation: The First Amendment Act, 1951 inserted Articles 31A and 31B and created the Ninth Schedule. In I. R. Coelho (2007), the Supreme Court confirmed that laws inserted after 24 April 1973 can be examined for violations of the Constitution’s basic structure. Q69. Which of the following has NOT been explicitly recognised as part of the basic structure of the…
- [Supreme Court of India](https://vidyaar.com/supreme-court-of-india/): Q150. Which constitutional provision was cited as the source of the Election Commission’s power to conduct Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls? [RRB Group D, 25 August 2026, Shift 3] (A) Article 325 (B) Article 326 (C) Article 327 (D) Article 324 Answer: (D) Article 324 Explanation: Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission. Its scope covers preparation and revision of electoral rolls. The other provisions address voting rights, rolls and Parliament’s powers over election law. Q149. Which constitutional Article was central to the Supreme Court’s May 2026 ruling on unequal treatment of contractual employees…
- [Central Council of Ministers](https://vidyaar.com/central-council-of-ministers/): 100. Which Cabinet Committee is not chaired by the Prime Minister? [RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-I, 16 March 2026, Shift 2] (A) Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill Development (B) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs (C) Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth (D) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs Answer: (B) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs Explanation: The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is conventionally chaired by a senior Union minister rather than the Prime Minister. It coordinates the government’s legislative programme and parliamentary business. The Prime Minister chairs several key committees, including those on security and economic affairs. 99. Which constitutional Article…
- [Prime Minister Of India](https://vidyaar.com/prime-minister-of-india/): 150. Which article of the Constitution deals with the Union Council of Ministers? [DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 4 July 2026] (A) Article 78 (B) Article 75 (C) Article 74 (D) Article 73 Answer: (C) Article 74 Explanation: Article 74 creates the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to advise the President. Article 75 separately covers appointment, tenure, collective responsibility and related rules. Distinguishing these two articles is essential for constitutional questions. 149. Under Article 75(3), which institution is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha? [RRB NTPC Graduate CBT-II, 10 July 2026] (A) Rajya Sabha (B) Council of Ministers (C) Supreme…
- [Vice-President of India](https://vidyaar.com/vice-president-of-india/): Q100. Which statement about the Vice-President of India is correct? [DSSSB Assistant Superintendent, 12 July 2026, Shift 3] (A) Elected by both Houses of Parliament through the single transferable vote for five years (B) Elected solely by State Assemblies (C) Not eligible for re-election (D) Serves for six years Answer: (A) Elected by both Houses of Parliament through the single transferable vote for five years Explanation: Article 66 makes members of both Houses of Parliament the electoral college for the Vice-President. Voting uses proportional representation through a single transferable vote and secret ballot. The office lasts five years under Article 67,…
- [President of India](https://vidyaar.com/president-of-india/): Q150. Consider the former Presidents of India: 1. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan; 2. Dr. Zakir Hussain; 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy. How many of them also served as Vice-President of India? [UPSC CDS-I 2026, General Knowledge (12 April 2026)] (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three Answer: (C) Two Explanation: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and Zakir Hussain both served as Vice-President before becoming President. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy did not hold the vice-presidency; he earlier served as Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Thus exactly two names meet the condition. Q149. Arrange the following in order of precedence: 1. Chief Justice of India; 2. Governors within…
- [Emergency Provisions](https://vidyaar.com/emergency-provisions/): 60. Which of the following cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency under Article 352? [SSC Selection Post (Graduate Level), 18 September 2026, Shift 1] (A) Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty (B) Article 19 – Freedom of speech and expression (C) Article 22 – Protection against arrest and detention (D) Article 23 – Prohibition of human trafficking Answer: (A) Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty Explanation: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty and cannot be excluded from judicial enforcement through a Presidential order under Article 359. The 44th Constitutional Amendment protected both…

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